Aipmt 2008 With

CBSE PMT 2008 SOLUTION
CBSE PRE-2008 (SET-D)

(QUESTION PAPER WITH SOLUTION)
Q1. A roller coaster is designed such that Q6. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic
riders experience “weightlessness” as they energy T enters a transverse uniform
ur
go round the top of a hill whose radius of magnetic field of induction B. After 3
curvature is 20m. The speed of the car at seconds the kinetic energy of the particle
the top of the hill is between will be
1. 15m/s and 16m/s
1. 2T 2. T
2. 16m/s and 17m/s
3. 4T 4. 3T
3. 13m/s and 14m/s
4. 14m/s and 15m/s Q7. Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt
Q2. The energy required to charge a parallel at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary
plate condenser of plate separation d and to keep the belt moving with a constant
plate area of cross-section A such that the velocity of υ m/s will be
uniform electric field between the plates is Mυ
1. 2Mυ newton 2. newton
E, is 2
1. ∈0 E2 /Ad 2. ∈0 E2 Ad 3. Zero 4. Mυ newton
1 1 Q8. The electric potential at a point in free
3. ∈0 E2 Ad 4. ∈0 E2 /A.d
2 2 space due to a charge Q coulomb is
Q3. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat Q × 1011 volts. The electric field at that
added, change in internal energy and the point is
work done in a closed cycle process, then: 1. 12π ∈0 Q × 1020 volt/m
1. Q = W = 0 2. E = 0
2. 4π ∈0 Q × 1020 volt/m
3. Q = 0 4. W = 0
Q4. 3. 12π ∈0 Q × 1022 volt/m
4. 4π ∈0 Q × 1022 volt/m
Q9. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in
the ratio of 1:3. The ratio of their nuclear
densities wou9ld be
1
1. 3:1 2. ( 3 ) 3
:1
3. 1:1 4. 1:3
Three forces acting on a body are shown in Q10. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom
the figure. To have the resultant force only is −13.6eV. When its electron is in the
along the y-direction, the magnitude of the first excited state, its excitation energy is
minimum additional force needed is: 1. 6.8eV 2. 10.2eV
3 3. 0 4. 3.4eV
1. 1.5N 2. N Q11. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing
4
Sunlight on a piece of paper using an
3. 3 N 4. 0.5N equiconvex lens of focal length 10cm. The
Q5. A shell of mass 200gm is ejected from a diameter of the Sun is 1.39 × 109 m and its
gun of mass 4kg by an explosion that mean distance from the earth is
generates 1.05kJ of energy. The initial 1.5 × 1011 m. What is the diameter of the
velocity of the shell is
Sun’s image on the paper?
4. 80ms −1 2. 40ms −1
1. 6.5 × 10 −4 m 2. 6.5 × 10 −5 m
3. 120ms −1 4. 100ms −1
3. 12.4 × 10 −4 m 4. 9.2 × 10 −4 m
Sahil Study Circle Pvt. Ltd. (Corp. Off. Ph : 91-11-41588944, 25554045, Fax : 91-11-28855148), New Delhi
Q12. A wire of certain material is stretched ML 2
ML2
slowly by ten per cent. Its new resistance 1. 2.
12 6
and specific resistance become
respectively. 2ML2 ML2
3. 4.
1. 1.21 times, same 24 24
2. both remain the same Q20. A particle moves in a straight line with a
3. 1.1 times, 1.1 times constant acceleration. It changes its
4. 1.2 times, 1.1 times velocity from 10ms −1 to 20ms −1 while
Q13. Two points are located at a distance of passing through a distance 135 m in t
10m and 15m from the source of second. The value of t is
oscillation. The period of oscillation is 1. 1.8 2. 12
0.05sec and the velocity of the wave is 3. 9 4. 10
300m/sec. What is the phase difference Q21. The wave described by
between the oscillations of two points? y = 0.25 sin (10πx − 2πt ) , where x and y are
1. 2π /3 2. π
in meters and t in seconds, is a wave
3. π /6 4. π /3 traveling along the:
Q14. A p-n photodiode is made of a material 1. +ve x direction with frequency πHz and
with a band gap of 2.0eV. The minimum wavelength λ = 0.2m
frequency of the radiation that can be 2. +vex direction with frequency 1Hz and
absorbed by the material is nearly wavelength λ = 0.2m
1. 5 × 1014 Hz 2. 1 × 1014 Hz 3. –ve x direction with amplitude 0.25m
3. 20 × 1014 Hz 4. 10 × 1014 Hz and wavelength λ = 0.2m
Q15. The ratio of the radii of gyration of circular 4. –ve x direction with frequency 1Hz
disc to that of a circular ring, each of same Q22. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is
mass and radius, around their respective placed in a uniform magnetic field of
axes is 1
1. 1 : 2 2. 2 :1
induction
π
( ωb/m2 ) in such a way that
ur
3. 2 : 3 4. 3 : 2 its axis makes an angle of 60º with B. The
Q16. The work function of a surface of a magnetic flux linked with the disc is
photosensitive material is 6.2eV. The 1. 0.06ωb 2. 0.08 ωb
wavelength of the incident radiation for 3. 0.01ωb 4. 0.02ωb
which the stopping potential is 5V lies in Q23. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When
the current of 2 ampere is passed through it,
1. Visible region the resulting magnetic flux linked with
2. Infrared region each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10 −3 ωb.
3. X-ray region The self-inductance of the solenoid is
4. Ultraviolet region 1. 2.0 henry 2. 1.0 henry
Q17. If the lattice parameter for a crystalline 3. 4.0 henry 4. 2.5 henry
structure is 3.6Å, then the atomic radius Q24. In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f. (e) and the
in fcc crystal is current (i) at any instant age given
1. 2.10 Å 2. 2.92Å respectively
3. 1.27 Å 4. 1.81 Å e = E0 sin ωt
Q18. A particle of mass 1mg has the same
wavelength as an electron moving with a i = I0 sin ( ωt − φ )
velocity of 3 × 106 ms −1. The velocity of the The average power in the circuit over one
particle is cycle of a.c. is
1. 9 × 10 −2 ms −1 2. 3 × 10 −31 ms −1 EI E I
1. 0 0 sin φ 2. 0 0 cos φ
3. 2.7 × 10 −21 ms −1 4. 2.7 × 10 −18 ms −1 2 2
Q19. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent E I
3. E0I0 4. 0 0
at its midpoint into two halves so that the 2
angle between them is 90º. The moment of Q25. Water falls from a height of 60m at the
inertia of the bent rod about an axis rate of 15kg/s to operate a turbine. The
passing through the bending point and losses due to frictional forces are 10% of
perpendicular to the plane defined by the energy. How much power is generated by
two halves of the rod is
the turbine? ( g = 10m/s 2 )
1. 10.2kW 2. 12.3 kW f1 + f2 f1
3. 7.0 kW 4. 8.1 kW 3. 4.
f1f2 f2
Q26. A cell can be balanced against 110cm and
100cm of potentiometer wire, respectively Q31. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2
with and without being short circuited pass through a region at the same time in
through a resistance of 10Ω. Its internal the same direction. The sum of the
resistance is maximum and minimum intensities is
1. 0.5 ohm 2. 2.0 ohm 2 2
3. zero 4. 1.0 ohm

1. ( I1 + I2 ) 2. ( I1 − I2 )
Q27. 3. 2 ( I1 + I2 ) 4. I1 + I2
Q32.
A thin conducting ring of radius R is given

