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Solver : Nguyen Huu Thanh – CE/1

Question 1)

a)

i) ANS: DEF16 = 1101 1110 11112 = 67578


+) From DEF16 to Binary we convert each digits to binary, ie:
D16 = 11012 E16 = 11102 F16 = 11112
By combination we get the answer.
+) From DEF16 to Octal:
First we have DEF16 = 110 111 101 1112 , so by converting each three consecutive bits
we get the octal value.

ii) ANS: 12345 = 3657


First, 12345 = 1*53 + 2*52 + 3*5 +4 = 19410
Secondly, convert 194 to base 7.
194 : 7 = 27 r 5
27 : 7 = 3 r 6
3 :7=0 r 3
Thus, 12345 = 19410 = 3657

iii) 4.87510 = 100.1112


Firstly, We convert 410 = 1002.
Secondly, We convert .8752 to Binary:
0.875 * 2 = 1.75  1
0.75 * 2 = 1.5  1
0.5 * 2 = 1 1

Hence, 0.87510 = 0.1112. Therefore, 4.87510 = 100.1112

b)The most effective way to solve this kind of problem is to use following chart:
(Just in the draft ^_^ )

A=1

D*=0 Symbol means ‘OR’

B=0

Z*=0 A=1

B=1 Symbol means ‘AND’

C=0

E* = 1 Symbol means ‘if and only if’


i)

ii) From the first condition we have A =1, B = 0 so Z* is asserted.

c) ANS: F = ab’d’ + a’b’c’d

F(a,b,c,d) = *a’b’(c+d’)+’(b+ad)’

= (a+b+c’d)(a’+d’)b’ (DeMorgan’s theorem )

= (ad’+ba’+bd’+c’da’)b’

= ab’d’ +a’b’c’d

Question 2)

a)

i)

LA LB FB FC G1 G2
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0 1 1
0 0 1 1 1 0
0 1 0 0 1 0
0 1 0 1 1 0
0 1 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 1 0
1 0 0 1 1 0
1 0 1 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 1 0
1 1 0 0 1 1
1 1 0 1 1 1
1 1 1 0 0 1
1 1 1 1 0 1

ii)

K-map for G1: K-Map for G2

LA,LB LA,LB
00 01 11 10 00 01 11 10
00 0 1 1 1 00 0 0 1 0
FB,FC 01 0 1 1 1 FB,FC 01 0 0 1 0
11 1 0 0 1 11 0 0 1 0
10 1 0 0 1 10 1 1 1 1

iii)

G1 = LA.LB’ + LB.FB’ + LB’.FB

G2 = LA.LB + FB.FC’
b)
i)

ii) Inputs: X, Y, Z. Outputs: W


Question 3)

a)
i)

ii)
From the the truth table in the right, we easily see that
Qn+1 = Qn XOR T
So we have the circuit for T-FlipFlop :
b)
From Figure Q3c we have:

D = QA’
JB = KB = (QA’ + QC’)’ = QA.QC
JA = [(QB’.QC)’.(QB.QC’)’]’ = QB’.QC + QB.QC’ = QB XOR QC
KA = (QC + QA’)’ = QA.Qc’

So we have the following state transition sequence of the circuit:

QC QB QA D JB = K B JA KA
0 0 0 1 0 0 0
1 0 0 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 0 1 1 0
0 1 1 0 0 1 1
0 1 0 1 0 1 0
1 1 1 0 1 0 0
0 0 1 0 0 0 1
0 0 0

c)

i)

J =K = 1 for all Flip-Flops.


ii)
-Duty Cycle:
For MODE = 0 is 1/3
For MODE = 1 is 1/5

-Minimum Clock period: (Clock Period > N.tpd(FF) )


For MODE = 0: only 2 Flip-Flops is used, so minimum clock period is 2*50n = 100ns.
For MODE = 1: all the 3 Flip-Flops is used, so minimum clock period is 3*50n = 150ns.

Question 4)
a)
i) 3610 -2310
= 001001002 + (-000101112)
= 001001002
+ 111010002
+ 12

000011012 = 1310

No overflow because this is the subtraction of two positive numbers.

ii) -5710 – 8310


= (-5710) +(-8310)
= 110001112
+ 101011012

= 011101002 = 11610

Overflow because the summation of two negative numbers gives us a positive number.

b)
First we compute on the first digit:
310 + 910
= 00112
+ 10012

= 1100 2 > 910 so we need to do a correction by adding 01102 to the result.


11002
+ 01102

= 00102 = 210

So after this step we have a carry = 1;

Secondly, we compute on the second digits.


210 + 110 + 1carry
= 00102
+ 00012
+ 00012

= 01002 = 410. (4<9 so no need for a correction)

So the final result is 2310 + 1910 = 4210.

c)
i) 8 full adders are used and the the delay of 8-bits parallel adder is 8.α

ii) Inputs: A3,..A0; B3,..B0; Cin

Outputs: ∑3,..∑0; Cout

iii) We use the circuit in question 4c(ii).

Inputs: A7,…A0; B7,… B0;

Outputs: ∑7,… ∑0; C8

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