2009 

Biochemistry question bank v 1.0e

Multiple choice questions. 
 
Contains  225 unsolved questions for biochemistry, for chapters amino acids, proteins, metabolism. Difficulty 
Level is moderate. 
 

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Date: • • • • .• • .• • • • :• • :• • +• • '• • ' 8/1/2009 
1. On the scale of the CPK models, i.e. magnification E. peptide H bonds
of 108, an C. van der Waals forces
average amino acid would be about the size of a

A. a house 8. Some proteins can fold up rapidly and

D. an apple spontaneously. Proteins which need
B. a truck chaperones (heat shock proteins, Gro-EL) are likely
E. a marble to be
C. a large pillow
A. alpha helical
2. DNA base pairs are connected by hydrogen bonds. D. beta sheets
What force causes them to "stack" against each B. large, hydrophobic
other in the double helix? E. from yeast or fungus
C. small, globular
A. more hydrogen bonds
D. ionic forces 9. Specific cleavage at F, Y, and W residues is
B. van der Waals forces catalyzed by
E. none of the above
C. hydrophobic attraction A. chymotrypsin
D. acetylcholinesterase
3. Which amino acid has an R group which can NOT B. trypsin
form hydrogen bonds? E. none of the above
A. S C. cyanogen bromide
D. Y
B. L 10. Home pregnancy tests detect low levels of hCG
E. E by means of
C. T
A. Western Blotting
4. The planar structure of a peptide bond includes D. Edman Degradation
how many atoms? B. Equilibrium sedimentation
A. 2 E. ELISA
D. 10 C. Amino Acid Analysis
B. 4
E. 24 11. Now that several genomes have been sequenced,
C. 6 plans are in the works to collect massive amounts
of data about 3-D protein structures. What
5. Secondary structures are generally stabilized by technique yields this
A. salt bridges information?
D. hydrophobic forces
B. magnetism A. ion-exchange
D. rate sedimentation separate into single stranded DNA because
B. affinity chromatography
E. Edman degradation A. solution turns blue
C. X-ray crystallography D. vial gets cold
B. UV absorption increases
12. SDS PAGE separates proteins by E. DNA precipitates out
C. UV absorption decreases
A. native charge only
C. size only 17. The F6 His is tightly bound to the heme iron, and
B. size and native charge is called the:
D. none of the above
A. distal His
13. If one strand of a short stretch of DNA reads D. vestigial His
AGGTTC, the other strand will read B. proximal His
E. retro-His
A. AGGTTC C. medial His
D. AGCTGC
B. TCCAAG 18. If a solution of Hemoglobin is oxygenated to
E. CTTGGA 1/2 of its capacity, what would you expect to find in
C. GAACCT the solution?

14. Bacterial transformation was first discovered A. The solution would contain only Hb(O2)2
in the 1920's by B. The solution would contain roughly equal parts
of Hb, Hb(O2)2, and Hb(O2)4
A. Fred Griffith C. The solution would have mostly Hb(O2)2 with
D. Oswald Avery some Hb and Hb(O2)4
B. Fred Sanger D. The solution would be 1/2 Hb(O2)4 and 1/2 Hb.
E. Hershey and Barr E. None of the above
C. Fred Flintstone
19. What is the heme group?
15. The size of the genome of E. coli is roughly A. a lipid
D. a tetrapyrrole
A. 4,600 base pairs B. a protein
D. 4,600,000 base pairs E. a steroid
B. 46,000 base pairs C. a carbohydrate
E. 46,000,000 base pairs
C. 460,000 base pairs 20. 2,3 BPG binds to Hemoglobin in its "Tense" deoxy
form but not to the "Relaxed"
16. When you heat a solution of double-stranded form. Why can't it bind to "Relaxed" Hb?
DNA you can tell when the strands
A. the oxygen gets in the way C. reaction is very fast
D. it does bind B. strong binding
B. the heme iron is too bulky
D. "substrate" is an inhibitor
E. no negative charges
C. central cavity of tetramer too small 25. The difference between a Cerebroside and a
Ganglioside is that
21. Consider the simple chemical reaction, A -> B.
Suppose that at the start of the reaction, A is 11 M A. one is a sphingolipid, the other a phosphatidyl
and B is 1 M. At the end of the reaction, A is 6 M and lipid
B is 6 M. To calculate the Gibbs Free Energy at the B. one contains a fatty acid amide, the other a fatty
start of the reaction, we would have to solve: ester
C. one contains a sugar head group, the other an
A. G = 1 + RTln(1) oligosaccharide
D. G = 0 + RTln(1/11) D. one has sugar phosphate, the other simply a sugar
B. G = 0 + RTln(11)
E. none of the above 26. Eucaryotic cell membranes are strengthened by
C. G = 11 + RTln(12)
A. the cell wall
22. Is it possible for a reaction with a positive Gibbs D. polyunsaturated fats
Free Energy change to go forward? Note, this is not B. glycolipids
the Standard Free Energy change. E. all of the above
C. proteins like Spectrin
A. yes, they always go forward
C. sometimes forward 27. Cardiolipin is found in
B. no, they can never go forward
D. none of above A. the mitochondrial inner membrane
b. the lysosome
23. One difference between Competitive and Non- c. the nuclear membrane
competitive Inhibitors is that Competitive Inhibitors d. the endoplasmic reticulum
e. the eucaryotic cell membrane
A. bind at a distance from the active site
B. trap S in the active site 28. Primary Active Transport – fueled by (what) to
C. prevent S from binding at the active site transport (what)?
D. always change the Vmax
E. none of the above A. sugars, sugars
D. GDP, proteins
24. If a given substrate has a high Km with an enzyme B. ATP, ions
we usually assume C. cAMP, amino acids
E. none of the above
A. weak binding
29. The Acetylcholine Receptor is composed of how 33. The standard free energy change for transport
many subunits? of Glucose across a membrane would be
A. 1
D. 6 A. positive
B. 4 B. negative
E. 8 C. zero
C. 5
34. In a handout, research was described that
30. Potassium can not pass through the voltage provided the "Fountain of Youth" for fruit flies, by:
gated Sodium Channel because
A. cosmetic surgery
A. inactivation prevents it D. transfecting SOD and Catalase
D. K+ is too large B. getting plenty of sleep
B. too much Sodium gets in way E. sit-ups and aerobatics
E. none of the above C. antioxidant vitamins
C. K+ is too positive
35. We share our antibody-diversity generating
31. Protein Kinase C transfers a phosphate to system with
Serine in substrate proteins containing the
sequence RKGSLRQ. Like Protein Kinase A, PKC has a A. all plants and animals
regulatory domain with a pseudosubstrate D. all jawed vertebrates
sequence. Which of the following would be a good B. all higher animals
candidate for this sequence? E. mammals only
C. all deuterostomes including starfish etc.
A. RAGSLRQ
D. RKGSARQ 36. The human genome holds some 30,000 genes.
B RKASLRQ Roughly what percentage of these genes are
E. RKGSLAQ devoted to producing antibody diversity?
C. RKGALRQ
A. 0.001%
32. An inhibitor of the enzyme Acetylcholinesterase D. 1.0 %
could be used as B. 0.01%
E. 10 %
A. a sleeping pill C. 0.1%
D. antibiotic F. 100%
B. inhibitor of gastric acidity
E. nerve gas 37. The antigen binding site of IgG is composed of
C. anti-inflammatory
A. VH and VL
D. 2 VL
B. VH and CH B. diabetes
E. none of the above D. malaria
C. 2 VH
42. Glucose which has been oxidized to have a
38. The heavy chain of IgG is made up of beta carboxyl group at C-6 is called:
sandwich segments which are clearly visible in the
structure. How many beta sandwiches are there in A. Gluconate
one heavy chain? D. Fructose
B. Glucuronate
A. 12 E. Sedoheptulose
D. 3 C. Glucarate
B. 6
E. 2 43. D-Xylulose forms a glycoside when a substituent
C. 4 is added to which position?
F. 1
A. 1
39. If concentrations in a cell are [ATP] = 2 mM, D. 4
[ADP] = 0.2 mM, and [AMP] = 0.02 mM what is the B. 2
energy charge? E. 5
A. 2.22 C. 3
D. 0.946
B. 1.0 44. Interpret the "chair" structure shown below.
E. 0.803 What is the name of the sugar represented?
C. 0.992
A. alpha-D-Mannose
40. What would be a good example of a "Stage III" D. beta-D-Allose
process, in Krebs' analysis of catabolism? B. alpha-D-Glucose
E. beta-D-Ribose
A. Amylose hydrolysis C. alpha-D-Galactose
D. protein hydrolysis
B. Glycolysis 45. When insulin signals ingestion of food, GLUT-4
E. none of the above receptors are
C. Citric Acid Cycle
A. rapidly synthesized
41. You drink a glass of milk. An hour later you have D. translocated to outer membrane
intestinal cramps and other gut symptoms. Chances B. rapidly destroyed
are you have E. blocked by binding insulin
C. put into inactive mode
A. galactosemia
C. lactose intolerance
46. Aldolase forms a covalent connection between D. outer membrane
substrate and a residue of B. mito inner membrane
E. lumen of endoplasmic reticulum
A. lysine C. cytoplasm
D. glutamate
B. serine 51. How many "~P" or "ATP" are produced by the
E. alanine oxidation of one mole of Pyruvate in respiring
C. cysteine mitochondria?