a charge +Q. The electric field at the centre
O of the ring due to the charge on the part In the circuit shown, the current through
AKB of the ring is E. The electric field at the 4-Ω resistor is 1 amp when the points
the centre due to the charge on the part P and M are connected to a d.c. voltage
ACDB of the ring is source. The potential difference between
1. E along OK the points M and N is
2. E along KO 1. 1.0 volt 2. 0.5 volt
3. 3E along OK 3. 3.2 volt 4. 1.5 volt
4. 3E along KO Q33. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have
Q28. Two Simple Harmonic Motions of angular decay constant 5λ and λ respectively. If
frequency 100and 1000 rad s −1 have the initially they have the same number of
same displacement amplitude. The ratio of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of
their maximum accelerations is 1
nuclei of X1 to the of X2 will be after a
1. 1 :102 2. 1 :103 e
3. 1 :10 4
4. 1 :10 time
Q29. 1 1
1. λ 2.
2 4λ
3. e/λ 4. λ
Q34. A particle of mass m is projected with
velocity υ making an angle of 45º with the
horizontal. When the particle lands on the
level ground the magnitude of the change
in it s momentum will be
A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is 1. mυ / 2 2. mυ 2
placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the
3. zero 4. 2mυ
magnetic forces on segments PS, SR and
RQ are F1,F2 and F3 respectively and are Q35. Which two of the following five physical
parameters have the same dimensions?
in the plane of the paper and along the
(a) energy density
directions shown, the force on the segment
(b) refractive index
QP is
(c) dielectric constant
2 1
1. ( F3 − F1 ) + F22 2. ( F3 − F1 ) − F22 (d) Young’s modulus
(e) magnetic field
3. F3 − F1 + F2 4. F3 − F1 − F2
1. (c) and (e) 2. (a) and (d)
Q30. Two thin lenses of focal length f1 and f2 3. (a) and (e) 4. (b) and (d)
are in contact and coaxial. The power of Q36. A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2-Ω
the combination is resistor shown in the circuit. The power
f2 f +f dissipated in the 5-Ω resistor is
1. 2. 1 2
f1 2
383 10
1. x 2. x
283 110
283
3. x 4. x
383
Q44.
1. 2 watt 2. 1 watt
3. 5 watt 4. 4 watt
Q37. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9%
negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain
without feedback will be
1. 10 2. 1.25
A particle shows distance-time curve as
3. 100 4. 90
given in this figure. The maximum
Q38. A galvanometer of resistance 50Ω is
instantaneous velocity of the particle is
connected to a battery of 3V along with a
around the point
resistance of 2950Ω in series. A full scale 1. C 2. D
deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the 3. A 4. B
galvanometer. In order to reduce this Q45. If M(A;Z),Mp and Mn denote the masses of
deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in
the nucleus ZA X, proton and neutron
series should be
1. 5550 Ω 2. 6050 Ω respectively in units of
3. 4450 Ω 4. 5050 Ω u (1u = 931.5MeV /C ) and BE represents
2
Q39. An electric kettle takes 4A current at its bonding energy in MeV, then
220V. How much time will it take to boil 1. M ( A, Z ) = ZMp + ( A − Z ) Mn + BE
1kg of water from temperature 20ºC? The
temperature of boiling water is 100ºC. 2. M ( A, Z ) = ZMp + ( A − Z ) Mn − BE
1. 8.4 min 2. 12.6 min 3. M ( A, Z ) = ZMp + ( A − Z ) Mn + BE/C2
3. 4.2 min 4. 6.3 min
Q40. On a new scale of temperature (which is 4. M ( A, Z ) = ZMp + ( A − Z ) Mn − BE/C2
linear) and called the W scale, the freezing Q46. In the phenomenon of electric discharge
and boiling points of water are 39ºW and through gases at low pressure, the
239ºW respectively. What will be the coloured glow in the tube appears as a
temperature on the new scale, result of
corresponding to a temperature of 39ºC on 1. collision between the atoms of the gas
the Celsius scale? 2. collisions between the charged particles
1. 117ºW 2. 200ºW emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
3. 139ºW 4. 78ºW the gas
Q41. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in 3. collision between different electrons of
a medium of permittivity ∈0 and the atoms of the gas
permeability µ0 is given by 4. excitation of electrons in the atoms
Q47. Curie temperature is the temperature
1
1. µ 0 ∈0 2. above which :
µ0 ∈0 1. paramagnetic material becomes
µ0 ∈0 diamagnetic material
3. 4. 2. paramagnetic material becomes
∈0 µ0
ferromagnetic material
Q42. A point performs simple harmonic 3. ferromagnetic material becomes
oscillation of period T and the equation of diamagnetic material
motion is given by x = a sin ( wt + π /6 ) . 4. ferromagnetic material becomes
After the elapse of what fraction of the paramagnetic material
time period the velocity of the point will be Q48. If the error in the measurement of the
equal to half of its maximum velocity? radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in
1. T/6 2. T/3 the determination of volume of the sphere
3. T/12 4. T/8 will be
Q43. At 10ºC the value of the density of a fixed 1. 6% 2. 8%
mass of an ideal gas divided by its 3. 2% 4. 4%
pressure is x. At 110ºC this ratio is
Q49. The distance traveled by a particle starting Q56. To which type of barriers under innate
from rest and moving with an acceleration immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and
4 the tears from the eyes, belong ?
ms −2 , in the third second is
3 1. Cellular barriers
10 2. Physiological barriers
1. 4m 2. m 3. Physical barriers
3
4. Cytokine barriers
19
3. m 4. 6m Q57. Trichoderma harxianum has proved a
3 useful microorganism for :
Q50. The circuit 1. Reclamation of wastelands
2. Gene transfer in higher plants
3. Biological control of soil-borne plant
pathogens
is equivalent to
4. Bioremediation of contaminated soils
1. NAND gate 2. NOR gate
Q58. Which extraembryonic membrane in
3. OR gate 4. AND gate
Q51. Consider the statements given below humans prevents desiccation of the
regarding contraception and answer as embryo inside the uterus ?
1. Allantois 2. Yolk sac
directed thereafter :
3. Amnion 4. Chorion
a. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
Q59. Darwin’s Finches are an excellent example
during first trimester is generally safe
b. Generally chances of conception are nil of :
until mother breast-feeds the infant upto 1. Seasonal migration
2. Brood parasitism
two years
3. Connecting links
c. Intrauterine devices like copper-T are
4. Adaptive radiation
effective contraceptives
Q60. World Summit on Sustainable
d. Contraception pills may be taken upto
one week after coitus to prevent Development (2002) was held in :
conception 1. Sweden 2. Argentina
3. South Africa 4. Brazil
Which two of the above statements are
Q61. Consider the following four measures (a-d)
correct ?
that could be taken to successfully grow
1. c, d 2. a, c
3. a, b 4. b, c chickpea in an area where bacterial blight
Q52. Which one of the following is disease is common :
a. Spray with Bordeaux mixture
heterosporous ?
1. Salvinia 2. Adiantum b. Control of the insect vector of the
3. Equisetum 4. Dryopteris disease pathogen
Q53. Cry1 endotoxins obtained from Bacillus c. Use of only disease-free seeds
thuringiensis are effective against : d. Use of varieties resistant to the disease
Which two of the above measures can
1. Flies
control the disease ?
2. Nematodes
1. a and b 2. c and d
3. Boll worms
3. a and d 4. b and c
4. Mosquitoes
Q62. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus
Q54. The most active phagocytic white blood
is brought about by :
cells are :
1. Clostridium 2. Frankia
1. Lymphocytes and macrophages
3. Azorhizobium 4. Bradyrhizobium
2. Eosinophils and lymphocytes
Q63. Which one of the following pairs of items
3. Neutrophils and monocytes
correctly belongs to the category of
4. Neutrophils and eosinophils
organs mentioned against it ?
Q55. What does the filiform apparatus do at the
entrance into ovule ? 1. Nictitating membrane Vestigial organs
1. It prevents entry of more than one and blind spot in
pollen tube into the embryo sac. human eye
2. It brings about opening of the pollen 2. Nephridia of Excretory organs
tube earthworm and
3. It guides pollen tube from a synergid to malpighian tubules of
egg cockroach
4. It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a 3. Wings of honey bee Homologous organs
synergid and wings of crow
4. Thorn of Analogous organs 2. Presence of true coelom but absence of
Bougainvillea and metamerism
tendrils of Cucurbita 3. Presence of true coelom and
Q64. A lake near a village suffered heavy metamerism (metamerisation)
mortality of fishes within a few days. 4. Absence of true coelom but presence of
Consider the following reasons for this ? metamerism
a. Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer Q69. According to Central Pollution Control
were used in the crops in the vicinity Board (CPCB), which particulate size in
b. The area was sprayed with DDT by an diameter (in micrometers) of the air
aircraft pollutants is responsible for greatest harm
c. The lake water turned green and stinky to human health ?
d. Phytoplankton populations in the lake 1. 1.5 or less
declined initially thereby greatly reducing 2. 1.0 or less
photosynthesis 3. 5.2 – 2.5
Which two of the above were the main 4. 2.5 or less
causes of fish mortality in the lake ? Q70. Vascular tissues in flowering plants
1. c, d 2. a, c develop from :
3. a, b 4. b, c 1. Plerome 2. Periblem
Q65. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, 3. Dermatogen 4. Phellogen
the action potential results from the Q71. In the DNA molecule :
movement of : 1. There are two strands which run
1. Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to parallel in the 5′ → 3′ direction
extracellular fluid 2. The proportion of Adenine in relation to
2. K+ ions from intracellular fluid to thymine varies with the organism
extracellular fluid 3. There are two strands which run
3. Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to antiparallel one in 5′ → 3′ direction and
intracellular fluid other in 3′ → 5′
4. K+ ions from extracellular fluid to 4. The total amount of purine nucleotides
intracellular fluid and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always
Q66. Which one of the following is the correct equal
percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) Q72. Which one of the following is the correct
green house gases that contribute to the difference between Rod Cells and Cone
total global warming ? Cells of our retina ?
1. CO2 40%, CFCs 30% Rod cells Cone cells
2. N2O 6%, CO2 86% 1. Visual Iodopsin Rhodopsin
3. Methane 20%, N2O 18% pigment
4. CFCs 14%, methane 20% contained
Q67. The table below given the populations (in 2. Overall Vision in poor Colour vision
thousands) of ten species (A-J) in four function light and detailed
areas (a-d) consisting of the number of vision in
habitats given within brackets against bright light
each. Study the table and answer the 3. Distribution More Evenly
questions which follows : concentrated distributed all
Area Species and their populations
and (in thousands) in the areas in centre of over retina
numb
er of retina
habita
ts
4. Visual High Low
A B C D E F G H I J faculty
a(11) 2.3 1.2 0.52 6.0 - 3.1 1.1 9.0 - 0.3
b(11) 10.2 - 0.62 - 1.5 3.0 - 8.2 1.1 11. Q73. In the light of recent classification of living
2 organisms into three domains of life
c(13) 11.3 0.9 0.48 2.4 1.4 4.2 0.8 8.4 2.2 4.1
d(12) 3.2 10. 11.1 4.8 0.4 3.3 0.8 7.3 11. 2.1 (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which
2 3
one of the following statements is true
Which area out of a d shows maximum about archaea ?
species diversity ? 1. Archaea have some novel features that
1. c 2. d are absent in other prokaryotes and
3. a 4. b eukaryotes
Q68. Ascaris is characterized by : 2. Archaea completely differ from both
1. Presence of neither true coelom nor prokayotes and eukaryotes
metamerism
3. Archaea completely differ from 2. Both Calcitonin and Parathormone
prokaryotes 3. Calcitonin
4. Archaea resemble eukarya in all respect 4. Parathormone
Q74. Unisexually of flowers prevents : Q81. Vacuole in a plant cell :
1. Both geitonogamy and xenogamy
2. Geitonogamy, but not xenogamy 1. Is membrane-bound and contains water
3. Autogamy and geitonogamy and excretory substances
4. Autogamy, but not geitonogamy 2. Lacks membrane and contains air
Q75. Keeping in view the ‘fluid mosaic model’ 3. Lacks membrane and contains water
for the structure of cell membrane, which and excretory substances
one of the following statements is correct 4. Is membrane-bound and contains
with respect to the movement of lipids and storage proteins and lipids
proteins from one lipid monolayer to the Q82. The fruit is chambered, developed from
other (described as flip-flop movement)? inferior ovary and has seeds with
1. While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins succulent testa in :
can not 1. Orange 2. Guava
2. While proteins can flip-flop, lipids, 3. Cucumber 4. Pomegranate
cannot Q83. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
3. Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop cucurbita are examples of :
4. Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop 1. Homologous organs
Q76. Which one of the following groups of three 2. Vestigial organs
animals each is correctly matched with 3. Retrogressive evolution
their one characteristic morphological 4. Analogous organs
feature ? Q84. Which one of the following is NOT a
Animals Morphological characteristic of phylum Annelida ?
feature 1. Segmentation
1. Centipede, Prawn, Jointed appendages 2. Pseudocoelom
Sea urchin 3. Ventral nerve cord
2. Scorpion, spider, Ventral solid central 4. Closed circulatory system
cockroach nervous system Q85. Earthworms have no skeleton but during
3. Cockroach, Locust, Metameric burrowing the anterior end becomes turgid
Taenia segmentation and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due
4. Liver fluke, Sea Bilateral symmetry to :
anemone, Sea cucmber 1. Blood 2. Gut peristalsis
Q77. Haploids are more suitable for mutation 3. Setae 4. Coelomic fluid
studies than diploids. This is because : Q86. Which one of the following proved effective
1. Mutagens penetrate in haploids more for biological control of nematodal diseases
effectively than is diploids in plants ?
2. Haploids are more abundant in nature 1. Pseudomonas cepacia
