PGI Paper

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 1
PGI CHANDIGARH – MAY 2010 REVIEW
ANATOMY
1.Which are not the flexors of forearm:

A. Pronater teres
B. Brachialis
C. Brachioradialis
D. Anconeus
E. Flexor pollicis longus
Ans: D (Anconeus) & E (Flexor pollicis longus)
2.Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:

A. Femoral br. of genitofemoral nerve
B. Superficial epigastric artery
C. Psoas major
D. Femoral vein
E. Saphenous vein
Ans: C (Psoas major) & D(Femoral vein)
3. Flexor of lumbar spine is/are:

A. Erector spinae
B. External oblique muscle
C. Internal oblique muscle
D. Rectus abdominis
E. Psoas major
Ans: D(Rectus abdominis) & E(Psoas major)
4.True about radial nerve:

A. Branch of posterior cord
B. Nerve of extensor compartment of forearm
C. Arise from C5-T1
D. Anterior interosseous nerve is branch of it
E. Supply skin of extensor compartment
Ans: A (Branch of..), B(Nerve of ..), C (Arise from..) & E(Supply..)
5.Anterior triangles of neck are :

A. Submental triangle
B. Carotid triangle
C. Supraclavicular triangle
D. Digastric triangle
E. Muscular triangle
Ans: A. (Submental ...), B. (Carotid ..), D. (Digastric..) E. (Muscular ..)
6.Features seen in common peroneal nerve injury:

A. Inversion inability
B. Loss of sensation of sole
C. Foot drop
D. Loss of extension of great toe
E. Seen in Fibular neck #
Ans: C. (Foot drop), D. (Loss of .....), E. (Seen ....)
7.Teres major of liver is remnant of:

A. Ductus venosus
B. Umblical artery
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Peritoneum
E. Left umbilical vein
Ans : E (Left umbilical vein)
8.Rotator cuff is/are formed by all except:

A. Supraspinatus
www.saraswatastar.weebly.com
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. Teres major
E. Subscapularis
Ans: D (Teres major)
9.Enchondral ossification is/are seen in:

A. Long bones
B. Flat bones of skull
C. Clavicle
D. Mandible
E. Nasal bones
Ans: A (Long bones)
10.Deep venous system of brain consists of:

A. Internal cerebral vein
B. Great cerebral vein
C. Basal veins
D. Cavernous sinus
Ans: A. (Internal cerebral vein), B. (Great cerebral vein) & (C Basal veins)
PHYSIOLOGY
11.“Nerve terminal releases chemical”- discovered by:

A. Dale
B. Withering
C. Domagk
D. Langley
E. Loewi
Ans: A. (Dale) & E. (Loewi)
12.True about Nissl granule:

A. Involved in RNA synthesis
B. Present in axon
C. Present in dendrite
D. Involved in protein synthesis
E. Structurally they are endoplasmic reticulum
Ans: C. (Present in...), D. (Involves in ...) E. Structurally they..)
13.Which of the following organ is not involved in Calcium metabolism:

A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Skin
E. Kidney
Ans: C (Spleen)
14.True about milk secretion:

A. Neuroendocrine part of post. pituitary is involved
B. Secretion by contraction of lactiferous sinus
C. Oxytocin hormone is involved
D. Prolactin cause contraction of Myoepithelial cells
E. Affected by emotion
Ans: A. (Neuroendocrine..), B. (Secretion..) C. (Oxytocin..) E. (Affected by emotion)
15.CO2 retention is seen in:

A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Respiratory failure
C. High altitude
D. Ventilatory failure
E. Pulmonary edema
Ans: B. (Respiratory...), D. (Ventilatory...), E. (Pulmonary ...)
“As one ascends higher, the alveolar PO2 falls less rapidly & alveolar CO2 declines somewhat
because of the hyperventilationQ”- Ganong 23rd/618
BIOCHEMISTRY
16.Which component transfers four protons :

A. NADH-Q Oxidoreductase
B. Cytochrome c Oxidase
C. Cytochrome-Qc oxidoreductase
D. Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
E. Succinate Q Reductase
Ans:A (NADH-Q Oxidoreductase) & C(Cytochrome-Q c oxidoreductase)
“Estimates suggest that for each NADH oxidized, complex I & III translocate four proton each &
complex IV translocates two”- Harper 28th/106
Complexes I (NADH-Q oxidoreductase), III (Cytochrome-Qc oxidoreductase) and IV (Cytochrome c
Oxidase) act as proton pumps that cause pumping of protons from the matrix across the inner
mitochondrial membrane into the intermembrane space -Harper
17.Hydrophobic aminoacids are:

A. Methionine
B. Isoleucine
C. Tyrosine
D. Alanine
E. Asparagine
Ans:ABD
Satyanarayan 3rd/48
Non-polar amino acidsQ : These amino acids are also referred to as hydrophobic (water hatings).
They have no change on the 'R' group. The amino acids included in this group are-alanine,
leucine, isoleucine, valine, methionine, phenylalanine, tryptophan and proline.
18.True about competitive inhibition of enzyme:

A. ↑ Km
B. ↓ Km
C. ↑Vmax
D. No change in Km or Vmax
E. Vmax remain same
Ans: AE
19.Urea cycle enzymes are :

A. Glutaminase
B. Asparginase
C. Arginosuccinate synthetase
D. Ornithine transcarboxylase
E. Glutamate dehydrogenase
Ans: C (Arginosuccinate synthetase) & D (Ornithine transcarboxylase)
20.Epimer combination(s) is/are:

A. D-glucose & D- fructose
B. D-mannose & D-talose
C. D-glucose & D-mannose
D. D-glucose & D- gulose
E. D-galactose & D-glucose
Ans:CE
“Biologically, the most important epimers of glucose are mannoseQ (epimerized at carbon 2) &
galactoseQ (epimerized at carbon 4)”- Harper 28th /115
“Galactose & mannose are not epimers”- Lippincott 4th/84 en.wikipedia.org /wiki/Gulose
21.Glycosphingolipid is made up of :
A. Glucose
B. Glycerol
C. Sphingosine
D. Fatty acids
E. Thromboxane A2
Ans:ACD
22.Calvin cycle enzymes are:

A. G-6-PD
B. Sedoheptulose- 1-7-bisphosphatase
C. Glycerol Kinase
D. Phosphoribulose kinase
Ans: BD
Calvin Cycle - Photosynthetic Carbon Reactions
The Calvin cycle or Calvin–Benson cycle or Reductive Pentose Phosphate cycle is a series of
biochemical reactions that take place in the stroma of chloroplasts in photosynthetic organisms.
The Calvin Cycle, earlier designated the photosynthetic "dark reactions" pathway, is now referred to
as the carbon reactions pathwayQ. Sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphatase (one of only three enzymes of
the Calvin cycle that are unique to plants) cleaves sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphate into
sedoheptulose-7-phosphate, releasing an inorganic phosphate ion into solution.
Finally, phosphoribulokinase (another plant-unique enzyme of the pathway) phosphorylates RuP into
RuBP, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, completing the Calvin cycle.
Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Calvin_cycle
23.High energy phosphate compounds are :