47. The normal mechanism of G3PDH is directly A. 2

disrupted by D. 12.5
A. cyanide B. 6
D. citrate E. 30
B. 2, 4 DNP C. 10
E. arsenate
C. Fru-2,6 BP 52. In the mechanism for the Pyruvate DH Complex,
what re-oxidizes Dihydrolipoamide to Lipoamide?
48. The graph below represents the kinetics of PFK-I
when F6P is held constant and ATP is varied. The A. NADPH
lines marked "+" show the kinetics in the presence D. FAD and NAD+
of what? B. NAD+ only
E. none of the above
A. cyclic AMP C. FAD only
D. Glucose 6 P
B. Calcium ion 53. Acetyl CoA labeled at C-1 is introduced into the
E. Fru-2,6-BP Citric Acid Cycle. Where does the carbon show up in
C. 2,3 BPG alpha-Ketoglutarate during the first turn of the
cycle?
49. Which compound allosterically decreases the
A. C-1
activity of Isocitrate DH?
D. C-4
B. C-2
A. ATP
E. C-5
D. F2,6 BP
C. C-3
B. ADP
E. Citrate
54. The Fe4S4 Iron Sulfur Cluster is shaped like a
C. cAMP
A. sphere
50. Succinate DH occurs where?
D. baseball diamond
B. doughnut
A. mito matrix
E. cube E. bL
C. triangle C. cytochrome c1
F. none of the above
55. Compared with cytochromes, iron sulfur
clusters are 59. The genetic disease Wernicke-Korsakoff
Syndrome was described in a handout and in class. It
A. higher in energy, evolutionarily older can cause brain damage, and results from weak
B. higher in energy, evolutionarily younger binding between
C. lower in energy, evolutionarily older
D. lower in energy, evolutionarily younger A. Transketolase and TPP
E. none of the above D. Glycogen and Phosphorylase a
B. Transaldolase and TPP
56. A "Racker's Knob" consists of the F1 "knob" and E. none of the above
the transmembrane For. Themovement of protons C. G6PDH and NADP+
inward through the Racker's Knobs causes rotation
of 60. If we run five molecules of hexose (Fru-6-P or
Glu-6-P) through the oxidative branch of the
A. F1 only Pentose Phosphate Pathway, we will get
D. neither
B. Fo only A. 5 Rib-5-P and 5 NADPH
E. alpha and beta subunits of F1 D. 6 Rib-5-P and 5 NADH
C. F1 and Fo B. 5 Rib-5-P and 10 NADPH
E. 6 Rib-5-P, 5 NADPH, 5 NADH
57. The existence of the ATP-ADP shuttle was C. 6 Rib-5-P
proven when a specific inhibitor was discovered –
the inhibitor is 61. The mechanism of Transketolase depends on a
covalent connection between substrate and
A. Bungarotoxin
D. Cyanide A. lysine
B. Atractyloside D. trans-fatty acids
E. Antimycin A B. cysteine
C. Amytal E. TPP
C. glucose
58. During the Q-cycle in mitochondria, "inward
facing" Q is reduced to QH2 by interacting directly 62. A deficiency of G6PDH can lead to
with what?
A. Pamaquine induced hemolytic anemia
A. cytochrome c D. a Selenium deficiency
D. bH B. Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
B. Rieske FeS E. all of the above
C. Diabetes only 5% Glucose. Which Glycogen Storage Disease
does the patient have?
63. Why is G6Pase a "dangerous" enzyme?
A. I lack of G6Pase
A. it forms peroxides D. V phosphorylase defic.
D. makes holes in membranes B. III lack of Debranching Enz.
B. uses up NADPH E. none of the above
E. it's radioactive C. IV lack of Branching Enz.
C. wastes energy, lets glucose leave the cell
68. During glycogen synthesis, the "Branching"
64. Glycogen Synthase lengthens the chain of enzyme moves how many glucose residues from the
glycogen by reacting with main chain to form a branch?