than diploids 2. Gliocladium virens
3. All mutations, whether dominant or 3. Paecilomyces lilacinus
recessive are expressed in haploids 4. Pisolithus tinclorius
4. Haploids are reproductively more stable Q87. Senescence as an active developmental
than diploids cellular process in the growth and
Q78. About 70% of total global carbon is found functioning of a flowering plant, is
in : indicated in :
1. Agroecosystems 2. Oceans 1. Leaf abscission
3. Forests 4. Grasslands 2. Annual plants
Q79. Which one of the following pairs of codons 3. Floral parts
is correctly matched with their function or 4. Vessels and tracheid differentiation
the signal for the particular amino acid ? Q88. Which one of the following is the correct
1. UAG, UGA – Stop matching of the site of action on the given
2. AUG, ACG – Start/Methionine substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and
3. UUA, UCA – Leucine the end product?
α Amylase
4. GUU, GCU – Alanine 1. Small intestine : Starch  →
Q80. The blood calcium level is lowered by the Disaccharide (Maltose)
Pepsin
deficiency of : 2. Small intestine : Proteins  →
1. Thyroxine Amino acids
3. Stomach : Fat  Lipase
→ micelles Q95. Which one of the following pairs of organs
4. Duodenum : Triglycerides  Trypsin
→ includes only the endocrine glands ?
monoglycerides 1. Pancreas and Parathyroid
Q89. Which one of the following phyla is 2. Thymus and Testes
correctly matched with its two general 3. Adrenal and Ovary
characteristics ? 4. Parathyroid and Adrenal
1. Chordata Notochord at some Q96. Which one of the following scientist’s name
stage and separate is correctly matched with the theory put
anal and urinary forth by him ?
openings to the 1. Pasteur -Inheritance of acquired
outside characters
2. De Vries -Natural selection
2. Echinodermata Pentameous radial
3. Mendel -Theory of Pangenesis
symmetry and mostly
4. Weismann -Theory of continuity of
internal fertilization
Germplasm
3.Mollusca Normally oviparous
Q97. Select one of the following pairs of
and development
important features distinguishing Gnetum
through a trochophore
from Cycas and Pinus and showing
or veligerlarva
affinities with angiosperms :
4. Arthropoda Body divided into
1. Presence of vessel elements and
head, thorax and
absence of archegonia
respiration by tracheae
2. Perianth and two integuments
Q90. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of 3. Enbryo development and apical
oxidative phosphorylation proposes that meristem
adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed 4. Absence of resin duct and leaf venation
because : Q98. Electrons from excited chlorophyll
1. ADP is pumped out of the matrix into molecules of photosystem II are accepted
the intermembrane space first by :
1. A proton gradient forms across the 1. Cytochrome – f 2. Quinone
inner membrane 3. Ferredoxin 4. Cytochrome – b
3. There is a change in the permeability of Q99. What will happen if the secretion of
the inner mitochondrial membrane toward parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked
adenosine diphosphate (ADP) with an inhibitor ?
4. High energy bonds are formed in 1. Gastric juice will be deficient in
mitochondrial proteins pepsinogen
Q91. Which one of the following pairs of 2. In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive
nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, pepsinogen is not converted into the active
wrongly matched with the category enzyme pepsin.
mentioned against it ? 3. Enterokinase will not be released from
1. Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen
2. Guanine, Adenine - Purines is not converted to trypsin
3. Adenine, Thymine – Purines 4. Gastric juice will be deficient in
4. Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines chymosin
Q92. Human insulin is being commercially Q100. Importance of day length in flowering of
produced from a transgenic species of plants was first shown in :
1. Mycobacterium 2. Rhizobium 1. Tobacco 2. Cotton
3. Saccharomyces 4. Escherichia 3. Petunia 4. Lemna
Q93. Which one of the following is resistant to Q101. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a
enzyme action ? species of :
1. Wood fibre 2. Pollen exine 1. Alternaria 2. Erwinia
3. Leaf cuticle 4. Cork 3. Xanthomonas 4. Pseudomonas
Q94. Gel electrophoresis is used for : Q102. The length of different internodes in a
1. Separation of DNA fragments according culm of sugarcane is variable because of:
to their size 1. Position of axillary burds
2. Construction of recombinant DNA by 2. Size of leaf lamina at the node below
joining with cloning vectors each internode
3. Isolation of DNA molecule 3. Intercalary meristem
4. Cutting of DNA into fragments 4. Shoot apical meristem
Q103. Which one of the following conditions in consists of a sequence
humans is correctly matched with its of pharynx,
chromosomal abnormality/linkage ? oesophagus, stomach,
1. Colour blindness – Y-lined gizzard and intestine
2. Erythroblastosis foetalis – X linked Q109. A competitive inhibitor of succinic
3. Down syndrome – 44 autosomes + XO dehydrogenase is :
4. Klinefelter’s syndrome – 44 autosomes + 1. Oxaloacetate
XXY 2. α-ketoglutarate
Q104. Cellulose is the major component of cell 3. Malata
walls of : 4. Malonate
1. Xanthomonas 2. Pseudomonas Q110. Consider the following statements about
3. Saccharomyces 4. Pythium biomedical technologies :
Q105. Carbohydrates are commonly found as a. During open heart surgery blood is
starch in plant storage organs. Which of circulated in the heart-lung machine
the following five properties of starch (a-e) b. Blockage in coronary arteries is
make it useful as a storage material ? removed by angiography
a. Easily translocated c. Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT)
b. Chemically non-reactive shows detailed internal structure as seen
c. Easily digested by animals in a section of body
d. Osmotically inactive d. X-ray provides clear and detailed
e. Synthesized during photosynthesis images of organs like prostate glands and
The useful properties are : lungs ?
1. b and d Which two of the above statements are
2.a, c and e correct ?
3. a and e 1. c and d 2. a and c
4. b and c 3. a and b 4. b and d
Q106. What is antisense technology ? Q111. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen
1. Production of somaclonal variants in logs in nature is due to their :
tissue cultures 1. Poor nitrogen content
2. When a piece of RNA that is 2. Anaerobic environment around them
complementary in sequence is used to 3. Low cellulose content
stop expression of a specific gene 4. Low moisture content
3. RNA polymerase producing DNA Q112. The two sub-units of ribosome remain
4. A cell displaying a foreign antigen used united at a critical ion level of :
for synthesis of antigens 1. Manganese
Q107. Which one of the following is the correct 2. Magnesium
statement regarding the particular 3. Calcium
psychotropic drug specified ? 4. Copper
1. Opium stimulates nervous system and Q113. Modern detergents contain enzyme
causes hallucinations preparations of :
2. Morphine leads to delusions and 1. Alkaliphiles
disturbed emotions 2. Thermoacidophiles
3. Barbiturates cause relaxation and 3. Thermophiles
temporary euphoria 4. Acidophiles
4. Hashish causes after thought Q114. Main objective of production / use of
perceptions and hallucinations herbicide resistant GM crops is to
Q108. Which one of the following is the true 1. Eliminate weeds from the field without
description about an animal concerned ? the use of herbicides
1. Frog Body divisible into 2. Encourage eco-friendly herbicides
three regions – head, 3. Reduce herbicide accumulation in food
neck and trunk. articles for health safety
2. Rat Left kidney is slightly 4. Eliminate weeds from the field without
higher in position than the use of manual labour
the right one Q115. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and
3. Cockroach 10 pairs of spiracles (2 Methanobacterium exemplify :
pairs on thorax and 8 1. Archaebacteria that lack any histones
pairs on abdomen) resembling those found in eukaryotes but
4. Earthworm The alimentary canal whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
2. Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or Q123. Which one of the following in birds,
positively supercoiled but which have a indicates their reptilian ancestry ?
cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria 1. Four-chambered heart
3. Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton 2. Two special chambers crop and gizzard
and ribosomes in their digestive tract
4. Archaebacteria that contain protein 3. Eggs with a calcareous shell
homologous to eukaryotic core histones 4. Scales on their hind limbs
Q116. Quercus species are dominant component Q124. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more
in : efficient than C3 plants because :
1. Alpine forests 1. CO2 generated during photorespiration
2. Scrub forests is trapped and recycled through PEP
3. Tropical rain forests carboxylase
4. Temperate deciduous forests 2. The CO2 efflux is not prevented
Q117. Which one of the following is linked to the 3. They have more chloroplasts
discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a 4. The CO2 compensation point is more
popular fungicide ? Q125. Which type of white blood cells are
1. Downy mildew of grapes concerned with the release of histamine
2. Loose smut of wheat and the natural anticoagulant heparin ?
3. Black rust of wheat 1. Basophils
4. Bacterial leaf blight of rice 2. Eosinophils
Q118. Consider the following statements 3. Monocytes
concerning food chains : 4. Neutrophils
a. Removal of 80% tigers from an area Q126. Which one of the following pairs of plant
resulted in greatly increased growth of structures has haploid number of
vegetation. chromosomes ?
b. Removal of most of the carnivores 1. Egg cell and antipodal cells
resulted in an increased population of 2. Nucellus and antipodal cells
deers 3. Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
c. The length of food chains is generally 4. Megaspore mother cell and antipodal
limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy cells
loss. Q127. The energy-releasing process in which the
d. The length of food chains may vary from substrate is oxidized without an external
2 to 8 trophic levels. electron acceptor is called :
Which two of the above statements are 1. Photorespiration
correct ? 2. Aerobic respiration
1. c, d 2. a, d 3. Glycolysis
3. a, b 4. b, c 4. Fermentation
Q119. Which one of the following is not observed Q128. Which one of the following is being tried in
in biodiversity hotspots ? India as a biofuel substitute for fossil
1. Accelerated species loss fuels
2. Lesser inter-specific competition 1. Azadirachta 2. Musa
3. Species richness 3. Aegilops 4. Jatropha
4. Endemism Q129. What is vital capacity of our lungs ?
Q120. In human adult females oxytocin : 1. Total lung capacity minus expiratory
1. Stimulates growth of mammary glands reserve volume.
2. Stimulates pituitary to secrete 2. Inspiratory reserve volume plus
vasopressin expiratory reserve volume
3. Causes strong uterine contractions 3. Total lung capacity minus residual
during parturition volume
4. Is secreted by anterior pituitary 4. Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal
Q121. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig volume
encloses a number of : Q130. Cornea transplant in humans is almost
1. Samaras 2. Berries never rejected. This is because :
3. Mericarps 4. Achenes 1. It has no blood supply
Q122. Endosperm is consumed by developing 2. It is composed of enucleated cells
embryo in the seed of : 3. It is a non-living layer
1. Castor 2. Pea 4. Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
3. Maize 4. Coconut
Q131. Which one of the following statements is (c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
incorrect about menstruation ? (d) Syphilis (iv) Use oval
1. The menstrual fluid can easily cot. rehydration therapy
2. At menopause in the female, there is 1. a – (ii), b (iv), c – (i), d – (iii)
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic 2. a – (ii), b (i), c (iii), d (iv)
hormones 3. a – (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i)
3. The beginning of the cycle of 4. a – (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)
menstruation is called menarche Q137. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
4. During normal menstruation about 40 division, the male germ cells differentiable
ml blood is lost into the :
Q132. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of 1. Secondary spermatocytes
: 2. Spermatids
1. Mustard 3. Spermatozonia
2. Sun flower 4. Primary spermatocytes
3. Pea Q138. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed
4. Lemon from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior
Q133. The haemoglobin of a human foetus : ovary is :
1. Its affinity for oxygen is the same as 1. Cypsela
that of an adult 2. Berry
2. Has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4 3. Cremocarp
3. Has a higher affinity for oxygen than 4. Caryopsis
that of an adult Q139. In which one of the following, male and
4. Has a lower affinity for oxygen than that female gametophytes do not have free
of the adult living independent existence ?
Q134. Given below is a diagrammatic cross 1. Funaria
section of a single loop of human cochlea: 2. Polytrichum
3. Cedrus
4. Pteris
Q140. A transgenic food crop which may help in
solving the problem of night blindness in
developing countries is :
1. Starlink maize
2. Bt Soyabean
Which one of the following options 3. Golden rice
correctly represents the names of three 4. Flavr Savr tomatoes
different parts ? Q141. Given below are four methods (A-D) and
1. C : Endolymph, D : Sensory hair cells, A their modes of action (a-d) in achieving
: Serum contraception. Select their correct
2. D : Sensory hair cells, A : Endolymph matching from the four options that follow
B : Tectorial membrane :
3. A : Perilymph, B : Tectorial membrane Method Mode of Action
C : Endolymph A. The pill (a) Prevents sperms
4. B : Tectorial membrane, C : Perilymph, reaching cervix
D : Secretory cells B. Condom (b) Prevents
Q135. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis implantation
during CO2 fixation occurs in C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation
1. Mesophyll cells
D. Copper T (d) Semen contains no
2. Bundle sheath
sperms
3. Guard cells
1. A – (d), B – (c), C – (a), D – (b)
4. Epidermal cells
2. A – (a), B- (b), C – (c), D – (d)
Q136. Match the disease in Column I with the
3. A – (b), B – (c), C – (a), D – (d)
appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/
4. A – (c), B – (a), C – (d), D – (b)
treatment) in Column II.
Q142. The rupture and fractionation do not
Column I Column II
usually occur in the water column in
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema vessel/tracheids during the ascent of sap
pallidum because of :
(b) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized 1. Cohesion and adhesion
food and water 2. Weak gravitational pull
3. Transpiration pull 3. Pressure difference between the post
4. Lignified thick walls caval and atrium
Q143. Polysome is formed by : 4. Pushing open of the venous valves
1. Many ribosomes attached to a strand of Q149. Which one of the following is incorrect
endoplasmic reticulum about the characteristics of protobionts
2. A ribosome with several subunits (coacervates and microspheres) as
3. Ribosomes attached to each other in a envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life ?
linear arrangement. 1. They could separate combinations of
4. Several ribosomes attached to a single molecules from the surroundings
mRNA 2. They were partially isolated from the
Q144. What is true about the isolated small surroundings
tribal populations ? 3. They could maintain an internal
1. Hereditary diseases like colour environment
blindness do not spread in the isolated 4. They were able to reproduce
population Q150. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene
2. Wrestlers who develop strong body with the plasmid vector became possible
muscles in their life time pass this with :
character on to their progeny 1. Endoncleases
3. There is no change in population size as 2. DNA polymerase
they have a large gene pool 3. Exonucleases
4. There is a decline in population as boys 4. DNA ligase
marry girls only from their own tribe Q151. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product
Q145. Consider the following four statements (a- C was obtained.
d) about certain desert animals such as
kangaroo rat.
a. They have dark colour and high rate of
reproduction and excrete solid urine
b. They do not drink water, breathe at a The structure of C would be:
slow rate to conserve water and have their
body covered with thick hairs
c. They feed on dry seeds and donot
require drinking water
d. They excrete very concentrated urine
and do not use water to regulate body
temperature.
Which two of the above statements for
such animals are true ?
1. b and c
2. c and a
3. a and b
4. c and d Q152. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured
Q146. In germinating seeds fatty acids are at 0ºC and 1 atm, is needed to burn
degraded exclusively in the : completely 1L of propane gas ( C3H8 )
1. Glyoxysomes
measured under the same conditions?
2. Peroxisomers
1. 6L 2. 5L
3. Mitochondria
3. 10L 4. 7L
4. Proplastids
Q153. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will
Q147. Which one of the following items gives its
be formed from a reaction between 6.5g of
correct total number ?
PbO and 3.2g of HCl?
1. Amino acids found in proteins 16
1. 0.333 2. 0.011
2. Types of diabetes - 3
3. 0.029 4. 0.044
3. Cervical vertebrae in humans- 8
Q154. The alkali metals form salt-like hydrides
4. Floating ribs in humans - 4
by the direct synthesis at elevated
Q148. In humans, blood passes from the post
temperature. The thermal stability of these
caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart
hydrides decreases in which of the
due to :
following orders?
1. Suction pull
2. Stimulation of the sino auricular node 1. KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
2. NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH
3. LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH 4. CH3 − CH2 − CH2Br
4. CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH Q161. Which one of the following is most reactive
Q155. The rate constants k1 and k 2 for two towards electrophilic attack?
different reactions are 1016.e −2000/T and
1015.e −1000/T , respectively. The temperature
at which k1 = k 2 is
2000
1. K 2. 2000 K Q162. Green Chemistry means such reactions
2.303
1000 which:
3. K 4. 1000 K 1. reduce the use and production of
2.303 hazardous chemicals
Q156. Which one of the following arrangements 2. are related to the depletion of ozone
does not give the correct picture of the layer
trends indicated against it ? 3. study the reactions in plants
1. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > l2 : Electron gain 4. produce colour during reactions
enthalpy Q163. On the basis of the following E° values,
2. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > l2 : Bond dissociation the strongest oxidizing agent is
4− 3−
energy Fe ( CN )6  → Fe ( CN )6  + e −1;E° = −0.35V
3. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electronegativity
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e −1; E° = −0.77V
4. F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Oxidizing power 2+ 3+
1. Fe 2. Fe
Q157. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 3− 4−
can be represented as 3. Fe ( CN )6  4. Fe ( CN )6 
2AB2 ( g ) ‡ˆ ˆˆ ˆ†
ˆˆ 2AB ( g ) + B2 ( g ) Q164. H3C − CH − CH = CH2 + HBr → A
The degree of dissociation is ‘x’ and is |
CH3
small compared to 1. The expression
relating the degree of dissociation (x) with A(Predominantly) is
equilibrium constant KP and total pressure Br
P is |
1/3 1/2
1. CH3 − C − CH2CH3
1. ( 2K P /P ) 2. ( 2K P /P ) |
CH3
3. ( K P /P ) 4. ( 2K P /P )
2. CH3 − CH − CH − CH3
Q158. Percentage of free space in a body centred | |
cubic unit cell is Br CH3
1. 32% 2. 34%
3. CH3 − CH − CH − CH3
3. 28% 4. 30% | |
Q159. The correct order of increasing bond CH3 Br
angles in the following triatomic species is
4. CH3 − CH − CH2 − CH2Br
1. NO2− < NO2 < NO2+ |
2. NO2+ < NO2 < NO2− CH3
3. NO2+ < NO2− < NO2 Q165. The bromination of acetone that occurs in
acid solution is represented by this
4. NO2− < NO2+ < NO2 equation.
Q160. In a SN 2 substitution reaction of the type CH3COCH3 ( aq ) + Br2 ( aq ) → CH3COCH2Br ( aq )
R − Br + Cl − →
DMF
R − Cl + Br − , +H+ ( aq ) + Br − ( aq )
Which one of the following has the highest The kinetic data were obtained for given
relative rate? reaction concentrations.
1. CH3 − CH − CH2Br Initial Concentrations, M
| [CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]
CH3
0.30 0.05 0.05
CH3 0.30 0.10 0.05
| 0.30 0.10 0.10
2. CH3 − C − CH2Br
| 0.40 0.05 0.20
CH3 Initial Rate, disappearance of Br2, Ms −1
3. CH3CH2Br 5.7 × 10 −5
5.7 × 10 −5 Q172. If uncertainty in position and momentum
1.2 × 10 −4 are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is
3.1 × 10 −4 h 1 h
1. 2.
Based on these data, the rate equation is 2π m π
1. Rate = k [CH = COCH3 ] [Br2 ] h 1 h
3. 4.
2. Rate = k [CH3COCH3 ] [Br2 ] H  + 2 π 2m π
Q173. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic
3. Rate = k [CH3COCH3 ] [Br2 ] H+  systems: simple cubic, body centred cubic
and face centred cubic, then the ratio of
4. Rate = k [CH3COCH3 ] H+ 
radii of the spheres in these systems will
Q166. Equimolar solutions of the following were be respectively,
prepared in water separately. Which one of 1 1 1 3 2
the solutions will records the highest pH? 1. a : 3a : a 2. a: a: a
2 2 2 2 2
1. BaCl2 2. MgCl2
3. CaCl2 4. SrCl2 1 3 1
3. 1a : 3a : 2a 4.
a: a: a
Q167. Standard free energies of formation 2 4 2 2
( inkJ/mol ) at 298 K are −237.2, −394.4 Q174. The measurement of the electron position
is associated with an uncertainty in
and −8.2 for H2O (l ) ,CO2 ( g ) and pentane momentum, which is equal to
−18 −1
(g), respectively. The value of E°cell for the 1 × 10 g cms . The (mass of an electron is
pentane-oxygen fuel cell is 9 × 10 −28 g)
1. 2.0968V 2. 1.0968V
1. 1 × 106 cms −1 2. 1 × 105 cms −1
3. 0.0968V 4. 1.968V −1
11
3. 1 × 10 cms 4. 1 × 109 cms −1
Q168. If the concentration of OH− ions in the
Q175. In DNA, the complimentary bases are
reaction
1. Adenine and thymine; guanine and
Fe ( OH)3 ( s ) ‡ˆ ˆˆ ˆ†
ˆˆ Fe ( aq ) + 3OH ( aq )
3+ −
is uracil
1 2. Adenine and guanine; thymine and
decreased by times, then equilibrium cytosine
4
3. Uracil and adenine; cytosine and
concentration of Fe3+ will increase by
guanine
1. 16 times 2. 64 times
4. Adenine and thymine; guanine and
3. 4 times 4. 8 times
cytosine
Q169. Number of moles of MnO4− required to Q176. Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2 ,Cl2 and
oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate
HCl are 434, 242 and 431 kJmol −1
completely in acidic medium will be
1. 0.4 moles 2. 7.5 moles respectively. Enthalpy of formation of HCl
3. 0.2 moles 4. 0.6 moles is
Q170. Four diatomic species are listed below in 1. −245kJmol −1 2. −93kJmol −1
different sequences. Which of these 3. 245kJmol −1 4. 93kJmol −1
presents the correct order of their Q177. Acetophenone when reacted with a base,
increasing bond order? C2H5ONa, yields a stable compound which
1. NO < C22− < O2− < He2+ has the structure:
2. C22− < He2+ < NO < O2−
3. He2+ < O2− < NO < C22−
4. O2− < NO < C22− < He2+
Q171. The stability of carbanions in the following
e
(a) RC = C
e e
(c) R 2C = C H (d) R 3C − C H2
is in the order of
1. (b) > (c) > (d) > (a)
2. (d) > (b) > (c) > (a)
3. (a) > (c) > (b) > (d) Q178. Which one of the following statements is
4. (a) > (b) > (c) > (d) not true?
1. Natural rubber has the trans- 1. ∆H > O and ∆S > O
configuration at every double bond 2. ∆H < O and ∆S < O
2. Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and
styrene 3. ∆H > O and ∆S < O
3. Natural rubber is a 1, 4-polymer of 4. ∆H = O and ∆S < O
isoprene Q185. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds
4. In vulcanization, the formation of towards nucleophilic substitution are in
sulphur bridges between different chains the order of
make rubber harder and stronger 1. Ester > Acyl chloride > Amide > Acid
Q179. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of anhydride
pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What 2. Acid anhydride > Amide > Ester > Acyl
will be the H+ ion concentration in the chloride
mixture 3. Acyl chloride > Ester > Acid anhydride>
1. 3.7 × 10 −4 M 2. 3.7 × 10 −3 M Amide
3. 1.11 × 10 −3 M 4. 1.11 × 10 −4 M 4. Acyl chloride > Acid anhydride > Ester >
Q180. Which of the following complexes exhibits Amide
the highest paramagnetic behaviour? Q186. The values of Kp1 and Kp2 for the
2+ reactions
1. Fe ( en )( bpy )( NH3 )2 
X ƒ Y + Z..... (1) and
−
2. Co ( OX )2 ( OH)2  A ƒ 2B..... ( 2)
3+
3.  Ti ( NH3 )6  are in ratio of 9 : 1. If degree of
+
dissociation of X and A be equals, then
4.  V ( gly )2 ( OH )2 ( NH3 )2  total pressure at equilibrium (1) and (2)
Where gly = glycine, are in the ratio
en = ethylenediamine and 1. 1 : 9 2. 36 : 1
bpy = bipyridyl moieties) 3. 1 : 1 4. 3 : 1
Q187. The correct order of decreasing second
( At.nos.Ti = 22, V = 23,Fe = 26,Co = 27 ) ionization enthalpy of Ti (22), V(23), Cr(24)
Q181. The value of equilibrium constant of the and Mn(25) is
reaction 1. V > Mn > Cr > Ti 2. Mn > Cr > Ti > V
1 1 3. Ti > V > Cr > Mn 4. Cr > Mn > V > Ti
HI ( g ) ‡ˆ ˆˆ ˆ†
ˆˆ H2 ( g ) + I2 is 8.0
2 2 Q188. If a gas expands at constant temperature,
The equilibrium constant of the reaction it indicates that
H2 ( g ) + I2 ( g ) ‡ˆ ˆˆ ˆ†
ˆˆ 2HI ( g ) will be 1. pressure of the gas increases
2. kinetic energy of molecules remains the
1
1. 2. 16 same
64 3. number of the molecules of gas
1 1 increases
3. 4.
8 16 4. kinetic energy of molecules decreases
Q182. The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous Q189. With which one of the following elements
solution is silicon should be doped so as to give
1. Cs + > Rb + > K + > Na + p − type of semiconductor?
2. Rb + > K + > Cs + > Na + 1. Arsenic
3. Na + > K + > Rb + > Cs + 2. Selenium
4. K + > Na + > Rb + > Cs + 3. Boron
Q183. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) 4. Germanium
consists of Q190. An organic compound contains carbon,
1. 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental
2. 1 sigma and 1 pi bonds analysis gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%.
3. 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds The empirical formula of the compound
4. 1 sigma and 2 bonds would be
Q184. For the gas phase reaction, 1. CH2O 2. CHO
3. CH4O 4. CH3O
PCl5 ( g ) ƒ PCl3 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g )
Q191. Volume occupied by one molecule of water
which of the following conditions are
correct?
( density = 1gcm−3 ) is
1. 6.023 × 10 −23 cm3 2. 3.0 × 10 −23 cm3
−23 −23
3. 5.5 × 10 cm 3
4. 9.0 × 10 cm 3
3. Alkane 4. Alkene
Q192. Kohlrausch’s law states that at Q197. Which of the following statements is not
1. infinite dilution each ion makes definite correct?
contribution to equivalent conductance of 1. Molecular solids are generally volatile
an electrolyte depending on the nature of 2. The number of carbon atoms in an unit
the other ion of the electrolyte. cell of Diamond is 4
2. infinite dilution, each ion makes definite 3. The number of Bravais lattices in which
contribution to conductance of an a crystal can be categorized is 14
electrolyte whatever be the nature of the 4. The fraction of the total volume
other of the electrolyte occupied by the atoms in a primitive cell
3. infinite dilution, each ion makes definite is 0.48
contribution to equivalent conductance of Q198. Which of the following are not state
an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of functions?
the other ion of the electrolyte. (I) q + w (II) q
4. finite dilution, each ion makes definite (IV) w (IV) H-TS
contribution to equivalent conductance of 1. (II), (III) and (IV) 2. (I), (II) and (III)
an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of 3. (II) and (III) 4. (I) and (IV)
the other ion of the electrolyte. Q199. In which of the following coordination
Q193. In the hydrocarbon entities the magnitude of ∆o ( CFSE in
CH3 − CH = CH − CH2 − C ≡ CH octahedral field) will be maximum?
3+ 3−
6 5 4 5 2 1 1. Co ( NH3 )6  2. Co ( CN )6 
The state of hybridization of carbons 1,3 3− 3+
and 5 are in the following sequence: 3. Co ( C2O4 )3  4. Co ( H2O )6 

1. sp,sp3 ,sp2 2. sp,sp2 ,sp3 (At. No. Co = 27)
Q200. Base strength of
3. sp3 ,sp2 ,sp 4. sp2 ,sp,sp3 e e
Q194. How many stereoisomers does this (a) H3C C H2 (b) H2C = C H and
molecule have? (c) H − C ≡ C e
CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3 is in the order of
1. 6 2. 8 1. ( a ) > ( c ) > ( b ) 2. ( a ) > ( b ) > ( c )
3. 2 4. 4
Q195. Which one of the following is an amine 3. ( b ) > ( a ) > ( c ) 4. ( c ) > ( b ) > ( a )
hormone?
1. Oxypurin 2. Insulin
3. Progesterone 4. Thyroxine
Q196. A strong base can abstract an α-hydrogen
from:
1. Amine 2. Ketone
SOLUTION
(SET-D)
PHYSICS
Q1. (4)
At top,
mv 2
mg =
R
v = gR
= 20 × 10
= 14.1 m/s
Q2. (2)
Energy required = 2Energy stored
1
= 2 × cv 2
2
∈o A
= × E 2d 2
d
=∈o E2 Ad
Q3. (2)
Internal energy depends upon the state of a system. It is a state function property.
For cyclic or closed process.
∆E = 0
Q4. (4)
Let the required force be F. Then all forces along x-axis should adds upto zero.
F + 1 cos 60 + 2 cos 60 – 4 sin 30 = 0
Or F = 0.5 N
Q5. (4)
Applying law of conservation of momentum
0.2 × us + 4 × ug = 0 ……….(1)
From law of conservation of energy
1 1
× 0.2 × us2 + × 4 × u2g = 1050 ………(2)
2 2
On solving,
Vs = 100 m/s
Q6. (2)
Kinetic energy remains unchanged as work done by magnetic forces is always zero and hence
there will be no change in kinetic energy.
Q7. (4)
Force needed to keep the belt moving with constant velocity.
dp ν dm
F= =
dt dt
= Mν Newton
Q8. (4)
1 Q
V= =
4π ∈o r
1 Q
or Q × 1011 =
4π ∈o r
1 Q
or r=
4π ∈o Q × 1011
1 Q V
and E= =
4π ∈o r 2 r
Q × 1011
= .4π ∈o .Q × 1011
Q
Q9. (3)
Nuclear density is a constant (independent of A).
Ratio will be 1 : 1
Q10. (2)
E1 + excitation = E2
−13.6
– 13.6 + excitation energy =
22
Excitation energy = 10.2 eV
Q11. (4)
Let actual diameter of sun is D and on paper is D′, then
D D′
=
r f
D× f
or D′ =
r
1.39 × 109 × 0.1
= = 9.2 × 10 −4 m
1.5 × 1011
Q12. (1)
l
R=ρ
A
2
R2  l 2 
=  and l 2 = 1.1 l 1
R1  l 1 
2
⇒ ⇒ R 2 = (1.1) R 2 = 1.21 R1
Resistivity remain same.
Q13. (1)
T = 0.05 sec
u = 300 m/s
λ
v = νλ =
T
or λ = uT
= 300 × 0.05
= 15 m
Phase difference between two points
2π
φ= ∆x
λ
2π 2π
= (15 − 10 ) =
15 3
Q14. (1)
Energy needed for electrons to overcome b and gap.
E = hν
−19
E 2 × 1.6 × 10
or ν= =
h 6.6 × 10 −34
= 5 × 1014 Hz
Q15. (1)
Mk 2R = MR 2
or kR = R
1
and Mk 2d = MR 2
2
R
kd =
2
kd R 1
⇒ = ×
kR 2 R
kd : kR = 1 : 2
Q16. (4)
hν = E + w o
= 6.2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 + 1.6 × 10 −19 × 5
= 9.92 × 10 −19 + 8 × 10 −19
hν = 17.92 × 10 −19
17.92 × 10 −19
ν=
6.6 × 10 −34
= 2.7 × 1015 Hertz
c 3 × 108
and λ= =
ν 2.7 × 1015
= 1.1 × 10 −7 m
Which correspond to ultra violet region
Q17. (3)
Atomic radius in fcc structure is
4r = 3.6 2
or r = 1.25 Å
Q18. (4)
h h
λ = or λ =
p mv
λp = λe
1 1
⇒ =
mpup me ue
me ue 9.1 × 10 −31 × 3 × 106
or up = =
mp 1 × 10 −6
= 27.3 × 10 −19 m/s
= 2.7 × 10 −18 m/s
Q19. (1)
Mass of each half = M/2
Length of each half = L/2
New, Moment of inertia = Moment of inertia of both rods about an axis ⊥ ar to their plane and
passing through edge
2
1  M L  ML2
= 2×    =
3  2  2  12
Q20. (3)
v = u + at
20 = 10 + at or at = 10 …….(1)
1 2
and from, S = ut + at
2
1
135 = 10t + at2
2
 at 
135 = t 10 + 
 2
Using (1)
 10 
135 = t 10 +
 2 
135 = 15 t
t = 9 seconds
Q21. (2)
On comparing with standard wave eqn. traveling along +ve x – direction
y = A sin (kx – ωt)
2π
k= = 10π
λ
or λ = 0.2m
and ω = 2πν = 2π
or ν = 1Hz
and the wave is traveling along +ve x direction.
Q22. (4)
Magnetic flux, φ = BA cos θ
1 2
= × π ( 0.2) × cos 60
π
= 0.02 wb
Q23. (2)
φ
Self inductance, L=
i
And total flux, φ = Total no. of turn × Flux through each turn
= 500 × 4 × 10–3 wb
−3
500 × 4 × 10
and L= = 1.0 Henry
2
Q24. (2)
Phase difference = φ
Paverage = Erms. Irms cos φ
E I
= o . o cos φ
2 2
EI
= o o cos φ
2
Q25. (4)
Power generated = 90% of mgh/sec.
90
= × 15 × 10 × 60 = 8.1 kw
100
Q26. (4)
l 1 = 110cm, l 2 = 100cm, R = 10Ω
E = k l 1 = 110k
and V = kl 2
= 100 k
E−V
r= ×R
V
110k − 100k
= × 10
100k
= 1Ω
Q27. (1)
Net electric field at centre O is zero. Therefore, the electric field due to part ACDB will be equal
and opposite of that due to part AKB, that is E along ok.
Q28. (1)
Acceleration in simple Harmonic motion,
a = −ω2 y
And acceleration will be maximum at extreme positions i.e.
When y = A
Therefore,
2
a1 ω12 A
= 2 =
(100 ) = 1 :102
a 2 ω2 A (1000 )2
Q29. (1)
Net force on a current carrying loop in uniform magnetic filed is zero.
That is
→ → → →
F QP + F PS + F SR + F RQ = 0
→
→ → →