A. ATP
B. ADP
C. Creatinine phosphate
D. Acetyl CoA
Ans: ACD
24.Trypsin cleaves
A. Arginine
B. Glutamate
C. Lysine
D. Proline
Ans:AC
“Trypsin catalyses hydrolysis of lysine & arginine esters, chymotrypsin esters of aromatic amino
acids & elastase ester of small neutral aliphatic amino acids”- Harper 28th/462
“Trypsin: It cannot hydrolyse any peptide bond with proline residue”- Chatterjea & Shinde
7th/435
IMMUNOGENETICS & MOLECULAR BIOLOGY
25.Non coding RNAs are :

A. siRNA
B. miRNA
C. tRNA
D. mRNA
E. rRNA
Ans: A. (siRNA), B. (miRNA), C. (tRNA) E. (rRNA)
26. Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by all except:

A. Releasing factor
B. Stop codon
C. Peptidyl transferase
D. UAA codon
E. AUG codon
Ans: E(AUG codon)
“AUG is initiation codon while UAA is terminating codon”- Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/249-50
27. Nucleosome consists of :

A. Histone
B. DNA
C. RNA
D DNA & RNA both
E. Carbohydrate
Ans: A (Histone) & B (DNA)
28. Method (s) to determine protein structure is/are:

A. X-ray crystallography
B. NMR Spectroscopy
C. Electrophoresis
D. Ultrasonography
E. Infra red spectroscopy
Ans: A(X-RAY..), B (NMR Spectroscopy) & E (Infra red spectroscopy)
ElectrophoresisQ is used for protein purification- Satyanarayan 3rd/60
PATHOLOGY
29.Which substance is/are not deposited in hepatocyte:

A. Lipofuscin
B. Pseudomelanin
C. Bile pigment
D. Iron
E. Melanin
Ans: B (Pseudomelanin) & E (Melanin)
30. True about p53 :

A. Proapoptotic
B. Tumor supressor gene
C. Protooncogene
D. Tumor necrotic factor
E. Cause cell cycle arrest
Ans: A. (Proapoptotic), B. (Tumor supressor gene) & E. (Cause cell cycle arrest)
31.Stains used in amyloidosis :

A. Congo red
B. Thioflavin
C. Reticulin
D. Gram iodine
E. PAS
Ans: A. (Congo red), B. (Thioflavin) & E. (PAS)
32.Which Ca metastases to heart :

A. Ca breast
B. Ca stomach
C. Ca lung
D. Ca Urinary bladder
E. Osteosarcoma
Ans: A. (Ca breast), C. (Ca lung) & E. (Osteosarcoma)
33.HLA associated with rheumatoid arthritis:

A. DR1
B. DR2
C. DR3
D. DR4
E. DR 5
Ans: D (DR4)
34.Schistocyte is found in:

A. TTP
B. DIC
C. Severe iron deficiency
D. Prosthetic heart valve
E. March hemoglobinuria
Ans: A. (TTP), B. (DIC), C. (Severe iron ...) D. (Prosthetic ...) E. March ...)
35.Breast Ca is not a/w:

A. BRCA1 & BRCA2
B. Apocrine metaplasia
C. Atypical ductal hyperplasia
D. Fibroadenoma
E. Moderate hyperplasia
Ans: B (Apocrine metaplasia) & D( Fibroadenoma)
36.Modified Bloom Richardson criteria for Ca breast includes:

A. Desmoplasia
B. Lymphovenous embolism
C. Mitotic rate
D. Tubule formation
E. Nuclear polymorphism
Ans: C. (Mitotic rate), D. (Tubule formation) & E. (Nuclear ...)
37.Characteristic finding of biopsy in mesothelioma includes:

A. Myelin
B. Desmosin
C. Weibel palade bodies
D. Branching microvilli
E. Fibrosis
Ans: D (Branching microvilli)
38.True about Dyskeratosis congenita:

A. Pancytopenia
B. Nail dystrophy
C. Hyperkeratosis
D. X linked
E. Leucoplasia
Ans: A. (Pancytopenia), B. (Nail ...), D. (X linked) & E. (Leucoplasia)
39.Mitochondrial abnormality seen in

A. Oncocytoma
B. Kearn-Sayre syndrome
C. Farber disease
D. Mitochondrial myopathy
E. Leigh’s disease
Ans: A. (Oncocytoma), B. (Kearn-Sayre...), D. (Mitochondrial...) & E. (Leigh’s disease)
40.Diseases having autosomal recessive inheritance:

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Duchene muscular dystrophy
D. Albinism
E. Vit. D resistant ricket
Ans: A. (Cystic fibrosis) & D. (Albinism)
41.Subepithelial deposits are seen in:

A. Minimal change disease
B. MPGN
C. Membranous GN
D. PSGN
E. IgA Nephropathy
Ans: C. (Membranous GN) & D. (PSGN)
42.True about apoptosis

A. Increase in lysosomal enzyme
B. Increase in caspases
C. Phosphatidyl serine has important role
D. Internucleosomal cleavage of nucleus
Ans: B (Increse in caspase), C (Phosph.. ) & D ( Intern…)
MICROBIOLOGY
43.Feature of congenital Syphilis are:

A. Snuffles is late manifestation
B. Perforation in cartilaginous part of nose
C. Mulberry molar
D. Saddle nose deformity
Ans: B CD
The earliest sign of congenital syphilis (appearing 2–6 weeks after birth) is usually rhinitis, or
"snuffles “.
44.All are true about secondary syphilis except:

A. Gumma formation
B. Condyloma lata
C. Palmar erythema
D. Chancre may occur

E. Mucosal patch
Ans. A ( Gumma..) & C( Palmar erythema)
45. All are true regarding autoimmune disease except:

A. T cell recognize self antigen
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an example
C. Higher incidence among male
D. Polyclonal B cell activation
E. Co-stimulatory molecule involvement
Ans: C (Higher ..)
Co-stimulatory molecules such as B7-1 (CD80) or B7-2 (CD86) are involved in autoimmunity.
Higher incidence among female.- Ananthnarayan 8th/172
46. Hypersensitivity to metal is diagnosed by

A. Skin patch test
B. Total IgE level
C. Leucocyte histamine release test
D. Classic delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reactions
E. Lymphocyte assay
Ans: A(Skin patch ..) & D ( Classical ..)
47.Which of the following is not the manifestation of borellia burgdorferi:

A. Erythema chronicum migrans
B. Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans
C. Lymphogranuloma venerum
D. Granuloma faciale
E. Lichen planus
Ans:CDE
48.Larva is seen in stool with :

A. Ankylostoma duodenale
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Enterovirus vermicularis
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
E. Loa loa
Ans: A(Ankylostoma duodenale) & B (Strongyloides stercoralis)
“Hookworm (A. duodenale and N. americanus): In a stool sample that is not fresh, the eggs may
have hatched to release rhabditiform larvae, which need to be differentiated from those of S.
stercoralis”- Harrison 17th/1321
49.Antigenic variation is seen in:

A. Treponema pallidum
B. Neisseria
C. Corynebacterium
D. Borrelia recurrentis
Ans:B ( Neisseria ) & D (Borrelia recurrentis)
50.True about diphtheria:

A. Gram –ive bacilli
B. I.P 2-5 days
C. Chemoprophylaxis is done with rifampicin
D. Previously immunized asymptomatic household contact should receive booster dose
E. Child recovered from illness- give active immunization
Ans: B (I.P 2- days) & D( Previously ..)
51.Genital ulcer seen in all except:

A. H. aegypticus
B. H. ducreyi
C. HSV
D. Chlamydia
E. T. pallidum
Ans:A (H. aegypticus)
52. The term “viable not cultivable” (VNC) is used for:

A. M. Leprae
B. M. Tuberculosis
C. Trepenoma pallidum
D. H.pylori
E. Staphylococcus
Ans: A (M. Leprae) & B (Trepenoma pallidum)
PHARMACOLOGY
53.Theophyllin toxicity level increased in all except:

A. Smoking
B. Carbamazepine
C. Increased alcohol intake
D. Rifampicin
E. Ciprofloxacin
Ans: A. (Smoking), B. (Carbamazepine), C. (Increased...) & D. (Rifampicin)
54.Following are drugs except:

A. Nutrients
B. Blood component
C. Essential dietary ingredient
D. Poison
Ans: A. (Nutrients), B. (Blood ...) & C. (Essential ...)
“A drug can be defined as a chemical substance of known structure, other than a nutrient or an
essential dietary ingredient, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a
biological effect”- Rang & Dale Pharmacology
55.Drug not effective in pseudomonas infection:

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Norfloxacin
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Ampicillin
E. Piperacillin
Ans: B. (Norfloxacin) & D. (Ampicillin)
56. Aminoglycosides used in all except:

A. Staph. aureus
B. Streptococci
C. E. coli
D. Anaerobes
E. Salmonella typhi
Ans: D. (Anaerobes) & E. (Salmonella typhi)
“For salmonella typhi aminoglycosides are not used”- Harrison 17th/959(table)
57.A person driving a vehicle met with an accident. He was on certain medications. Which of the
following drugs, he might be taking
A. Fluoxetine
B. Fexofenadine
C. Tramadol
D. Buspirone
E. Chlorzoxazone
Ans: C. (Tramadol) & E. (Chlorzoxazone)
58.Which of the following are β1 selective antagonist:

A. Propanalol
B. Atenolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Pindolol
Ans: B. (Atenolol) & C.(Metoprolol )
59.Peptides drugs are :

A. Polymyxin B
B. Valinomycin
C. Streptomycin
D. Gramicidin S
E. Nodularin
Ans: A. (Polymyxin B), B. (Valinomycin), D. (Gramicidin S) & E. (Nodularin)
“Streptomycin is an aminoglycosides”- KDT 6th /668
60.Correctly matched pairs are:

A. Rifampicin – inhibit bacterial DNA polymerase
B. Terbinafine- inhibit fungal DNA polymerase
C. Acyclovir- inhibit viral DNA polymerase
D. Cytarabine- inhibit human DNA polymerse
Ans: C. (Acyclovir...) & D. (Cytarabine...)
61.Drugs which precipitates in renal tubule & cause obstruction:

A. Indinavir
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Guaifenesin
D. Atazanavir
Ans: A. (Indinavir), C. (Guaifenesin) & D. (Atazanavir)
62.Drugs that crosses blood brain barrier:

A. Erythromycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Ampicillin
D. Aminoglycosides
E. Ceftriaxone
Ans: B. (Cotrimoxazole), C. (Ampicillin) & E. (Ceftriaxone)
“Erythromycin do not cross BBB”-KDT 6th/728

“Aminoglycosides do not penetrate brain or CSF”- KDT 6th/719
“Ceftriaxone: Penetration into CSF is good”-KDT 6th/706
“Ampicillin: Penetration into CNS is poor, but in presence of active inflammation of
meninges, the drug concentration are sufficient to kill bacteria”- Katzung 10th/ 829-30
Cotrimoxazole:
“Trimethoprim adequately crosses BBB while sulfamethoxazole has a poorer entry”-KDT
6th/685
“Sulfamethoxazole is distributed widely in tissue & body fluids including CNS & CSF”-
Katzung 10th/ 763
63.Amphotericin B toxicity is ↑ed by:

A. Normal saline
B. Cardiac failure
C. Lipid formulations
D. Aminoglycosides
Ans: B. (Cardiac failure) & D. (Aminoglycosides)
64.True statement regarding Bioassay :

A. Done to know activity of endogenous substance
B. To know toxicity & efficacy of drug
Ans: A. (Done to .....) & B. (To know ....)
Bioassay (biological assay )

Purpose
1.measurement of the pharmacological activity of new or chemically undefined substances
2.investigation of the function of endogenous mediators
3.determination of the side-effect profile, including the degree of drug toxicity
4.measurement of the concentration of known substances (alternatives to the use of whole
animals have made this use obsolete)
5.assessing the amount of pollutants being released by a particular source, such as wastewater
or urban runoff.
Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bioassay
FORENSIC
65.True about battered baby syndrome:

A. Posterior rib # may be seen in xray
B. Injury at the side of metaphysis is specific
C. Epiphyseal injury common
D. Babygram is diagnostic
E. MC cause of death is extradural hemorrhage
Ans: All
66.All are true about postmortem staining except

A. Occur immediately after death
B. MC in dependent part
C. Disappear with rigor mortis
D. Margins are raised
E. Not found in internal organ
Ans: A. (Occurs..), C ( Disappear..),D( Margins..) & E. (Not found in internal organ)
“PM staining persists until putrefaction sets in”- Reddy 27th/137

“PM staining does not appear elevated above the surface, but has sharply defined edges”- Modi’s
Medical Jurisprudence & Toxicology 23nd/429
67.Differentiating features of contusion (Vs postmortem staining) are :

A. Bluish in color
B. Disappear on pressure area
C. Margin irregular
D. Limited to intravascular compartment
E. Extravasation of blood occurs
Ans: C (Margin irregular) & E (Extravasation of blood occurs)
68.Rape even after consent is considered when age of woman is:

A. < 16yr
B. <17 yr
C. <21 yr
D. <25yr and in police custody
E. < 18 yr
Ans: A (< 16yr)
69.True about suspended animation:

A. Common phenomenon in yogic person
B. Can be voluntary
C. Similar to molecular death
D. Similar to brain death
E. Person can be revived
Ans: A ( Common), B (Can be voluntary) & E (Person..)
Suspended animation is apparent death ( not real death).
Signs of Molecular or Cellular death follow within 12-24 hrs after death & includes – cooling of
body, changes in eye, changes in the skin, PM staining & changes in muscle”- Parikh 6th/ 3.7
“Brain death is irreversible loss of cerebral function”- Reddy 27th/119
70.True about pugilistic attitude:

A. Indicate antemortem burn
B. Indicate postmortem burn
C. Can not differentiate b/w ante & post mortem burn
D. Occur d/t intense heat
E. Indicate defence by victim
Ans: C ( Can ..), D. (D/t intense heat) & E. (indicate defence by victim)
“Pugilistic attitude is present whether a living or dead body is burnt & has therefore no
medicolegal significance”- Parikh 6th/ 4.156
71.Dimercaprol is used in poisoning with:

A. Pb
B. Hg
C. As
D. Acetaminophen
Ans: A (Pb), B. (Hg) & C. (As)
72.Not a grievous hurt:

A. Emasculation
B. Contusion over scalp
C. # of bone
D. Endanger life
E. Severe bodily pain for 15days
Ans: E (Severe bodily pain for 15days)
PSM
73.True about Cardiovascular diseases (CVD):