A. Glucose-1-P A. 1
D. UDP-Glucose D. 11
B. Glucose-2-P B. 3
E. UDP-Galactose E. 25
C. Glucose-6-P C. 7

65. You can exhaust your supply of muscle glycogen 69. The complete oxidation of a molecule of
by Palmitate (16:0) in respiring mitochondria would
cause a net gain of how many ATP?
A. smoking a cigar
D. taking a final exam A. 131
B. walking to class D. 106
E. running a marathon B. 129
C. weight training one hour E. 38
C. 108
66. A glycogen molecule has hundreds or
thousands of non reducing ends, and 70. The Reductase used during catabolism of -even
fatty acids adds hydrogens at positions:
A. hundreds of non-reducing ends
B. one non-reducing end, free to react A. 1 and 2
C. one non-reducing end, attached to UDP D. 4 and 5
D. one non-reducing end, attached to Glycogenin B. 2 and 3
E. 2 and 5
67. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver who states C. 3 and 4
that he never drinks alcohol is biopsied. When the
glycogen biopsy is analyzed in the lab, breakdown 71. The fatty acid 20:3 cis 11, 14, 17, was derived
with the normal enzymes yields 95% Glucose-1-P and from a common dietary fatty acid. By comparing
 numbers we can deduce that the metabolic source e. All of the above
for this fatty acid is probably:

A. palmitic 75. An amino acid with two chiral carbon atoms

D. linolenic
B. oleic
E. none of the above a. Is unstable
C. linoleic
b. Can exist in 4 forms all of which are
72. During fatty acid synthesis, a _____ double bond superimposable
is reduced by the cofactor _____
c. Can form three possible stereoisomers
A. cis, FADH2 d. Can form four possible stereoisomers
D. trans, NADPH
e. Can form five possible stereoisomers
B. trans, FADH2
E. cis, NADH
C. cis, NADPH F. trans, NADH
76. The R group of an amino acid determines if it is
73. If the R group of an amino acid is -CH3 , then the
name of this compound is
a. Hyrophilic or hydrophobic
b. Polar or nonpolar
a. Methyl amino acid
c. Charged or uncharged
b. 2-aminopropanoic acid
d. An acid or a base
c. Alanine
e. All of the above
d. All of the above
e. b and c
77. Proline is distinct among the 20 commonly
found amino acids because
74. Amino acids are zwitterions when they are

a. It is a ring compound
a. In any solution
b. It is hydrophilic and ionic
b. At physiological pH, pH = 7.4
c. The nitrogen of the amino group is in a ring
c. In acidic solutions only
d. The carbon of the carboxyl group is in a ring
d. In alkaline solutions only
e. It has little effect on protein structure
78. Tyrosine and tryptophan are less hydrophobic 81. Basic amino acids are ______ (positive, negative) at
than phenylalanine because pH 7 and acidic R group amino
acids are ______ (positive, negative) at pH 7.
a. Phenylalanine has an indole group
b. Phenylalanine has no polar group in the side chain a. Negative; positive
c. Phenylalanine is a phenol b. Negative; negative
d. Tyrosine and tryptophan have smaller R groups c. Positive; negative
e. All of the above d. Positive; positive

79. The amino acids in polypeptide chains which 82. Arginine is the most basic of the 20 amino acids
contain sulfur (S) are because its side chain is _________ under most cell
conditions.
a. Cysteine, cystine, and methionine
b. Cystine a. Very highly charged
c. Methionine only b. Hydrophobic
d. Cysteine only c. Titrated
e. Cysteine and methionine d. Protonated
e. Negatively charged
80. Although the hydroxyl groups in serine and
threonine are uncharges, they can react within 83. At the isoelectric pH of an amino acid which has
active sites of some enzymes because two pKa values the net charge is

a. The hydroxyl group is uncharged a. 0.5

b. The hydroxyl group can be polar b. 1
c. The hydroxyl group can fit into the site c. 0
d. All of the above d. -1
84. The pH inside cells is normally near pH 7. At pH 7
which statement is true about the charges
(ionization state) of the ‡-Carboxyl and ‡-Amino a. -1
groups of an amino acid? b. 0
c. +1
a. The ‡-Carboxyl group is 1- and the ‡-Amino group is d. +2
1+.
b. The ‡-Carboxyl group is 1+ and the ‡-Amino group 87. The ionic charges associated with a protein
is 1-. molecule are ____________________.
c. The ‡-Carboxyl group is 1- and the ‡-Amino group is
uncharged. a. mostly contributed by the side chains of
d. Both groups are uncharged (not ionized) at pH 7. constituent amino acids
b. determined by the contribution from the ‡-
85. Which structure below is appropriate for carboxyl group, ‡-amino group and side
glycine at neutral pH? chain of every amino acid in the protein
c. contributed by only the N-terminal and C-terminal
a. H2 NCH2 COOH residues
b. H2 NCH2 COO+ d. independent of the amino acid composition and
c. H3 NCH2 COO+ depend only on pH
d. H3 NCH2 COOH
88. A mixture of four proteins (A, B, C and D) is
86. What is the net charge on the tripeptide Gly-Arg- applied to a gel-filtration column. Given the
Lys at pH 7? The table below gives the pKa 's of the information supplied, which will elute first?
ionizable groups on the free amino acids.
 CNBr Met (C)
a. C Trypsin Lys, Arg (C)
b. B and D elute together Pepsin Phe, Trp, Tyr (N)
c. A
d. cannot answer without information about the a. Leu-His-Phe-Lys-Lys-Phe-Met-Gly
isoelectric point b. Gly-Met-Phe-Lys-Lys-Phe-His-Leu
c. Met-Leu-Phe-Lys-Phe-Gly-Lys-His
89. An octapeptide was determined to have the d. Leu-His-Lys-Lys-Phe-Phe-Gly-Met
following amino acid composition: e. His-Phe-Leu-Lys-Lys-Phe-Met-Gly
Lys (2), Phe (2), Gly (1), His (1), Leu (1), Met (1).
The native peptide was run through one cycle of the 90. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Edman degradation and the PTH-leucine derivative
was identified by HPLC. When the native peptide was a. Enzymes make reactions 103 to 101 7 times faster.
exposed to cyanogen bromide (CNBr), a heptapeptide b. Enzymes lower the amount of energy needed for a
and free glycine were recovered. Incubation of the reaction.
native protein with trypsin gave a tetrapeptide, a c. Enzymes are unchanged during a reaction.
tripeptide, and free lysine. The peptides were d. Enzymes speed up the attainment of a reaction
separated and each run through one cycle of the equilibrium.
Edman degradation. The tetrapeptide e. Enzymes are proteins.
yielded the PTH-leucine derivative, and the tripeptide
yielded the PTH-phenylalanine derivative. Incubation 91. An enzyme that catalyzes conversions of L-
of the native protein with pepsin produced a sugars to D-sugars is called an
dipeptide and two tripeptides. The amino acid a. Lyase
composition of the tripeptides (not the order) were b. Hydrolase
determined to be (Phe, Gly, Met) and (Phe, Lys, Lys). c. Synthetase
What is the sequence of the octapeptide? d. Synthase
Specificities of Proteases e. Isomerase
92. In a first order chemical reaction, the velocity
of the reaction is proportionate to the _____, while
in a zero order reaction, the velocity of the
reaction is proportionate to _____.
a. Amount of enzyme; concentration of substrate
b. Concentration of substrate; amount of enzyme
c. Concentration of substrate; the speed of the
reaction
d. The speed of the reaction; concentration of
substrate
93. The Michaelis constant, Km , is
a. The maximum velocity that any given enzyme
reaction can achieve
b. The substrate concentration which gives the best
enzyme assay for an enzyme
reaction
c. The substrate concentration when the reaction is
half the way toward the maximal
velocity
d. The maximal velocity divided in half
94. In the Lineweaver-Burk plot of an enzyme
reaction, the Km is determined by
a. The x intercept
b. The y intercept
c. The reciprocal of the x intercept
d. The reciprocal of the y intercept
e. Both a and c
95. Increasing the concentration of a classic
competitive inhibitor has no effect on the maximum
velocity of an enzyme-substrate reaction.
7. A nucleophile is an electron poor species.
96. In the reaction below Y- is _________________.
Y- + CH2X Ģ CH2 Y + Xa.
the leaving group
b. the attacking electrophile
c. the reaction intermediate
d. a nucleophile
97. The substrate specificity of serine proteases is
primarily due to
a. A specificity pocket in the protein.
b. The positions of specific side chains of serine,
histidine, and aspartate
c. Distinct backbone conformations of the
individual proteins
d. a and b
e. a, b and c

98. Acyl-group-transfer reactions often involve

which coenzyme?
101. Below is the structure for a cyclic D-
a. Coenzyme A monosaccharide. Which is the anomeric carbon
b. NAD+ atom?
c. cytochrome c
d. all of the above a. 1
b. 2
99. The simplest aldose is the chiral molecule c. 3
glyceraldehyde. d. 4
e. 5
12. All D-enantiomers of carbohydrates are
dextrorotatory.

100. The structure of D-arabinose is shown below.

How many stereoisomers are possible for
this molecule (including the one shown)?

15. In solution ‡-D-glucose and ·-D-glucose

a. one
_____________.
b. four
c. six
a. rapidly polymerize to form a heteropolymer
d. eight
b. can never exist together A. Iron moves into plane of ring, brings along
c. form a racemic mixture proximal Histidine
d. form an equilibrium mixture B. Iron moves out of plane of ring, pushing on distal
Histidine
102. Hemoglobin is a tetramer which can be thought C. EF helix closes up trapping oxygen inside heme
of as two dimers. The change from deoxyhemoglobin pocket
to (tetra) oxyhemoglobin causes the relative D. There is more space for 2,3 BPG, so more binds
positions of the 2 dimers to rotate about how many
degrees? 105. When certain muscles are exercising, and
metabolizing lots of glucose, what local effect
A. 4 D. 90 does this have on hemoglobin?
B. 9 E. 120
C. 15 A. blood moves faster through this tissue, less
oxygen released
103. The allosteric modulator 2,3 BPG is unstable. B. carbon dioxide produces high local pH, less
If blood is stored badly, what can go wrong? oxygen released
C. lactic acid lowers local pH, more oxygen is
A. Hemoglobin precipitates out causing sickling of released
RBC D. there is no particular effect
B. Hemoglobin "soaks up" oxygen, binds too avidly
C. Hemoglobin separates into monomers 106. Fructose-6-phosphate forms a five membered
D. BPG decomposes to carbon monoxide, patient ring in solution. The ring is connected by what sort
suffocates of structure?

104. What is the trigger for conformational change A. acetal

when oxygen binds to hemoglobin? D. hemiketal
B. ketal
E. xylan E. Galactose b 1,4
C. hemiacetal C. Mannose a 1,6

107. D-Galactose and D-Glucose are 110. A cerebroside is made up of Sphingosine plus
what?
A. 2 epimers
D. 5 epimers A. 2 fatty acids, glucose, phosphate
B. 3 epimers D. fatty acid, glucose
E. anomers B. fatty acid, glucose, phosphate
C. 4 epimers E. fatty acid, choline, phosphate
F. isomers C. ceramide, glucose

108. The disaccharide drawn at right is 111. Which lipid is represented here?
A. Lecithin
A. Sucrose C. Phosphatidyl Serine
D. Cellobiose B. Cardiolipin
B. Maltose D. Phosphatidyl Ethanolamine
E. Stachyose
C. Lactose 112. A common fatty acid is Linoleic Acid, which has
the structure
109. Sephadex is a brand named Dextran, used in gel
filtration columns. Chemically, Sephadex is poly A. 18:0
(what?) linked (how?). D. 18:2, Δ6, 9
B. 18:1 Δ7
A. Galactose, a 1,4 E. 18:2, Δ9, 12
D. Glucose a 1,6 C. 18:3 Δ9, 12, 15
B. Glucose, a 1,4 F. 16:1, Δ 8
 116. Several cofactors including Coenzyme A, FAD,
113. One enzyme found in cobra venom is and NAD have what in common?
Phospholipase A2, which cleaves membrane
phosphatidyl lipids producing A. Nicotinamide
D. ADP moiety
A. Diacylglycerol B. Pantothenate
D. Triglycerides E. A selenium atom
B. Phosphatidate C. Flavine
E. Saponification
C. Lysolecithin 117. Which cofactor forms a Schiff Base with
substrate?
114. What is Anabolism?
A. Biotin
A. DNA repair D. Thiamine
D. All "energy reactions" in cell B. Lipoic Acid
B. building molecules E. Coenzyme A
E. none of the above C. Pyridoxal Phosphate
C. breaking down foods
118. The mechanism of G3PDH involves covalent
115. Glycolysis is part of which of "stage" of attachment of substrate to which amino acid at the
catabolism? enzyme's active site?

A. I A. Ser
C. III D. His
B. II B. Cys
D. not part of catabolism E. Glu
C. Lys
 E. PG Kinase
119. What is the significance of Fru-2,6- C. Fructonase
bisphosphate in the cell?
122. The Citric Acid Cycle occurs where in
A. "I'm hungry" eukaryotic cells?
D. "Too much Calcium"
B. "not enough Glucose" A. the cytoplasm
E. "Too much AMP" D. the nucleus
C. "there's a lot of Glucose" B. the mitochondrial matrix
E. the mito. intermembrane space
120. The greatest difference between Aerobic and C. the lumen of the E.R.
Anaerobic fates of Pyruvate comes in the way
(what?) is utilized. 123. Unlike other species, organisms that have the
Glyoxylate Cycle can
A. ATP
D. NADH A. make fatty acids from glucose
B. Coenzyme A C. make glucose from fatty acids
E. Glyceraldehyde B. run the Citric Acid Cycle backward
C. Thiamine D. make Acetyl CoA from fatty
acids
121. Which Glycolysis enzyme has an unusually high
positive standard free energy change (in the 124. Citrate Synthase is allosterically inactivated
"forward" direction of Glycolysis)? by what 2 compounds?

A. Aldolase A. F 2,6 BP and CoA

D. UDP Gal Epimerase D. ATP and NADH
B. Hexokinase B. NADPH and Citrate
E. ADP and Pyruvate What technique should you start with to purify the
C. Vitamin C and Glucose Avidin?

125. In the mechanism of the Pyruvate DH Complex, A. affinity chromatography

Pyruvate is decarboxylated in the first step by D. SDS PAGE
reacting with TPP. The cofactor responsible for B. dialysis
the second step is E. gel filtration
C. ultracentrifugation F. ELISA
A. ADP
D. FAD 128. Home pregnancy tests detect small traces of
B. NADPH the protein hCG, human chorionic gonadotropin in
E. Ubiquinone the urine. What technique is this based on?
C. Lipoamide
A. gel filtration
126. A mixture of proteins is put through a Sephadex D. dialysis
column, for gel filtration. The protein which elutes B. affinity chromatography
last will be E. SDS PAGE
C. ultracentrifugation F. ELISA
A. the most spherical
D. the most positive 129. Which of the following would be a negative
B. the largest allosteric modulator of Myoglobin?
E. the most negative
C. the smallest A. 2,3 BPG
D. all of the above
127. Suppose you have a biological preparation and B. carbon dioxide
you know it contains Avidin, with many other E. Mb has no allosteric modulators
proteins, and that Avidin binds tightly to Biotin. C. H+
 B. – 49 kJ/mol
130. If a solution of Hemoglobin is oxygenated to E. + 68 kJ/mol
half its capacity, what would you expect to find in C. – 30 kJ/mol
the solution? F. none of the above

A. only Hb(O2)2 133. ATP hydrolysis is a high energy process

D. mono, di, and trioxy Hb compared to other phosphate hydrolyses because
B. half Hb, half Hb(O2)4 of (choose two correct answers):
E. none of the above
C. equal amounts of Hb, Hb(O2)2, and Hb(O2)4 A. charge repulsion
D. quantum tunneling
131. Where does 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate bind to B. steric hindrance
the Hemoglobin molecule? E. resonance stabilization
C. breaking a phosphate ester
A. it binds to the heme iron
D. at the opening of heme pocket 134. The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that
B. to the COOH end of alpha chain for a spontaneous change in a system and its
E. at the center of the tetramer surroundings, what must increase?
C. The E helices
A. entropy
132. If the standard free energy change for Gal-6-P - C. empathy
> Gal + Pi is –19 kJ/mol, and that for 1,3 BPG -> 3 PG B. enthalpy
+ Pi is –49 kJ/mol, then what is the DGo' for D. free energy
1,3BPG + Glu -> Glu-6-P + 3PG?
135. In the discussion of Michaelis Menten kinetics
A. – 68 kJ/mol in class, we learned that k2 (or sometimes kcat) is
D. + 30 kJ/mol referred to as
 B. sucrose
A. the Michaelis constant E. maltose
C. the turnover number C. lactose
B. the gas constant
D. the catalysis constant 139. The linkage (for example beta 1-6) of cellulose
is the same as that of
136. When we watch an enzyme consume substrate A. sucrose
over a period of time, and it produces product at a D. glycogen
constant rate over that entire time, we say the B. lactose
reaction is E. amylose
C. maltose
A. zero order
C. stalled 140. A glycoside of Fructose would have to be
B. first order A. a hemiacetal
D. steatopygeous D. a ketal
B. a hemiketal
137. The 2-epimer of D-glucose would be E. an alpha anomer
C. an acetal
A. D-allose
D. D-ribulose 141. A camel's hump contains mostly
B. D-galactose
E. D-fructose A. sphingolipids
C. D-mannose D. glycogen
B. water
138. The structure below represents E. triglycerides
A. stachyose C. hydrophilic proteins
D. cellobiose
142. A common fatty acid is Linoleic Acid, which has C. redox cofactors
the structure
145. Integral membrane proteins have an external
A. 18:0 "waistband" of amino acid residues which are
D. 18:2, D6, 9
B. 18:1 D7 A. hydrophilic
E. 18:2, D9, 12 D. basic
C. 18:3 D9, 12, 15 B. acidic
F. 16:1, D8 E. very small
C. hydrophobic
143. Addition of a fatty acid to sphingosine
produces a 146. Stage II of Catabolism (in the Krebs scheme)
gives how much ATP?
A. ceramide
D. sphingomyelin A. none
B. ganglioside C. a lot
E. phosphatidate B. a little
C. cerebroside D. can't tell

144. The "fluid mosaic model" of membrane 147. The ratio of NADPH to NADP+ in cells is
structure concerns the fact that the lipid bilayer generally kept
membranes found in cells contain various
A. greater than one
A. polysaccharides C. less than one
D. transmembrane proteins B. about one
B. steroid dimers D. can't tell
E. none of the above
148. What is Anabolism?
A. Glucose-6-P, Alanine
A. DNA repair D. Gluconolactone
D. All "energy reactions" in cell B. Glucose and Lactose
B. building molecules E. Alanine and pyrimidines
E. none of the above C. Lactic Acid and Glucose
C. breaking down foods
152. The reducing end of Glycogen is attached to
149. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase is
A. glycogenin
A. inhibited by AMP, stimulated by F2,6BP D. a ribosome
B. stimulated by AMP, inhibited by F2,6BP B. the endoplasmic reticulum
C. inhibited by both AMP and F2,6BP E. Fructose
D. stimulated by both AMP and F2,6BP C. Phosphorylase a
E. none of the above
153. When normal glycogen is broken down by the
150. Which enzyme of Gluconeogenesis is found in usual enzymes, what percentage of glucose is
the mito. matrix? released as "free" glucose?

A. G6Pase A. 25%
D. Pyruvate Carboxylase D. 5%
B. FBPase B. 17%
E. PEPCK E. 1%
C. Aldolase C. 10%
F. none at all
151. The operation of the Cori Cycle is responsible
for the appearance of what in blood?
154. Branching enzyme produces branches by E. 6 Rib-5-P, 5 NADPH, 5 NADH
moving how many residues of glucose? C. 6 Rib-5-P

A. 4 157. The mechanism of Transaldolase involves

D. 23 covalent attachment of the substrate to the enzyme
B. 6 or 7 via a residue of
E. 42
C. 9 or 10 A. cys
D. trp
155. In the laboratory, Ribose-5-P and Fructose-6-P B. lys
can be reacted with the enzyme Transketolase and E. ser
the appropriate cofactor. The products observed C. his
are:
158. Glutamine Synthetase is cumulatively inhibited
A. Sedoheptulose-7-P and Erythrose-4-P by several compounds including all of the
B. Sedoheptulose-7-P and Ribose-5-P following except which one?
C. Octulose-8-P and Glyoxylate-2-P
D. Octulose-8-P and Glyceraldehyde-3-P A. Tryptophan
E. none of the above D. CTP
B. Serine
156. If we run five molecules of hexose (Fru-6-P or E. Carbamoyl Phosphate
Glu-6-P) through the nonoxidative branch of the C. Oxaloacetate
Pentose Phosphate Pathway, we will eventually get
159. Which of the following is not a cofactor
A. 5 Rib-5-P and 5 NADPH found in the pathway Phe -> Epinephrine?
D. 6 Rib-5-P and 5 NADH
B. 5 Rib-5-P and 10 NADPH A. Vitamin C
D. B-12, cobalamin B. glycogen storage disease
B. SAM E. sickle cell anemia
E. NADPH C. heart or liver damage
C. THB
163. The compound shown below represents
160. Which amino acid is not "essential" in humans?
A. N5 Formyl THF
A. Tyrosine D. N5 N10 Methenyl THF
D. Lysine B. N10 Formyl THF
B. Valine E. N5 Methyl THF
E. Methionine C. N5 N10 Methylene THF
C. Threonine
164. Phenylalanine can't be made by human cells but
161. Cystathionine has how many carbons, total? is easily made by certain other species. The starting
materials for Phe synthesis are
A. 3
D. 9 A. R5P and S7P
B. 5 D. OAA and Pyruvate
E. 11 B. E4P and PEP
C. 7 E. Glu and PLP
C. Alanine and Benzene
162. If a doctor asks for an "SGOT" test, which
shows transamination of Aspartate by enzymes in 165. Lack of Phenylalanine Mono-oxygenase ("Phe
the serum, he probably suspects Hydroxylase") can cause

A. PKU A. Gout
D. gout D. Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome
B. Leukemia E. low Carbamoyl Phosphate
E. none of the above C. high NADPH levels
C. Phenylketonuria
169. Ribonucleotide Reductase makes use of an
166. The synthesis of Urea requires how many ~P, unusual cofactor:
high energy P-bonds?
A. biotin
A. 2 D. Thioredoxin
C. 6 B. FMNH2 E. Thiamine
B. 4 C. B-12
D. 8
170. The pyrimidine ring is built from carbamoyl
167. Drugs like Methotrexate prevent synthesis of aspartate and which amino acid?
DNA by binding to
A. asparagine
A. DNA Pol I D. threonine
D. Thymidylate Synthase B. alanine
B. DNA Pol III E. aspartate
E. Reverse Transcriptase C. glutamate
C. Dihydrofolate Reductase
171. During Pyrimidine biosynthesis, first the ring is
168. Conversion of Xanthylate (XMP) to Guanylate built and then it undergoes a "salvage" reaction
(GMP) is blocked by with PRPP. Which intermediate reacts with PRPP?

A. azaserine A. Uridine
D. low Aspartate D. Thymine
B. methotrexate B. Dihydroorotate
E. Guanine E. Ca++ regulates the contraction process by
C. Orotate allowing the myosin-ADP-Pi complex to interact with
actin filaments
172. If [ATP]= 10 mM, [ADP]= 6 mM, and [AMP] = 4 mM,
what is the energy charge in the cell? 174. Malignant hyperthermia occurs in 1:20,000
surgical procedures where muscle relaxants and
A. 26 general inhalation anesthetics are used. Malignant
D. 0.80 hyperthermia is caused by:
B. 1.0
E. 0.65 A. an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in
C . 0.88 muscle mitochondria by the anesthetics
F. 0.50 B. stimulation of Na+-K+ ATPase activity
C. the formation of stable myosin-actin
173. All of the following are true of skeletal crossbridges that cannot be broken by ATP
muscle contraction EXCEPT D. an elevated level of intracellular Ca++ that
promotes continuous muscle contraction with
A. ATP binds to myosin and causes myosin to detach associated increased ATP hydrolysis and oxidative
from actin phosphorylation
B. Myosin catalyzes the reversible hydrolysis of E. the depolymerization of F-actin to produce G-
ATP at the catalytic site but the products remain actin
tightly bound to the enzyme until actin binds and
displaces phosphate 175. Microtubules are involved in
C. The myosin-ADP-actin complex undergoes a
conformation change with release of ADP A. cell division
D. The power stroke in muscle contraction occurs B. ciliar and flagellar movement
when the myosin headpiece re-attaches to actin C. movement of secretory vesicles along axons
D. movement of organelles within cells
E. all of the above E. muscle waste, hypertension and a beard

176. Muscle proteolysis is accompanied by the 178. A patient with secondary aldosteronism will
release of ala and gln from muscle. What is the display
carbon source of these amino acids?
A. high serum Na+, high serum aldosterone and no
A. muscle protein, because it has a high content of serum renin
ala and gln B. high serum Na+, high serum renin, low serum
B. glucose aldosterone
C. creatinine C. hypertension and elevated serum renin
D. glycerol D. no serum ACTH, no serum aldosterone and high
E. acetoacetate serum Na+
E. masculinization and hypertension
177. A female patient with Cushings disease is
distinguishable by 179. A patient with Familial Hypercholesterolemia
has a defect in the clustering of LDL receptors in
A. low plasma ACTH, urinary 17a- coated pits. Incubation of this patient's fibroblasts
hydroxycorticosteroids > 100 mg/day and urinary with 125ILDL for 1 hour will result in
17-ketosteroids < 12 mg/day
B. high plasma ACTH, urinary 17a- A. most of the 125I-LDL being internalized in the
hydroxycorticosteroids > cells
100 mg/day and urinary 17-ketosteroids > 12 B. most of the 125I-LDL being degraded
mg/day C. most of the 125I-LDL being bound to the surface
C. high plasma angiotensin II, low urinary Na+ and of the cells
low urinary tetrahydroaldosterone D. most of the 125I-LDL being converted to 125I-
D. high plasma ACTH, urinary 17-ketosteroids > 17 VLDL
mg/day and urinary estrogen > 60 mg/day
E. most of the 125I-LDL undergoing lysosomal
digestion
180. In relation to hepatic cells from a normal
person on a low animal fat diet, hepatic cells from a
normal person on a prolonged high animal fat diet
will
A. contain higher amounts of cholesterol
B. contain a lower number of LDL receptors
C. contain a less active HMG-reductase
D. contain fewer mRNAs for the LDL receptor
E. all of the above are correct
181. A person with type IIA hyperlipoproteinemia
(Familial Hypercholesterolemia) had a blood
cholesterol level of 360 mg/dl (recommended
level below 200 mg/dl) and a blood triglyceride
(triacylglycerol) level of 140 mg/dl (recommended
level below 160 mg/dl). This person most likely has
A. a decreased ability for receptor-mediated
endocytosis of LDL
B. a decreased ability to degrade
triacylglycerols of chylomicrons
C. an increased ability to produce VLDL
D. an elevation of HDL in the blood
E. a decreased ability to convert VLDL to IDL
182. A person with an LDL-receptor deficiency was
treated with lovastatin. As a consequence of the
action of this drug, the person should have
A. fewer LDL receptors in cell membranes
B. increased de novo cholesterol synthesis
C. increased LCAT activity
D. lower blood cholesterol levels
E. higher blood triacylglycerol levels
183. A patient with hyperlipoproteinemia would be
most likely to benefit from a low-carbohydrate diet
if the lipoproteins that are elevated in the blood
are
A. chylomicrons
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. HDL2
E. HDL3
the 184. The liver does not accumulate excessive
amounts of cholic and chenodeoxycholic acids
because
A. these bile acids are totally excreted from the E. the effects of excess DHEA and hypertension as
intestine well as high salt in the urine
B. high levels of cholic acid will block directly
HMGreductase Choose the single best answer for the following
C. high levels of these bile acids will block 7a- questions. 6
hydroxylase
D. these bile acids will be incorporated into VLDL 186. In a fasting person, glucagon will affect the
and passed into the plasma de novo synthesis of cholesterol in liver
E. excess levels of the precursors of cholesterol
will be converted instead into steroid hormones A. by bringing about the phosphorylation of
HMGreductase which deactivates this enzyme
185. A young female patient suffering from an B. by bringing about the phosphorylation of HMG-
adrenogenital syndrome characterized by an reductase which activates this enzyme
inactive 11b-hydroxylase will display C. by increasing the level of acetyl CoA
D. by increasing gluconeogenesis
A. the effects of excess glucocorticoids and E. by bringing about the dephosphorylation of
hypertension as well as high levels of HMGreductase which deactivates this enzyme
tetrahydrocortisol in the urine
B. the effects of excess androgens and 187. A new drug "zaragozic acid" is now available
hypertension as well as high levels of pregnanediol which blocks the squalene synthetase system and
and pregnanetriol in the urine therefore dramatically lowers the plasma
C. the effects of excess androgens and cholesterol levels in hypercholesterolemia
hypertension as well as high levels of patients. Lovastatin, which completely blocks
tetrahydroaldosterone in the urine HMG-reductase, lowered cholesterol plasma levels
D. the effects of excess androgens and high levels in these patients to a similar degree. Would you
of salt in the urine prefer to prescribe
A. lovastatin because it will cause an increase in
HMG-CoA which can be metabolized to ketone bodies 189. In a normal person, hypertension is prevented
B. lovastatin because it will permit the synthesis of because the kidney tubule cell contains
isoprene units
C. lovastatin because it will increase the synthesis A. only an aldosterone specific receptor
of squalene B. an inactive 21-hydroxylase
D. zaragozic acid because it will not block the C. a high affinity 11b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
synthesis of isoprene units and farnesyl D. 17b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
pyrophosphate E. peripheral aromatase
E. zaragozic acid because it will not prevent the
synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol, a vitamin D3 190. A postmenopausal patient presents with a
precursor breast tumor. Proteins in the cytosol from a
homogenate of a biopsy of this tumor display high
188. Lymphocytic leukemia can become resistant to affinity, specific binding of tritriated estradiol and
treatment by glucocorticoids or glucocorticoid tritriated progesterone. Treatment of this patient
drugs because with an antihormone such as tamoxifen is warranted
because
A. these cells can metabolize certain
glucocorticoids to inactive metabolites A. the tumor is hormone dependent (responsive)
B. these cells can lose the expression of the B. the tumor contains active estrogen receptor
glucocorticoid receptor C. an estrogen regulated gene is turned on
C. the glucocorticoid receptor may become mutated D. the patient is postmenopausal
so that the receptor complex no longer interacts E. all of the above are correct
properly with its responsive element
D. these cells may more actively convert cortisol 191. It is also reasonable to treat this patient with
to cortisone
E. all of the above are correct A. diethylstilbesterol (DES)
B. CGP-47,645 E. all of the above are correct
C. spironolactone
D. finasteride 194. Ovarian follicular growth in a patient is best
E. MER-25 measured by

192. A patient with prostate cancer responded best A. the level of plasma ACTH
when he was treated with a combination of B. the level of plasma LH
flutamide and finasteride. An analysis of this tumor C. the urinary level of 17-ketosteroids
before treatment would be expected to show the D. the urinary level of progesterone (pregnanediol)
presence of E. the urinary level of estriol

A. aromatase and lutenizing hormone (LH) receptor 195. A patient is having difficulty conceiving. An
B. desmolase and 17,20-lyase analysis of her plasma shows that the level of FSH
C. androgen receptor and 5a-reductase is low and the level of estrogen is constantly high.
D. only the androgen testosterone Her pituitary function is normal and, other than
E. both the androgen and glucocorticoid receptors hypersecretion of androstenes, her ovary is
Choose the single best answer for the following normal. Ovulation can be induced in this patient by
questions. 9 administering for a short period (5 days)

193. The nuclear DNA from this prostate tumor A. lutenizing hormone
would be expected to contain B. an antiestrogen
C. progesterone
A. mutated Zn-fingers D. RU-486
B. NF-kB E. prolactin
C. Ras-GTP Choose the single best answer for the following
D. the appropriate hormone response element (HRE) questions. 10
upstream of responsive genes
196. Important to the control of steroid hormone E. increased lipogenesis and increased glycogen
synthesis by ACTH, LH or FSH is the fact that synthesis in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle

A. high levels of cholesterol will downregulate 197. The acidosis of diabetic ketoacidosis results
the LDL receptor from which of the following?
B. phospholipase A2 hydrolyzes arachidonate from
membrane phospholipids A. increased lipolysis in adipose tissue resulting
C. desmolase resides in the mitochondria from increased lipoprotein lipase activity
D. all three of these polypeptides are bound by the B. increased lipolysis in adipose tissue resulting
same membrane receptor from increased hormone sensitive triglyceride
E. the steroid hormone secreted by the endocrine lipase activity
tissue cannot down regulate the secretion of C. increased lipolysis in adipose tissue resulting
ACTH, LH or FSH from increased monoglyceride lipase activity in
hepatocytes
196. Hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes D. increased glycolysis due to increased glycogen
mellitus results from which of the following? phosphorylase a activity in adipose tissue and
skeletal muscle
A. increased lipolysis in adipose tissue and skeletal E. increased glycolysis resulting from increased
muscle phosphofructokinase activity in liver and skeletal
B. increased hepatic gluconeogenesis and muscle
decreased
glycolysis in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle 198. Elevated levels in blood following severe
C. decreased proteolysis and increased lipolysis in crushing injury can lead to renal
adipose tissue damage
D. increased glycogen synthesis and decreased
glycogenolysis in adipose tissue and skeletal 199. Urinary levels are used as a marker for muscle
muscle proteolysis

A. succinyl CoA
B. succinyl choline
C. creatinine
D. 3-methyl histidine
E. dystrophin
F. myoglobin
200. Low serum Ca++ (< 10 mg %) and normal serum
phosphate will normally be accompanied by
201. Low serum phosphate and normal serum Ca++
will be normally accompanied by
202. Analysis of serum from a patient with x-linked
hypophosphatemia will display
A. elevated serum levels of PTH, elevated serum
levels of 1a,25(OH)2 Vit D3
B. elevated serum levels of PTH, low serum levels
of 1a,25(OH)2 Vit D3
C. low serum levels of PTH, high serum levels of
1a,25(OH)2 Vit D3
D. low serum levels of PTH, low serum levels of
1a,25(OH)2 Vit D3
E. none of the above
203. An agonist binding to its membrane receptor
brings about GDP.Ga,bg , + GTP -> Gb,g + GDP +
GTP.Ga which initiates
204. An agonist binding to its membrane receptor
brings about the activation of phospholipase A2
which initiates
205. An agonist binding to its membrane receptor
brings about the activation of tyrosine kinase which
initiates
A. the metabolic formation of diacylglycerol which
activates protein kinase A
B. the activation of Ras and the hydrolysis of
arachidonate from position 2 of a phospholipid
C. the activation of Ras which ultimately brings
about the phosphorylation of nuclear regulatory
proteins
D. the binding of Ca++ to calmodulin which
activates cyclooxygenase
E. the metabolic formation of cAMP which activates
protein kinase C
F. the formation of and binding of cAMP to an
enzyme protein
G. the hydrolytic production of a substrate for
Cyclooxygenase.
 E) It indicates that binding affinity increases as more
206. Which of the following statements about fetal sites are occupied
hemoglobin is not correct?
208. Which of the following correctly describes
A) Fetal hemoglobin has higher affinity for O2 than how CO2 interacts with hemoglobin?
maternal hemoglobin A
B) Fetal hemoglobin has fewer positive charged A) CO2 binds to heme Fe2+
amino acids at g-globin C-terminal B) CO2 binds to heme Fe3+
C) Fetal hemoglobin binds 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate C) CO2 binds to His F8
more strongly D) CO2 binds to His E7
D) The sigmoidal O2 binding curve of fetal E) CO2 binds to the N-terminal of a-globin
hemoglobin is shifted to the left
E) Fetal hemoglobin remains in R-state at lower pO2 209. Which of the following does not play a role in
the blood clotting cascade?
207. Which of the following statements about the
sigmoidal O2 binding curve of hemoglobin is not A) Fibrinogen
correct? B) Prothrombin
C) Protein kinase A
A) Transition from almost empty to almost full D) Factor Xa
occurs over a narrower range of pressures E) Factor VIII
B) It allows for more efficient release of O2 at pO2
found in peripheral tissues 210. Which of the following enzymes is directly
C) Hemoglobin has higher P50 than myoglobin, but involved in production of NADPH?
still reaches saturation at the same pO2 as
myoglobin A) Lactate dehydrogenase
D) It allows more O2 to bind to hemoglobin than to B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
myoglobin at any given pO2 C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase A) Phosphorylase a preferentially goes to the
E) Phosphofructokinase active R state
B) Phosphorylase a phosphorylates enzymes
211. Which of the following is responsible for involved in glycogen
activating Protein kinase A? metabolism
C) Phosphorylase a is converted to phosphorylase b
A) Cyclic AMP binds to R subunits of protein kinase A by phosphoprotein phosphatase 1
B) Cyclic AMP binds to C subunits of protein kinase D) Phosphorylase a is negatively regulated by
A glucose.
C) Cyclic AMP becomes available as phosphate E) Serine 14 of phosphorylase a is phosphorylated
donor
D) Cyclic AMP is hydrolyzed to 5'-AMP 214. Which hemoglobin form is expressed during
E) The proenzyme form is cut by proteolysis months 2-9 of pregnancy?

212. If Cyclin E-Cdk2 activates DNA replication A) zzbb

proteins , at what phase of the cell cycle does its
activity come to a peak?
A) Progression through G1
B) Entry to S phase
C) Entry to G2 phase
D) Progression through G2 phase
E) Entry and progress through M phase
213. Which of the following statements about
phosphorylase a is not correct?
B) eebb
C) aagg
D) aadd
E) eegg
215. Which of the following correctly describes
the role of tissue plasminogen activator?
A) promotes clotting by activating fibrinogen
B) promotes clotting by activating prothrombin
C) prevents clotting by binding to fibrinogen
D) prevents clotting by binding to prothrombin
E) promotes the dissolution of clots C) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
D) Pyruvate kinase
216. Which of the processes for activation of E) Glucose-6-phosphatase
pancreatic proenzymes is not correct?
219. Which of the following is the initiator
A) Enteropeptidase can activate trypsinogen procaspase activated by external signals such as
B) Trypsin can activate trypsinogen tumour necrosis factor?
C) Chymotrypsin can activate trypsinogen
D) Trypsin can activate A) Procaspase 1
chymotrypsinogen B) Procaspase 3
E) Trypsin can activate Procarboxypeptidase C) Procaspase 7
D) Procaspase
217. What is the mechanism by which caffeine 8 E) Procaspase 9
stimulates glycogen breakdown?
220. How many steps in the gluconeogenesis
A) Caffeine inhibits breakdown of cyclic AMP pathway yield ATP as a product?
B) Caffeine is an allosteric activator of glycogen
phosphorylase A) 0
C) Caffeine inhibits phosphoprotein phosphatase B) 1
D) Caffeine binds to protein kinase A C) 2
E) Caffeine stimulates production of cyclic AMP D) 4
E) 6
218. Which of the following enzymes is not required
for gluconeogenesis in liver? 221. If transketolase accepts xylulose-5-phosphate
and erythrose-4-phosphate as substrate, what
A) PEP carboxykinase products are released?
B) Pyruvate carboxylase
A) Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate and glyceraldehyde- D) 5'-AMP level is controlled by
3-phosphate phosphofructokinase 2
B) Fructose-6-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3- E) 5'-AMP level is correlated with the square of
phosphate [ADP]
C) Ribulose-5-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-
phosphate 224. Which of the following is used as substrate by
D) Dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate and glucose-6- glycogen synthase?
phosphate
E) Dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate and ribose-5- A) UTP-Glucose
phosphate B) UDP-Glucose
C) Glucose-1-phosphate
222. What are the characteristics of hemoglobin D) Glucose-6-phosphate
variant bbbb produced in a-thalassemia? E) Glucose + ATP

A) It binds O2 like normal hemoglobin B) It binds O2 225. What compound is exported from mitochondria
like fetal hemoglobin to provide substrate gluconeogenesis in the
C) It is unable to bind O2 D) It binds O2 like cytoplasm when lactate is the starting point?
myoglobin
E) It polymerizes into fibres in red blood cells A) Pyruvate
B) Malate
223. Which of the following properties is directly C) Oxaloacetate
related to the concentration of 5'-AMP as an D) PEP E) Acetyl CoA
indicator of energy status ?

A) 5'-AMP level is correlated with high [ATP]

B) 5'-AMP level is correlated with [ADP]
C) 5'-AMP level is controlled by external hormones