or F QP = −  F PS + F SR + F RQ 
 
From vector addition,
→ →
Resultant of F1 and F 3
2
= ( F3 − F1 )
→ →
and resultant of F1,F 3 & F1
2
FQP = ( F3 − F1 ) + F22
Q30. (3)
Combined focal length,
1 1 1
= +
f f1 f2
f2 + f1
or P=
f1f2
Q31. (3)
Intensity α (Amplitude)2
Imax = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2
and Imin = I1 + I2 − 2 I1I2
∴ Imax + Imin = 2 ( I1 + I2 )
Q32. (3)
Potential drop across PM = 1 × 4
=4V
4 16
Current through PNM = = A
 1 5
1 + 
 4
And potential drop across MN
V = iR
16
= ×1
5
= 3.2 volt
Q33. (2)
N = No e – λt
−5 λt
N1 e
∴ = −λt = e −4λt
N2 e
N 1
But 1 =
N2 e
1 1
⇒ =
e e 4 λt
4λt = 1
1
t=
4λ
Q34. (2)
There will be no change in the velocity along x-axis.
So change in momentum
= 2mv sin θ
= 2mv sin 45°
2mv
= = 2mv
2
Q35. (2)
 Energy 
Dimensions of energy density 
 Volume 
ML2 T −2
= = ML−1T −2
L3
 Linear stress 
Dimensions of Young’s Modulus  
 Linear strain 
Stress
= = Force/Area
Strain
MLT −2
= 2
= ML−1T −2
L
Energy density and young’s modulus have same dimensions.
Q36. (3)
As all resistances are in parallel,
2×3=6×i
i=1A
P = i2R = 12 × 5 = 5 watt
Q37. (3)
( x − fy ) A = y
Ax = y (1 + fA )
y A
or =
x 1 + Af
A
10 =
1 + 0.09A
or A = 100
Q38. (3)
Total resistance = (2950 + 50) Ω = 3000 Ω
3
Current passing through galvanometer for full scale deflection = = 1 × 10 −3 A
3000
20 2
Current needed for deflection of 20 divisions = × 10−3 = × 10−3 A
30 3
If R is the resistance required to be put in series then
2
3 = × 10−3 (R + 50)
3
−3
R + 50 = 4.5 × 10
or R = 4450 Ω
Q39. (4)
Heat produced by kettle = Heat absorbed by water
v i t = cm∆t
220 × 4 × t = 4200 × 1 × 80
t = 6.3 min
Q40. (1)
C W − 39
=
100 − 0 239 − 39
For C = 39
39 × 200
W − 39 =
100
W = 117° W
= 4π ∈o .Q × 1022 volt/m
Q41. (2)
Velocity of electromagnetic radiation in the space.
1
v= = 3 × 108 m/s
uo ∈o
Q42. (3)
 π
x = a sin  ωt + 
 6
dx  π
v= = aω cos  ωt + 
dt  6 
umax aω
But v = =
2 2
aω  π
⇒ = aω cos  ωt + 
2  6
 π 1 π
cos  ωt +  = = cos
 6 2 3
π π
ωr + =
6 3
2π π π π
or .t = − =
T 3 6 6
T
or t =
12
Q43. (3)
PV = nRT
Or PV = RT [For one mole]
ρ
Or ρ = RT
M
ρ 1
Or ∝
P T
x 110 + 273 283
⇒ = ⇒ x′ = x
x ′ 10 + 273 383
Q44. (4)
The slope of distance time graph gives the velocity. The slope is maximum at B. Hence maximum
instantaneous velocity will be at B.
Q45. (4)
B.E. =  ZMp + ( A − Z ) Mn − M ( A, z )  × C2
B.E.
or M ( A, Z ) = ZMp + ( A − Z ) Mn −
C2
Q46. (4)
Excitation of electrons in the atoms
Q47. (4) Above Curie temperature a ferromagnetic material become paramagnetic.
Q48. (1)
% age error in measurement of volume.
∂V ∂R
=3
V R
= 3 × 2% = 6%
Q49. (2)
Distance traveled in nth second.
9
Sn = 4 + ( 2n − 1)
2
4 1
= 0 + × ( 2 × 3 − 1)
3 2
2 10
= ×5 = m
3 3
Q50. (2)
NOR Gate
Q51. (2)
MTP is generally considered safe till Ist timester because till then size of foetus is small enough
to be safely removed/aborted without harm to mother.
Cu – T are affective contraceptive because it prevents implantation of Blastula in uterus.
Q52. (1)
Ferns like Adiantum, Equisetum , Dryopteris are not heterosporous
Q53. (3)
Cry 1 is specific endotoxin for cotton boll worm.
Q54. (3)
neutrophils and monocyts are major phagocytic WBC. (Monocytes (= 80%) while Neutrophils are
less).
Q55. (4)
Filiform apparatus has infoldings of Plasmalemma hence, it helps in entry of pollen tube in
synergid.
Q56. (2)
Tear and saliva has Lysozyme which serves as antibiotic by breaking bacterial cell wall.
Q57. (3)Trichoderma Harzianum
They are used as predators to eat soil borne plant pathogens. Thus serves as Biopesticide.
Q58. (3) Amnion
Amnion forms Amniontic sac having Amniontic fluid to prevent desiccation of the embryo and it
also prevents foetus from shock.
Q59. (4) Adaptive radiation
Darwin finches migrated on different nearby islands from Galappagos island and according to
available food they developed divergence in type of beak.
Q60. (3)
World Summit on sustainable development (2002) was held in South Africa.
Q61. (2)
Bacterial blight is a bacterial disease hence, disease free seeds and resistant varieties should be
used.
Q62. (2)
Frankia sp. is symbiotic N2 fixer in root nodule of Alnus sp.
Q63. (2)
Nephridia and malphigian tubules are examples of excretory organs.
Q64. (2)
Lake near village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within few days due to eutrophication viz.
because of lots of fertilizers which caused algal bloom causing lake water green and stinky.
Q65. (3)
During, action potential / depolarization Na+ from extracellular fluid enters intracellular fluid
because Na+ pump opens.
Q66. (4)
In green house gases CFC’s is 14%, methane 20%.
Q67. (2)
Maximum diversity is shown by the area ‘d’ because, it has 12 habitats but maximum diversity.
Also, it don’t have any extinction.
Q68. (1)
Ascaris has pseudocoelom and Metameric segmentation starts from phylum Annelida.
Q69. (4)
CPCB has given data that particulate size of diameter 2.5 or less (µm) is of great harm to human.
Q70. (1)
Pleurome give rise to vascular tissue according to Hanstein’s Dermatogen theory.
Q71. (3)
The two DNA strands run antiparallel because base pairing takes place and base is always
attached to 1′ of sugar.
Q72. (2)
Rod cells has Rhodopsin which gives dark light perception thus, vision in dark light. Cone cells
has Iodopsin which gives colour vision in bright light.
Q73. (1)
Worse classified entire diversity on basis of RNA-genes in 3 parts, Archaebacteria, Eubacteria
and Eukaryotes.
Q74. (4)
Autogamy is self fertilizations (carpel of same flower fertilized by pollen of same flower), but,
geitonogamy is fertilization of carpel of same plant by pollen of other flower but of same plant.
Q75. (1)
Fluid – Mosaic, model gives flip-flop movement rarely due to lipid’s movement but protein can
nerve flip flop.
Q76. (2)
Invertebrates has ventral nerve cord.
Q77. (3)
Haploids allows the expression of recessive gene(s) too.
Q78. (2)
Marine Algae performs 70% of world’s photosynthesis.
Q79. (1)
Stop codons are UAG, UGA and UAA.
Q80. (4)
Parathormone increases blood Ca2+ level.
Q81. (1)
Figure - Structure of vacuole

Q82. (4)
Edible part in pomegranate is juicy Testa.
Q83. (1)
Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbits are modification of stem.
Q84. (2)
Pseudocoelom is found in Nemathelminthes.
Q85. (4)
Hydraulic skeleton is formed in earthworm during burrowing as it lacks endoskeleton.
Q86. (3)
Paecilomyces lilacinus
Has been proved effective for biological control of nematodal diseases in plants.
Q87. (1)
Leaf abscission, best explains the senescence.
Q88. (1)
In small intestine starch is degraded to Disaccharides.
Q89. (3)
Molluscans are generally oviparous and develops via trochophore or veliger larvae.
Q90. (2)
ATP is formed because proton gradient is formed across the inner membrane and as a result 2H+
enters the F1.
Q91. (3)
Adenine and Guanine are purines while, Thymine, uracil and cytosine are pyrimidines.
Q92. (4)
G.M.O. E.Coli gives Humulin.
Q93. (2)
Sporopollenin is found in exine of pollen viz. resistant to enzymatic degradation.
Q94. (1)
DNA is slightly –ve charged hence separated according to size in gel electrophoresis.
Q95. (4)
Pancrease, Testes and ovary are heterocrine glands
Q96. (4)
Weismann gave theory of germplasm.
Q97. (1)
Gnetum, has Angiospermic characters.
Q98. (2)
Quinone is electron acceptor from excited chlorophyll molecule of PS-II.
Q99. (2)
Cl– convert pepsinogen to active pepsin.
Q100. (1)
In tobacco plant first photoperiodism was discovered.
Q101. (4)
BLB of rice is caused by Xanthomonas oryzae.
Q102. (3)
Intercalary meristem is responsible for internodal growth.
Q103. (4)
Klinefelter’s syndrome is Trisomy/Tetrasomy sex chromosomes.
Q104. (4)
Pythium sp. is algal fungi.
Q105. (1)
Starch is osmotically inactive and chemically non-reactive.
Q106. (2)
In antisense technology, complementary RNA sequence blocks the expression of any specific
gene.
Q107. (4)
Hashis changes perceptions, hallucinations.
Q108. (3)
Cockroach has direct respiration by 10 pairs of spiracles.
Q109. (4)
Malonate is competitive molecule to succinic dehydrogenase hence, cause causes competitive
inhibition.
Q110. (2)
Heart-lung machine is used during open heart surgery.
CAT give detailed cross sectional structure of the part of body examined
Q111. (4)
Low moisture content is there in logs hence, decomposers decays it with slow rate.
Q112. (2)
Mg2+ concentration controls attachment / detachment of both sub-units of ribosomes
Q113. (4)
Acidophiles are present in enzyme preparations of modern detergents.
Q114. (4)
Herbicide resistant G.M. crops remains standing in field while, weeds are killed by spray of
herbicide thus, manual labour for weeding is saved.
Q115. (1)
Archaebacteria has –ve supercoiled DNA and lack histones.
Q116. (4)
Temperate deciduous forests has Quercus sp. as dominant species.
Q117. (1)
Bordeaux mixture / Holy water was first developed and used to treat Downy mildew of grapes.
Q118. (4)
If carnivores are removed then definitely there will be increase in deer population. At each
trophic level only ≈ 10% energy is transferred thus, to prevent energy loss generally, food chain
is limited to 3-4 trophic levels.
Q119. (2)
In biodiversity hot spots, there is greater inter-specific competition thus, species has threat of
extinction.
Q120. (3)
Oxytocin causes strong uterine contractions during parturition also, it assist in milk production
and ejection.
Q121. (4)
Synconus of fig is etaerio of achenes.
Q122. (2)
Pea is a non-endospermic seed.
Q123. (4)
Birds has scales on their hind limbs viz. their ancestral character from Reptiles.
Q124. (3)
C4 plants has Kranj anatomy and more no. of chloroplast thus, are more efficient.
Q125. (1)
WBC viz. is concerned with release of histamine and heparin is Basoplil.
Q126. (1)
In embryo sac, egg, synergids and antipodals are haploid cells.
Q127. (4)
out of given choices; Fermentation is the energy releasing processes in which the substrate is
oxidised without an external electron acceptor.
Q128. (4)
Jatropha is used in India as biofuel
Q129. (3)
Vital capacity is total lungs capacity minus residual volume viz. the exchangeable capacity of our
lungs.
Q130. (1)
Cornea is non vascular hence, transplant is never rejected.
Q131. (1)
Menstrual fluid can’t easily clot.
Q132. (1)
False septum/Replum is diagnostic characteristic of Brassicacea (mustard family)
Q133. (3)
Foetal Hb has higher affinity for O2 as it is oxygenated by mother’s blood which has already
oxygenated Hb.
Q134. (3)
In T.S. of cochlea, scala vestibule and Tymphani has perilymph while scala media has Tectoral
membrane and endolymph.
Q135. (1)
In C4 plants primary CO2 fixation occurs in Mesophyll cells due to which Malic acid is formed.
Q136. (3)
Amoebiasis is due to contaminated food and water.
DPT is for Diptheria
ORS is for Cholera
Syphilis is due to Treponema pallidum
Q137. (1)
At end of Meiosis – I secondary spermatocytes are formed (which after Meiosis – II gives
spermatids)
Q138. (1)
Cypsela is fruit of compositae family which develops from bicarpellary, inferior ovary viz. single
seed and dry indehiscent.
Q139. (3)
Cedrus deodara is an Angiospermic tree hence has dependent male and female gametophyte.
Q140. (3)
Golden rice variety has vitamin A gene.
Q141. (4)
Pills prevent ovulation, condoms are physical barrier, vasectomy gives azoospermia while Cu-T
prevents implantation of zygote.
Q142. (1)
Cohesion and adhesion forces occurs in water column due to which rupture and fractionation
don’t occur.
Q143. (4)
In prokaryote one mRNA is translated by several ribosomes.
Q144. (4)
In small isolated tribal population there is decline because they only bred among themselves
(own tribe)
Q145. (4)
Kangaroo rat donot drink water because has use of metabolic water too, it feeds on dry seeds.
Also, it excretes concentrate urine and regulate body temperature without use of water.
Q146. (1)
Glyoxysome is site of glyoxalate cycle. Thus fatty acids are degraded there while germination.
Q147. (4)
Floating ribs are two pairs (4) in human.
Q148. (3)
Post caval vein has pressure difference than diastolic right atrium thus, blood enters right
atrium.
Q149. (4)
Protobionts were unable to reproduce however they showed metabolism.
Q150. (4)
DNA ligase helps to attach antibiotic resistance gene with plasmid vector.
CHEMISTRY
Q151. (3)
Q152. (2)
C3H8 ( g ) + 5O2 → 3CO2 ( g ) + 4H2O ( l )
According to Gay-Lussac’s law of gaseous volume whenever gases react they do so in volumes
which bear a simple ratio to one another and to the volumes of the products of these are also
gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure.
So 1 volume C3H8 will react with 5 volumes of O2
Hence 1 litre C3H8 will react with 5 litre of O2
Q153. (3)
PbO + 2HCl → PbCl2 + H2O
6.5 g 3.2 g
6.5 3.2
Number of moles = 0.029 = 0.0876
222 36.5
So, PbO is the limiting reagent
Hence no of moles PbCl2 formed = no. of moles of PbO = 0.029
Q154. (3)
Thermal stability of hydrides decreases down the group because as the size of the metal cation
increase, stability of hydrides decreases due to the decrease in lattice energy.
−2000
Q155. (3) k1 = 106 e 7
2000
l n k1 = l n1016 −
T
2000
2.303 log k1 = 2.303 log1016 −
T
In the same way
1000
2.303 log k 2 = 2.303 log1015 −
T
2000 1000
So, 2.303 log 1016 − = 2.303 log1015 −
T T
2000 1000
or 2.303 log1016 − 2.303 log1015 = −
T T
2000 − 1000
(
2.303 log1016 − log1015 = ) T
1000
2.303 (16 − 15) =
T
1000
or T=
2.303
Q156. (1) and (2)
Electron gain enthalpy becomes less and less negative as the size of the halogen increases but
electron gain enthalpy of F is less negative than chlorine because due to the smaller size of
fluorine atom electron electron repulsion in fluorine is more hence a part of the energy is used to
overcome this interelectronic repulsion Cl > F > Br > I . Bond dissociation energy of F2 is less
than that of Cl − Cl and even Br − Br because of greater interelectronic repulsion in F2 and it is
in the order Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 .
Q157. (1)
2AB2 ( g ) ‡ˆ ˆˆ ˆ†
ˆˆ 2AB ( g ) + B2 ( g )
1− x x x /2
x x
Total moles 1 − x + x + = 1+
2 2
 
1− x  2 (1 − x )
PAB2 = P= P
x (2 + x)
1 + 
 2
 x  2x
PAB =   P= P
 1 + x /2  (2 + x)
 
 x /2  x
PB2 = P= P
x (2 + x)
1 + 
 2
2
 x   2x  2
 P   P
2 + x 2 + x
Kp = 2
 2 (1 − x )  2
 2+ x  P
 
3
4x P
Kp = 2
Since x is small so it can be neglected.
( 2 + x ) 2 (1 − x ) 
4x 3P
Kp =
2×4
2K p
x3 =
P
1
 2K p  3
x= [Note : Need not solve the only answer can be of cube root and
 P 
cube root is in only one answer]
Q158. (1)
In body centred cubic
4r = 3 a
3a
r=
4
rank =2
3
4  3a 
So volume of spheres = × π ×   ×2
3  4 
4 3 × 3 × 3 a3
= ×π× ×2
3 4×4×4
3 3
= πa
8
Volume of cube = a 3
3/8πa 3
Fraction occupied =
a3
3
= π = 0.68 = 68 %
8
So free space 32%
Q159. (1)
NO2+ > NO2 > NO2−
In NO2+ , N is sp hybridized so bond angle is 180o .
In both NO2 and NO2− , nitrogen is sp2 hybridized but greater the number of unshared electrons
on nitrogen, smaller the bond angle. NO2 has one unshared electron whereas NO2− has two
unshared electrons. So in NO2− the repulsion on the bond pair in NO2− is more hence angle is
less.
Q160. (3)
In SN2 reactions the attack of nucleophile occurs from the back side on the α-carbon (i.e.
carbon carrying the halogen). Hence the presence of bulky substituents on or near α-carbon
atoms hinder the approach of the nucleophile to the α-carbon. Hence greater the steric
hindrance slower is the reaction. So out of all the alkyl halides ethylbromide is the most reactive
in SN2 reactions.
Q161. (2)
Groups having +R effect it attached to benzene ring will increase the reactivity towards
electrophilic attack. Since −OH gp has better +R effect so is the most reactive
towards electrophilic substitution.
Q162. (1) factual
Q163. (2)
Lesser the SRP stronger the reducing agent or higher the SRP value stronger the oxidizing agent.
SRP of Fe3+ + e → Fe2+ Eo = 0.77 V
3− 4−
SRP of Fe ( CN) 6  + e − → Fe ( CN) 4  Eo = 0.35 V
So Fe3+ is the strongest oxidizing agent.
Q164. (1)
+
CH3 − C H − CH = CH2 + H+ → CH3 − C H − C HCH3
| |
CH3 CH3
Q165. (4)
From set I and set II it is clear that the rate of reaction is independent of conc. of Br2 and by
comparing set II and set III, the conc. of H+ is doubled and the rate of reaction is also doubled.
Q166. (1)
Since Ba ( OH) 2 has maximum solubility amongst hydroxides of Gp II so, its salt i.e. salt of
strong acid and strong base will have maximum pH.
Q167. (2)
C5 H12 + 10H2O → 5CO2 + 32H + 32e −
O2 + 2H2O + 4e − → 4OH−  × 8
32 H+ + OH− → H2O
__________________________________
C5H12 + 8O2 → 5CO2 + 6H2O
__________________________________
n = 32e −
∆G = 5 ∆G f CO2 + 6 ∆G of H2O − ∆G of C5H12
o o
∆G o ∆G o
E=− =−
nF 32 × 96500
Q168. (2)
3
K sp = Fe3+  OH− 
3
= ( x )( 3x ) = 27x 4
1 3
if the conc. of OH− is decreased by times, then new conc. becomes x
4 4
3
3 
hence K sp = ( y )  x 
4 
 27 3 
= y x
 64 
But K sp is constant
27 3
27x 4 = x y
64
64x 4
y= = 64 x
x3
So the concentration of Fe3+ will increase by 64 times.
Q169. One mole of MnO4− gains 5e − in acidic medium whereas one mole of Ferrous oxalate loses three
electrons only.
So the no. of moles of MnO4− required for each mole of ferrousoxalate is 3/5 = 0.6
3MnO4− + 24H+ + 5F ++ + 5 C OO−
|
→ 3Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 10CO2 + 12H2O
COO−
i.e. 5 mole of FeC2O4 = 3 mole KMnO4
3
1 mole of FeC2O4 = mole KMnO4
5
Q170. (3)
B.O. of C22− is 3
NO is 2.5
O2− is 1.5
He2+ is 0.5
Q171. (1)
(a) is least stable because of in complete octet. But (b) is more stable than C because in C the
alkyl groups has + inductive effect.
Q172. (4)
∆x = m∆v
So ( m∆v )2 = h/4π
h
m∆v =
4π
1 h
∆v =
2m π
Q173. (4) Factual
Q174. m∆v = 1 × 10 −18
1 × 10 −18 1 × 10 −18
∆v = =
m 9 × 10 −28
9 −1
∆v = 1 × 10 cms
Q175. (4) Factual
Q176. ∆Hf HCl
1
= BE of HCl −
2
[ BE of H2 + BE of Cl2 ]
1
= 431 −
2
[ 434 + 242]
1
= 431 − [ 676]
2
= 431 − 338
= 93 kJ
H2 → 2H ( g ) ∆H1 = +434 1/2
Cl2 → 2Cl ( g ) ∆H2 = +242 1/2
HCl → H ( g ) + Cl ( g ) ∆Hs = +43
________________________________________________
1 1
H2 + Cl2 → HCl ∆H4
2 2
________________________________________________
1
∆H4 = ( ∆H1 + ∆H2 ) − ∆H3
2
= 217 + 121 − 431
= 338 − 431 = −93 kJ mol −1
Q177. (4)
Q178. (1)
Natural rubber has cis-configuration.
Q179. (1)
10 −3 + 10 −4 + 10 −5
H+  =
3
10 −3 (1.11)
=
3
= 3.7 × 10 −4
Q180. (2)
Fe (II) 3d 6
Co ( V )
Co 3d7 4s 2 Ti ( III) 3d1 V ( III) 3do
Co ( V )
−
So Co ( OX ) 2 ( OH) 2  has maximum paramagnetism
Q181. (1)
If the equation is reversed then the value of K is inverses of it
1
i.e. K1 =
K
Q182. (3)
Smaller the size of ion greater is the hydration energy so lesser is the ionic mobility.
Q183. (3)
Q184. (1)
Since ng products > ng reactants
So ∆S + ve
Hence ∆H > 0
∆S > 0
Q185. (4)
O
P [ G = −Cl; − OC OR; − OR; − NH2 ]
R − C− G
(i) Greater the difference in the electronegativity of C − G group greater is the ease of
nucleophilic substitution.
(ii) if the group is resonance stabilized than the ease of nucleophilic substitution becomes
difficult hence the order is
O O O O O
P P P P P
R − C − Cl > R − C − O − C − R > R − C − OR > R − C − NH2
Q186. (2)
X ‡ˆ ˆˆ ˆ†
ˆˆ Y + Z
1− x x x
1 − x   x   x 
pX =  P; pY =  P; pZ =  P
 1 + x   1 + x   1 + x 
 x   x 
 P P
1 + x  1 + x  x2
Kp1 = = P1
1 − x  1 − x2
  P
1+ x
A ‡ˆ ˆˆ ˆ†
ˆˆ 2B
1− x 2x
1 − x 
pA =  P
 1 + x  2
 2x 
pB ≡  P
 1 + x  2
2
 2x  2
  P
1+ x 2 4x 2P2
K P2 = =
1 + x  1 − x2
  P
1+ x 2
x 2P1
K P1 9 2 P
= = 1 −2x = 1
K2 1 4x 4P2
P
1 − x2 2
P1 36
= ; P1 : P2 = 36 :1
P2 1
Q187. (4)
Due to increase in nuclear change with increase in atomic number which decreasing the size
making outer e − removal difficult.
Q188. (2)
Since the temperature is constant and kinetic energy is a function of temperature hence kinetic
energy of molecules remains the same.
Q189. (3)
Since B is e − deficient it forms e − deficient bond or hole.
Q190. (4)
Element % Atomic no. Ratio (no. of Simplest-ration
moles) of moles
C 38.7 12 3.2 1
H 9.67 1 9.6 3
O 51.62 16 3.2 1
Empirical formula = CH3O
Q191. (2)
Vol. of 1 mole H2O = 18 cm3
6.02 × 1023 molecules has volume = 18 cm3
18
Volume of 1 molecule =
6.02 × 1023
= 3 × 10 −23 cm3
Q192. (3) Factual
Q193. (1) sp, sp3 , sp2
Q194. (4)
Two cis and trans and each has two isomers (d) and (l)
Q195. (4) Factual
Q196. (2)
because in ketone the α-hydrogen is acidic.
Q197. (4)
Q198. (3)
q and w are not state function.
Q199. (2)
Q CN − is a strong lignand
Q200. (3)
Stronger the acid weaker the conjugate base.

Aipmt 2008 With

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Aipmt 2008 With

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CBSE PMT 2008 SOLUTION

CBSE PRE-2008 (SET-D)

3. zero 4. 1.0 ohm

A thin conducting ring of radius R is given

and 5 are in the following sequence: 3. Co ( C2O4 )3  4. Co ( H2O )6 

Figure - Structure of vacuole

You might also like