A. Urban & rural areas have equal incidence
B. RHD is a important cause of CVD
C. Primordial prevention is best strategy
D. Coronary heart disease cause 25% of total death
Ans: B. (RHD is ...), C. (Primordial ...) & D. (Coronary ...)
74.All of the following are incinerated except :

A. Mercury
B. Radiological waste
C. Halogen containing plastics
D Human anatomical waste
E. Animal waste
Ans: A. (Mercury), B. (Radiological waste) & C. (Halogen ..)
“Waste types not to be incinerated are : (a) pressurized gas containers; (b) large amount of
reactive chemical wastes; (c) silver salts and photographic or radiographic wastes; (d)
Halogenated plastics such as PVC; (e) waste with high mercury or cadmium content, such as
broken thermometers, used batteries, and lead-lined wooden panels; and (f) sealed ampules or
ampules containing heavy metals”- Park 20th/696
75.Zoonotic disease is/are transmitted by:

A. Ticks
B. Rat flea
C. Sand fly
D. Mosquito
E. Mite
Ans: All
76.The states, where crude birth rate is higher than the national level:
A. West Bengal
B. Maharashtra
C. Rajasthan
D. Madhya pradesh
E. Himachal pradesh
Ans: C. (Rajasthan) & D. (Madhya pradesh)
CBR(2004 data) India:24.1

Rajasthan:29
MP : 29.8
77.Assessment of Malnutrition is/are done by all except:

A. Creatinine-height index
B. Transferrin
C. Total lymphocyte count
D. Albumin concentration
E. Folate concentration
Ans: None (All option correct) Ref: (CSDT 11th/158)
78.Feature of slow filter (w.r.t fast filter) is/are:

A. Occupies less space
B. Highly skilled operation
C. Poor bacterial quality
D. Take more time for purification
E. Size of sand is smaller
Ans: D. (Take more...) & E. (Size of sand is smaller)
79.Features of RNTCP A/E:

A. Active case findings is not done
B. Included in NRHM in 2005
C. Teachers act as DOTS agent
D. Microscopy centre is established per 1 Lac
E. Achievement of at least 85% cure rate
Ans: B (Included in NRHM in 2005)
“The NRHM has not advocated for integration for malaria, TB & HIV/AIDS program because they
are the part of Milleniun Development Goals”-National health Programs of India by Jugal Kishore
7th/91
80.Dispersion of data is measured by:

A. Coefficient of correlation
B. Range
C. Standard deviation
D. Coefficient of variation
E. Normal distribution curve
Ans: B. (Range), C. (Standard deviation) & D. (Coefficient ...)
81. Job functions of Health Assistant male are:

A. ORS
B. Collect smear from any fever case
C. Collection of sputum smear from having person prolonged cough
D. Immunisation
E. Check minimum of 10% house in a village
Ans: B. (Collect ....), D. (Immunisation) & E. (Check minimum ...)
“ORS distribution is function of Health Worker Male & Female”- Park 20th/810-11
“Collection of sputum smear from having person prolonged cough is function of Health Worker
male”- Park 20th/811
OPHTHALMOLOGY
82. Postcataract infection can be prevented by:

A. Preop oral antibiotics
B. Postop oral antibiotics
C. Intraop IV antibiotics
D. Postop topical antibiotics
Ans: D (Postop topical antibiotics)
“Role of systemic antibiotics has been severely questioned by the endophthalmitis vitrectomy
study at least for the cases of post cataract surgery endophthalmitis”- Clinical Practice in
Ophthalmology by Sandeep Saxena 1st/414
83.Features of vernal conjunctivitis are:

A. Shield ulcer
B. Horner-Trantas spots
C. Papillary hypertrophy
D. Herbert pits
E. Pannus
Ans: A. (Shield ulcer), B. (Horner..) & C. (Papillary hypertrophy)
Herbert pits & pannus are feature of trachomaQ- Khurana 4th/64-65

Trantas spots – Presence of discrete whitish raised dots along the limbus in vernal
conjunctivitis.-Khurana 4th/75
84.Cause of Cataract
A. Infrared
B. Microwaves
C. UV rays
D. Obesity
Ans: A (Infrared), C (UV rays) & D (Obesity)
American Academy of Ophthalmology Section 11/56-57 writes “Microwave radiation has been
shown to cause cataracts in laboratory animals. Human case reports and epidemiologic studies
are more controversial and less conclusive than experimental studies” (So should not marked as
an answer).
85.Causes of floaters in DM is:

A. Vitreous hemorrahage
B. Vitreal detachment
C. Maculopathy
D. Infarction
Ans: A (Vitreous hemorrahage)
“Sometimes the onset of new floaters is secondary to vitreous hemorrahage, often caused by
advanced Diabetic retinopathy”- Parson 20th/88
86.All are true about optic nerve except :

A. Arises from axons of bipolar neurons
B. 4 cm long
C. Covered by 3 layers continuous with meninges
D. Crossed by ophthalmic artery
Ans: A. (Arises from ....) & B. (4 cm long)
87.True about fovea:

A. Cones present
B. Visual acquity lowest
C. Optic nerve passes
D. Rods present
E. Visual acquity highest
Ans: A. (Cones present) & E. (Visual acquity highest)
88.Features of non-proliferative DR is all except:

A. Neovascularisation
B. Soft exudate
C. Hard exudate
D. Vitreous detachment
E. Cotton-wool spot
Ans: A. (Neovascularisation) & D. (Vitreous detachment)
89.A 10 yr boy present with b/l chronic uveitis. Which investigation should be ordered :
A. Hemogram
B. X -ray of sacroiliac jt.
C. HIV test
D. Mantoux test
Ans: A. (Hemogram), B. (X -ray of sacroiliac jt.) & D. (Mantoux test)
ENT
90.Surfers ear is:
A. Exostosis
B. Otosclerosis
C. Otitis externa
D. Squamous cell Ca
E. Fibrous dysplasia
Ans: A (Exostosis)
Exostosis : abnormal bone growth within the ear canal.
91.True about sphenoid sinus:

A. Lined by stratified squamous epithelium
B. Duct open in middle meatus
C. Open in sphenoethmoid recess
D. Present at birth
E. Present in greater wing of sphenoid
Ans: C (Open in sphenoethmoid recess)
92.Not included in oral cavity Ca:

A. Base of tongue
B. Gingivobuccal sulcus
C. Soft palate
D. Hard palate
E. Buccal mucosa
Ans: A. (Base of tongue) & C. (Soft palate)
“The oropharynx includes the base of the tongue and tonsil”- P.L. Dhingra 5th/257
“The palate is divided anatomically into the hard palate (part of the oral cavity) and the soft
palate (part of the oropharynx)” -. emedicine.medscape.com ›Head & Neck Surgery
93.Sampters triad includes:

A. Bronchiectesis
B. Asthma
C. Aspirin sensitivity
D. Nasal polyposis
E. Tinnitus
Ans: B. (Asthma), C. (Aspirin sensitivity) & D. (Nasal polyposis)
94.Mandibular hypoplasia seen in:

A. Usher’s syndrome
B. Treacher-Collins syndrome
C. Crouzon’s syndrome
D. Velocardio-facial syndrome
E. Achondroplasia
Ans: B. (Treacher...), C. (Crouzon’s ...) & D. (Velocardio...)
MEDICINE
95.True about PEComa (Perivascular Epithelioid Cell tumour) :

A. Melanin & HMB45 are markers
B. Malignant melanoma variant
C. Contain perivascular epithelioid cells
D. Angiomyolipoma(AML) is a subtype
Ans. A. (Melanin ...), C. (Contain ...) & D. (Angiomyolipoma...)
96.True about third heart sound (H3):

A. Heard in MR
B. Diastolic sound
Ans: A (Heard in MR) & B (Diastolic sound)
97.Investigstions in a clinically suspected case of tuberculosis is done by:

A. Mantoux test (in children)
B. Sputum AFB
C. QuantiFERON-TB Gold
D. Bactec
E. T-SPOT-TB
Ans. All (A,B,C,D& E)
98.All are true about Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:

A. Surgery is done
B. Exocrine tumour
C. Endocrine disorder
D. Secretory diarrhoea seen
E. Metastasis seen
Ans. B (Exocrine tumour)
99.True about malignant melanoma:

A. Lymphatic spread
B. Lymph node biopsy is always done
C. Biopsy to be done when sentinel node is involved
D. Microsatellitism seen
Ans: All
100.True about Septic shock

A. ↓ Cardiac output is initially present
B. Vascular dilation
C. Hypotension is a late sign
D. Widespread endothelial dysfunction
Ans: B. (Vascular dilation), C. (Hypotension ...) & D. (Widespread ...)
101.True statement about GERD:

A. Associated with H.pylori
B. Fundoplication is done
C. Smoking is protective
D. PPI is used in treatment
E. Bernstein test is done
Ans: B. (Fundoplication ...), D. (PPI is used ...) & E. (Bernstein ...)
102.Which of the following manifestation of Crohn’s Disease do not respond to treatment/occur after
treatment:
A. Pyoderma gangrenosum
B. Primary scleorosing colitis
C. Erythema nodosum
D. Nephrolithiasis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
Ans: A. (Pyoderma...), B. (Primary...), D. (Nephrolithiasis) & E. (Ankylosing ...)
103.Manifestation (s) of hypokalemia includes:

A. Prominent U wave
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Diarrhoea
D. Tetany
E. Muscle cramp
Ans: A. (Prominent ...), B. (Rhabdomyolysis), D. (Tetany) & E. (Muscle cramp)
104.True about Myasthenia gravis :

A. Defect at myoneural junction
B. ↑ Ach receptor
C. ↓Ach receptor
D. Thymoma occur
E. Autoimmune disease
Ans. A. (Defect...), C. (↓Ach receptor), D. (Thymoma...) & E. (Autoimmune ...)
105.False statement about extraadrenal pheochromocytoma:

A. 50% extraadrenal
B. May occur in Bladder
C. May occur in thorax
D. Involve carotid body
Ans : A (50% extraadrenal)
106.Feature of NF1 are:

A. Axillary freckle
B. Ash leaf macules
C. Optic glioma
D. Acoustic neuroma
E. Family history
Ans: A. (Axillary ...), B. (Ash ...), C. (Optic glioma) & E. (Family ...)
107.Reactive arthritis is a/w

A. C jejuni
B. Yersenia
C. Salmonella
D. Chlamydia
E. Mycoplasma
Ans: A. (C jejuni), B. (Yersenia), C. (Salmonella) & D. (Chlamydia)
108. All are true about congenital erythropoetic porphyria except :

A. Can occur from infancy to adult
B. Erythrodontia
C. Ferrochelase def.
D. Corporophyrin III in urine
E. Uroporphyrin in urine
Ans: C. (Ferrochelase def.) & D. (Corporophyrins ...)
109.Drug used in unstable angina & NSTEMI :

A. Morphine
B. Aspirin
C. Nitrates
D. Thrombolytic agents
E. CCB
Ans: All
110.Causes of secondary hypertension are:

A. Old age
B. Parenchymal kidney disease
C. Pregnancy
D. Hypothyroidism
Ans: All
111.Severe diarrhea is associated with:

A. Met acidosis
B. Met alkalosis
C. Normal anion gap
D. Inc. anion gap
Ans: A (Met acidosis) & C (Normal anion gap)
112.Nephrogenic dibetus insipidus causing drugs are:

A. Li
B. Demeclocycline
C. Acyclovir
D. Amphotericin B
Ans: A. (Li), B. (Demec..) & D. (Amphotericin B)
113.Thrombotic thrombocytopenic microangiopathy are seen in:

A. TTP
B. DIC
C. HUS
D. Polycythemia
Ans: A. (TTP), B. (DIC) & C. (HUS)
114.Anti ds DNA is specific for:

A. SLE
B. Systemic sclerosis
C. Wegener granulomatosis
Ans. A (SLE)
115.All are feature of Sjogren syndrome except:

A. Interstitial nephritis
B. Subcutaneous fibrosis
C. Lack of tear
D. Xerostomia
E. More common in male
Ans: B (Subcutaneous fibrosis) & E (More common in male)
116.Extra articular manifestation of RA are all except:

A. Subcutaneous nodule
B. Renal failure
C. Spleen atrophy
D. Scleritis
E. Pleural effusion
Ans: B (Renal failure) & C (Spleen atrophy)
117.False about mesial temporal lobe epilepsy :

A. Respond well to medical treatment
B. Most common syndrome associated with tonic clonic seizure
C. MRI is diagnostic
D. Surgery is TOC
E. Hippocampal sclerosis seen
Ans: A ( Respond..) & B (Most..)
118.Hydrogen breath assay is used for:

A. Lactose intolerance
B. GERD
C. H.Pylori
Ans: C (H.Pylori)
119.True about pulmonary sarcoidosis :

A. Schaumann & asteroid bodies are present
B. CD4/CD8 <2.5
C. Non caseating granuloma
D. Intravascular granuloma
E. Perihilar & peribronchial granuloma
Ans. A (Schaumann..)C. (Non caseating ...), D. (Intravascular ...) & E. (Perihilar ...)
120.Sclerodema like disorder is/ are caused by:

A. Vinyl chloride
B. Bleomycin
C. Aromatic hydrocarbon
D. Pentazocine
E. Gold
Ans. A. (Vinyl ...), B. (Bleomycin), C. (Aromatic ...) & D. (Pentazocine)
121.Not a risk for cholangio ca

A. Hepatolithiasis
B. Hepatitis C
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Choledocholithiasis
E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Ans: None
122.True about wegener’s granulomatosis:

A. Sinusitis
B. CD4/CD8 ratio reversed (Confirm as answer or not)
C. ANA positive
D. Hypocomplementia
Ans: A. (Sinusitis) & C. (ANA positive)
SURGERY
123.True about parotid tumor:

A. Facial nerve involvement indicates malignancy
B. Pleomorphic adenoma is MC variety
C. Malignant disease is MC variety
Ans: AB
124.All are true about amoebic liver abscess except:

A. Metronidazole is mainstay of treatment
B. Multifocal abscess can not be treated by aspiration
C. More common in left side
D. More common in female
Ans: C (More common in left side) & D (More common in female)
125.True about Hirschprung's disease :

A. Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated
B. Descending colon is most common site of aganglionosis
C. Barium enema is diagnostic
D. It is seen in infants & children only
E. Barium enema show calcification
Ans: A (Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated)
126.True about Ischemic rest pain :

A. More in night
B. MC in calf muscle
C. Increase upon elevation of limbs
D. Relieved by dependent position
E. Often associated with trophic changes
Ans. All
127.All are true about intermittent claudication except :

A. Most common in calf muscle
B. Pain is positional
C. Atherosclerosis is important predisposing factor
D. Relieved by rest
Ans: B (Pain is positional)
128.Hypogastric pain arise from:

A. Uterus
B. Left colon
C. Urinary bladder
D. Gall Bladder
Ans: ABC
129.True about Intussusceptions in children :

A. Most common variety is ileocolic
B. A/w pathological lead point
C. May be seen after viral infection
D. Can be relieved by barium enema
E. Surgery is always indicated
Ans:ABCD
130.True about treatment of intussusceptions :

A. Air enema
B. Saline enema
C. Ba enema
D. Hydostatic reduction under sedation
E. Colonoscopy is always done to confirm diagnosis
Ans:ACD
131.True about volvulus

A. Most common in caecum
B. Common in psychiatric pt.
C. Bird's beak sign
D. May present as intestinal obstruction
Ans: B. (Common ....), C. (Bird's ...) & D. (May present ....)
132. About papillary carcinoma true statement is/are:

A. Radiation cause it
B. Multi focal
C. Hematogenous spread is common
D. Distant metastasis is seen
E. More common in iodine deficient area
Ans. A. (Radiation ...), B. (Multi focal), D. (Distant ....) & E. (More common ....)
133.Colonic disease can be diagnosed by all except:

A. Virtual colonoscopy
B. Ba enema
C. Ba swallow
D. Ba meal follow through
E. Enteroclysis
Ans: C (BA..), D (Ba..),E (Enteroclysis)
Ba swallow & Ba meal follow through is meant for upper GI tract (oesophagus,stomach & small
intestine)
Enteroclysis (Small bowel enema) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Enteroclysis

• It is a fluoroscopic X-ray of the small intestine.
134.T/t of CBD stone includes

A. ERCP
B. Cholecystectomy
C. Ursodeoxy cholic acid
D. Hepatojejunostomy
E. Choledochotomy
Ans: ABCE
O BSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
135.True statement regarding use of antiepileptic drugs in pregnancy:

A. Valproate is associated with NTD
B. Multiple drug should be given
C. Carbamazepine is safe
D. Phenytoin can produces foetal hydantoin syndrome
Ans: A (Valproate is associated ...) & D (Phenytoin ...)
136.Risk factors for pre-eclampsia:

A. Age >35yr
B. Obesity
C. Previous h/o preeclampsia
D. Multigravida
E. Antiphospholipid syndrome
Ans: All
137.True statement (s) regarding Ca cervix involving parametrium but not pelvic involvement:
A. Stage II A
B. Stage II B
C. Radiotherapy should be given
D. Hysterectomy can be useful
E. Staging should be done only after cystoscopy
Ans: B (Stage II B), C ( Radio..) & E ( Staging)
138.In Ca cervix low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) in Bethesda system includes:
A. CIN I
B. CIN II
C. CIN III
D. Squamous metaplasia
Ans:A (CIN I)
139.A 35 yr old P3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy . T/t includes:
A. Cold knife conization
B. Hysterectomy
C. Radical hysterectomy
D. Lap assisted hysterectomy
E. LEEP
Ans: E (LEEP)
“Although CIN can be treated with a variety of techniques, the preferred treatment for CIN 2 and 3
has become LEEP. Hysterectomy is currently considered too radical for treatment of CIN”- Novak’s
14th/582,485
140.True statement regarding cholestasis in pregnancy:

A. Reccurs in subsequent pregnancy
B. Ursodeoxyholic acid relieves pruritus
C. Mild jaundice occurs in majority of patients
D. Pruritus may precedes laboratory findings
E. Serum alkaline phosphatase is most sensitive indicator
Ans: A. (Reccurs...), B. (Ursodeoxyholic ...), C. (Mild ...) & D. (Pruritus ....)
141.Oligohydramnios is/are associated with:

A. Neural tube defect
B. Renal agenesis
C. Postmature birth
D. Premature birth
Ans: B. (Renal agenesis) & C. (Postmature birth)
142.True about MRKH (Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser) syndrome:

A. Absent uterus
B. Absent ovary
C. Absent vagina
D. XX phenotype
E. XY phenotype
Ans: A. (Absent uterus), C. (Absent vagina) & D. (XX phenotype)
143.True about Klinefelter syndrome:

A. XXY
B. XO
C. Male hypogonadism
D. Female hypogonadism
E. ↑FSH
Ans: A. (XXY), C. (Male hypogonadism) & E. (↑FSH)
144.True about PCOS

A. High FSH/LH ratio
B. Unilateral large ovarian cyst in 60-80%
C. Hirsutism
D. ↑ed. risk of DM
E. OCP given for treatment
Ans: C. (Hirsutism), D. (↑ed. risk ...) & E. (OCP given for treatment)
145.Regarding H1N1 influenza in pregnancy, true statement (s) is/are:

A. Oseltamavir is used
B. H1N1 more dangerous in pregnancy
C. Should start t/t only after confirmation of diagnosis
Ans: A. (Oseltamavir is used) & B. (H1N1 more ...)
146.True regarding changes during pregnancy:

A. Hyperplasia of parathyroid
B. Hyperplasia of thyroid
C. Increased Pigmentation
D. ↓ BMR
E. ↑ Insulin
Ans: A. (Hyperplasia ...), B. (Hyperplasia ...), C. (Increased ....) & E. (↑ Insulin)
147.True about vaccum extraction of fetus :

A. Can be used in non dilated cervix
B. Can be used in incompletely dilated cervix
C. Used in face presentation
D. Applied 3cm post. to Anterior fontanelle
E. Applied 3cm ant. to post fontanelle
Ans: B (Can be used ...) & E (Applied 3cm ....)
148.True about MgSO4

A. Tocolytic
B. Used in Management of eclampsia
C. Cause neonatal respiratory depression
Ans: A. (Tocolytic), B. (Used in ...) & C. (Cause neonatal ...)
149.True statement regarding ectopic pregnancy :

A. Pregnancy test positive
B. βhCG levels should be >1000 mIU/ml for earliest detection by TVS
C. βhCG levels should be <1000 mIU/ml for earliest detection by TVS
D. Methotrexate is used
Ans: A. (Pregnancy ...), B. (βhCG levels ...) & D. (Methotrexate)
“A intrauterine sac should be visible by TVS when the βhCG levels of approximately 1000
mIU/ml”- COGDT 10th/268
150.All are true about Prelabour rupture of membrane (PROM) except:

A. Amnioinfusion is done
B. Amoxiclav antiobiotic should be given
C. Asceptic cervical examination
D. Steroid is used
E. Preterm labour
Ans: A (Amnioinfusion is done)
151.Prolong latent phase is/are seen in:

