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2. What will be the effect of issuing $2 billion of new debt and using the proceeds to
repurchase shares?
If we ignore other effects but the tax effect, then the post leveraged recapitalization share
value=
After repurchase
Approximate value of debt =
Approximate value of equity =
Approximate debt-equity ratio =
Market-to-book ratio
Before repurchase
Book value per share = ($9602)/681 = $14.10
Market-to-book ratio of equity = $27.75/$14.10 = 1.97
After repurchase
Book value per share =
Market-to-book ratio of equity =
4. What would you expect to happen to MCI’s WACC if it issues $2 billion in debt and
uses the proceeds to repurchased shares?
After the repurchase
Assume that target debt-to-equity ratio = 32%
Target weight of debt = 24%
Target weight of equity = 76%
Given the increase in D/E, debt rating is assumed to go below A1, but above BBB1 and
the pre-tax cost of debt is assumed to increase from 6.1% to 6.4% (See Exhibit 3.)
Then,
WACC=
Do this analysis using the industry average asset beta. To get the industry average asset
beta, we must calculate individual firms’ asset betas.
Carry out a sensitivity analysis using different assumptions on the input parameters.
5. Would you recommend that MCI increase its use of debt? If so, by how much?
(i) In order to determine the minimum amount of EBIT required for the leveraged
recapitalization to have a positive effect on the EPS, we have to compute the indifference
EBIT using the indifference EBIT formula.
Indifference EBIT:
(EBIT-I1)(1-T)/N1 = (EBIT-I2)(1-T)/N2
Indifference EBIT=