A. Placenta praevia
B. Unripe cervix
C. Abruptio placentae
D. Excessive sedation
E. Early epidural analgesia
Ans: B. (Unripe cervix), D. (Excessive sedation) & E. (Early ...)
152.True statement regarding sarcoma botryoides:

A. Involvement of vagina
B. Grape like growth seen
C. Common in old age
D. Malignant
Ans: A. (Involvement ...), B. (Grape like ...) & D. (Malignant)
153.Abortion (in men!!!, misprinted in paper, should be women) is/are caused by:
A. Borrelia recurrentis
B. HIV
C. Listeria
D. Syphilis
E. HBV
Ans: B. (HIV), C. (Listeria) & D. (Syphilis)
PAEDIATRICS
154.What are the complication (s) of pyogenic meningitis in a child:

A. Arachinoidits
B. Mental retardation
C. Status epilepticus
D. Sensorineural hearing loss
Ans: All
155.True statement(s) about posterior urethral valves in neonate:

A. B/l hydroneprhosis may be present
B. Creatinine & urea levels remain normal
C. Enlarge & widen prostatic urethra
D. More common in girls
Ans:A (B/l hydroneprhosis ...) C (Enlarge ...)
156.Organic cause of constipation in infant are all except:

A. High fibre diet
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Hypothyroidism
Ans:A (High fibre diet)
157.True regarding neonatal resuscitation:

A. Ist nasal suctioning done
B. Ist mouth suctioning done
C. Max. length of nasal suctioning is upto 3cm and mouth is upto 5cm
D. Max. length of nasal suctioning is upto 5cm and mouth
upto 3cm
Ans:B (Ist mouth ...) & C (Max. length of ....)
158.A 1 & 1/2 yr child can do:

A. Build tower of 4 blocks
B. Speak 10-25 meaningful word
C. Scribble
D. Points 3-4 body parts
E. Copies parents in task
Ans: B. (Speak 10-25 ...), C. (Scribble) & E. (Copies parents ...)
• Scribbles – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/28

• Tower of 3 blocks – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/28
• Tower of 6 blocks – 2 years O.P. Ghai 7th/28
• Copies parents in task – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/30
• Vocabulary of 10-15 words- 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/30
• Vocabulary of 100 words – 2 yr O.P. Ghai 7th/30
• Point 3-4 body part – 2yr O.P. Ghai 7th/30
159.A child presented with cola coloured urine, proteinuria 2+ & h/o rash 2 week ago. Probable Dx is:
A. IgA nephropathy
B. HSP
C. HUS
D. Wegener Granulomatosis
Ans:B (HSP)
ORTHOPAEDICS
160.True about parosteal osteosarcoma:

A. Same prognosis as medullary type
B. Never go to medulla
C. May involve medulla
Ans: C (May involve medulla)
Devita 7th/1671
• It has a better prognosis than classic osteosarcoma
• It has intramedullary extension
161.True about carpal tunnel syndrome:

A. Occur in pregnancy
B. Affects medial 3 ½ finger
C. Associated with Hypothyroidism
D. Froment sign positive
E. Median nerve involvement is present
Ans: A. (Occur in ..), C. (Associated ...) & E. (Median nerve ..)
Carpal tunnel syndrome affects lateral 3 ½ fingers

Froment sign is seen in ulnar nerve injury
162.Complication of # radius are:

A. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture
B. Myositis ossificans
C. Infection
D. Tendon rupture
E. Angiodysplasia
Ans: A. (Volkmann ...), B. (Myositis..), C. (Infection) & D. (Tendon...)
163.True about Duputurens contracture:

A. A/w peyronie’s disease
B. First affect index finger
C. Nodule formation & thickening of palmar fascia
D. Amputation may be required
Ans: A. (A/w ...), C. (Nodule ...) & (D. (Amputation...)
The ring finger is affected most commonly.
164.All are true statement regarding talipes equinovarus except:

A. Cubitus valgus
B. Inversion of the foot
C. Abduction of the forefoot
D. Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita causes it
E. Treatment should start after 3 month
Ans: A.(Cubitus valgus ), C (Abduction of the forefoot)& E( Treatment should start after 3 month)
Initial treatment is always nonoperative and should be started as soon as possible, preferably
the day the infant is born.
Adduction of the forefoot occurs.
ANESTHESIA
165. True about propofol :

A. Indicated in egg allergy
B. Can be used in porphyria
C. It is of barbiturate group
D. Used in day care surgery
Ans: B. (Can be ..) & D. (Used in...)
166. True about Bain circuit:

A. Mapleson type B
B. Mapleson type D
C. Can be used for spontaneous respiration
D. Can be used for controlled ventilation
E. Coaxial
Ans: B. (Mapleson..), C. (Can be ...), D. (Can be used ....) & E. (Coaxial)
167. True about Laryngeal mask airway:

A. More reliable than face mask
B. Prevent aspiration
C. Alternative to Endotracheal tube (E.T.T)
D. Does not require laryngoscope & visualisation
E. Indicated in full stomach to prevent aspiration
Ans: A. (More ...), C. (Alternative ...) & D. (Does not ...)
168. True statement regarding pin index:

A. Pin is present on cylinder
B. Pin is present on machine
C. Not effective if wrong gas is filled in cylinder
D. Pin index of air is 2,5
Ans: B. (Pin is ...) & C. (Not effective if ..)
169. True about Epidural anesthesia:

A. Effects start immediately
B. C/I in coagulopathies
C. Given in subarachnoid space
D. Venous return decreases
Ans: B. (C/I in ...) & D. (Venous ...)
SKIN
170.Which of the following is/are not the cause of hypopigmentation:

A. Leprosy
B. Pinta
C. Syphilis
D. Pytriasis alba
E. Pytriasis versicolor
Ans: C (Syphilis)
“Pinta: Secondary skin lesion is caused by hyperpigmentation or hypopigmentation”-

Ananthanarayan 8th/378
171. Acantholysis is/are seen in:

A. SSSS
B. Impetigo
C. Hailey –Hailey disease
D. Darrier’s disease
E. Pemphigus vulgaris
Ans: C (Hailey ...), D (Darrier’s disease) & E (Pemphigus ...)
PSYCHIATRY
172.True about Autism:

A. Persistent delusion
B. Persistent hallucination
C. Incoordinate social interaction
D. Defective reciprocal interaction
E. Onset after 5 yr
Ans: C. (Incoordinate ....) & D. (Defective reciprocal interaction)
173.SSRI is first line treatment for :

A. OCD
B. Panic disorder
C. Social phobia
D. Post traumatic stress disorder
E. Adjustment disorder
Ans: A. (OCD), B. (Panic disorder), C. (Social phobia), D. (Post ..)
“The SSRIs are now 1st choice drugs for OCD, panic disorder, social phobia, eating disorders,
premenstrual dysmorphic disorder & post traumatic stress disorder.”- KDT 6th/446
174.True about treatment of personality disorder:

A. Antipsychotic drugs are used
B. SSRI used in treatment
C. Behaviour therapy
D. No need of medication
Ans: A. (Antipsychotic..), B. (SSRI ...), C. (Behaviour..) & D. (No need ...)
175.Atypical (Second generation or newer) antipsychotics are:

A. Aripiprazole
B. Risperidone
C. Pimozide
D. Penfluridol
E. Olanzapine
Ans: A. (Aripiprazole), B. (Risperidone) & E. (Olanzapine)
176.Indications of ECT is/are:

A. Psychotic depression
B. Catatonic schizophrenia
C. Cyclothymia
D. Dysthymia
E. Post traumatic stress disorder
Ans: A. (Psychotic depression) & B. (Catatonic schizophrenia)
177.Features of serotonin syndrome associated with SSRI & MAOIs are:

A. Tremors
B. Agitation
C. Cardiovascular collapse
D. Hypothermia
E. Suicidal tendency
Ans: A. (Tremors), B. (Agitation) & C. (Cardiovascular collapse)
178.Prophylactic blood level of Li is:

A. 0.3 mEq/L
B. 0.6 mEq/L
C. 0.9 mEq/L
D. 1.2 mEq/L
E. 1.5 mEq/L
Ans. B. (0.6 mEq/L), C. (0.9 mEq/L) & D. (1.2 mEq/L)
Neeraj Ahuja 6th/84 writes about Li

Therapeutic LevelsQ = 0.8-1.2 mEq/L
Prophylactic LevelsQ = 0.6-1.2 mE/q
RADIOLOGY
179. Which combination is/are false about T1/2 of radioisotopes:

A. Ra-226 : 1626 years
B. I-131 : 60 years
C. Co-60: 5.26 years
D. Ir-192:74 years
E. Cs-137: 30 years
Ans: B. (I-131 : 60 years) & D. (Ir-192:74 years)
T1/2 of Ir-192 is 74 days & I-131 is 8 days
180. Radium emits:

A. α Rays
B. β Rays
C. γ Rays
D. Neutron
E. X-rays
Ans: A. (α Rays), B. (β Rays), C. (γ Rays) & D. (Neutron)
182. Left sided cardiac bulge seen on chest X-ray is/are d/t to:
A. Enlargement of left atrial appendage
B. Azygous vein enlargement
C. Coronary artery aneurysm
D. Pulmonary edema
E. Right atrial hypertrophy
Ans: A (Enlargement of left atrial appendage)
183. Figure of eight is seen in:

A. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)
B. Transposition of great arteries (TGA)
C. TOF
D. Ebstein anomaly
E. ASD
Ans: A (Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC))
184. Earliest investigation for diagnosing Ankylosing spondylitis is :

A. MRI STIR sequence
B. Bone scan
C. CT scan
D. X-ray
E. USG
Ans: A (MRI STIR sequence)
Dynamic MRI with either short tau inversion recovery (STIR) sequence or T1-weighted images with
contrast enhancement, is highly sensitive and specific for identifying early intraarticular
inflammationQ, cartilage changes, and underlying bone marrow edema in sacroiliitis.
185. For renal stone, diagnosis is not done by:

A. IVP
B. X-ray
C. PET- Scan
D. USG
E. CT scan
Ans: C (PET- Scan)
186. 1 Becquerel is equal (Disintegration/sec) to:

A. 3.7 x 1010
B. 2.7 x 1010
C. 1.7x 1010
D. 3.7x 10-2
E. 1
Ans: E (1)
1Bq= 1 disintegration/second
1 Curie (Ci)= 3.7 x 1010 disintegration/second
187. Isotopes used in relief of metastatic bone pain includes:

A. Strontium-89
B. I-131
C. Gold-198
D. P-32
E. Rhenium-186
Ans: A. (Strontium-89), B (I-131) & D(P-32) & E. (Rhenium-186)
188. Teardrop bladder seen in :

A. Pelvic hematoma
B. Pelvic lipomatosis
C. T.B
D. Neurogenic bladder
E. Intraperitoneal bladder rupture
Ans: A.(Pelvic hematoma) & B. (Pelvic lipomatosis)
“Extraperitoneal bladder rupture causes teardrop bladder or Pear-shaped bladder”- Radiology

Review Manual by Wolfgang Dahnert 5th/ 975

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PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 1

PGI CHANDIGARH – MAY 2010 REVIEW

1.Which are not the flexors of forearm:

Ans: D (Anconeus) & E (Flexor pollicis longus)

2.Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:

Ans: C (Psoas major) & D(Femoral vein)

3. Flexor of lumbar spine is/are:

Ans: D(Rectus abdominis) & E(Psoas major)

4.True about radial nerve:

Ans: A (Branch of..), B(Nerve of ..), C (Arise from..) & E(Supply..)

5.Anterior triangles of neck are :

Ans: A. (Submental ...), B. (Carotid ..), D. (Digastric..) E. (Muscular ..)

6.Features seen in common peroneal nerve injury:

Ans: C. (Foot drop), D. (Loss of .....), E. (Seen ....)

7.Teres major of liver is remnant of:

Ans : E (Left umbilical vein)

8.Rotator cuff is/are formed by all except:

Ans: D (Teres major)

9.Enchondral ossification is/are seen in:

Ans: A (Long bones)

10.Deep venous system of brain consists of:

11.“Nerve terminal releases chemical”- discovered by:

Ans: A. (Dale) & E. (Loewi)

12.True about Nissl granule:

E. Structurally they are endoplasmic reticulum

Ans: C. (Present in...), D. (Involves in ...) E. Structurally they..)

13.Which of the following organ is not involved in Calcium metabolism:

14.True about milk secretion:

Ans: A. (Neuroendocrine..), B. (Secretion..) C. (Oxytocin..) E. (Affected by emotion)

15.CO2 retention is seen in:

Ans: B. (Respiratory...), D. (Ventilatory...), E. (Pulmonary ...)

16.Which component transfers four protons :

Ans:A (NADH-Q Oxidoreductase) & C(Cytochrome-Q c oxidoreductase)

17.Hydrophobic aminoacids are:

18.True about competitive inhibition of enzyme:

19.Urea cycle enzymes are :

Ans: C (Arginosuccinate synthetase) & D (Ornithine transcarboxylase)

20.Epimer combination(s) is/are:

22.Calvin cycle enzymes are:

Calvin Cycle - Photosynthetic Carbon Reactions

23.High energy phosphate compounds are :

IMMUNOGENETICS & MOLECULAR BIOLOGY

25.Non coding RNAs are :

Ans: A. (siRNA), B. (miRNA), C. (tRNA) E. (rRNA)

26. Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by all except:

Ans: E(AUG codon)

27. Nucleosome consists of :

Ans: A (Histone) & B (DNA)

28. Method (s) to determine protein structure is/are:

Ans: A(X-RAY..), B (NMR Spectroscopy) & E (Infra red spectroscopy)

ElectrophoresisQ is used for protein purification- Satyanarayan 3rd/60

29.Which substance is/are not deposited in hepatocyte:

Ans: B (Pseudomelanin) & E (Melanin)

30. True about p53 :

31.Stains used in amyloidosis :

Ans: A. (Congo red), B. (Thioflavin) & E. (PAS)

32.Which Ca metastases to heart :

Ans: A. (Ca breast), C. (Ca lung) & E. (Osteosarcoma)

33.HLA associated with rheumatoid arthritis:

34.Schistocyte is found in:

35.Breast Ca is not a/w:

Ans: B (Apocrine metaplasia) & D( Fibroadenoma)

36.Modified Bloom Richardson criteria for Ca breast includes: