 

AIEEE 2011
BRILLIANT’S MTP 3/QNS
MOCK TEST 3
FOR STUDENTS OF
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE TOWARDS
ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011
MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
Time: 3 hours Maximum marks: 432
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432.
2. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
Part A − MATHEMATICS (144 Marks) − Questions No. 1 to 9 and 13 to 21 and 25 to 30
consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 10 to 12 and 22 to 24 consist of EIGHT (8)
marks each for each correct response.
Part B − PHYSICS (144 Marks) − Questions No. 33 to 49 and 54 to 60 consist of FOUR (4)
marks each and Questions No. 31 to 32 and 50 to 53 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each

SEAL
correct response.
Part C − CHEMISTRY (144 Marks) − Questions No. 64 to 69, 73 to 90 consist of FOUR (4)
marks each and Questions No. 61 to 63 and 70 to 72 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each
correct response.
3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each
question.1/4 (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an
item in the Answer Sheet.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and
Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, page
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination
hall/room
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This
space is given at the bottom of each page

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :________________________________________________

Roll Number: in figures

: in words ___________________________________________________________________

Examination Centre Number:

Name of Examination Centre (in Capitals): ___________________________________________________

Candidate
s Signature: ___________________________Invigilator
s Signature:____________________

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PART A : MATHEMATICS

1. If cos 50° + sin 50° = p, then cos 100° is 5. If p,q are real roots of x2 + px + q = 0
and x2 + px + q + k is non-negative, then
2 2
(1)
2
p (2) p 2
p possible value of k is (q ≠ 0)

2 2 9
(3) 2
p (4)
p 2
p (1) 3 (2) ± 3 (3) 9 (4)

2 2 4 4
2. The ratio of the greatest value of
6. If x − 5 + x − 4 + x − 3 ≤ 6, then
2 − cos x + sin2 x to its least value is
(1) x ∈ [0, 3] (2) x ∈ [3, 5]
1 9
(1) (2)
4 4 (3) x ∈ (3, 5) (4) x ∈ [5, ∞)
13 7. If t7 = 9 in an A.P, then find common
(3) (4) None of these
4
difference if t1t2t7 be least.
3. If sin A + sin 2A = x and cos A + cos 2A = y,
2 2 2 2 33 13
then x  y x y
3 = (1) (2)
20 20

(1) 2y (2) 2x 3
(3) (4) None of these
20
(3) x + y (4) None of these
8. Between 1 and 20, there are 3 numbers
4. Let α, β be the roots of x2 + x + 1 = 0. a, b, c having sum as 25; b, a, 2 are in
Then the equation whose roots are α235 A.P; 18, c, b are in G.P, then ab + c is
and α1010 is divisible by

(1) x2 − x − 1 = 0 (2) x2 − x + 1 = 0 (1) 12 (2) 13

(3) 15 (4) None of these

(3) x2 + x − 1 = 0 (4) x2 + x + 1 = 0

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Questions 9 to 14 are Assertion − Reason type 11. Statement 1: If the vectors 3 i
2 j  k ,

questions. Each question contains two i  3 j
2k and 4 i  λ j  6k
statements: statement 1 (Assertion) and
are coplanar, then λ2 is
statement 2 (Reason). Select the correct
equal to 100.
choice from the following:

(1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; Statement 2: The vectors a , b and c are
statement 2 is not a correct explana- coplanar iff a ⋅ b × c = 0.
tion for statement 1.
12. Statement 1: The foot of perpendicular
(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false. from the point (3, 7, 5) on

(3) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true.

the line r = i  3 j  5k
+ t 3 i  2 j k is (4, 5, 6).
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true;
statement 2 is a correct explanation Statement 2: The foot of perpendicular
for statement 1. from the point c on the line
9. Statement 1: Let f(x) = 2 + cos x for all c
a b
r = a t b is a  ⋅b .
real x. For each real t, b⋅b
there exists a point c in
13. Statement 1: A plane passes through the
[t, t + π] such that f′(c) = 0.
point A(2, 1, − 3). If distance
Statement 2: f(t) = f(t + 2π) for each of this plane from origin is
real t. maximum, then its equation
is 2x + y − 3z = 14.
10. Statement 1: The equation
(x − 1)5 = m (x5 − 1) has 3 Statement 2: If the plane passing
real roots, if 0 < m < 16. through the point A a is
5
at maximum distance from
x
1 origin, then normal to plane
Statement 2: The range of f(x) =
5
x
1 is vector a .
is [0, 16].

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14. Statement 1: If A and B are two inde- 18. If (1 + x) (1 + x2 ) (1 + x4 ) (1 + x8 ) ...

pendent events and if n
∑
r
(1 + x512 ) = x , then n is equal to
P(A) = 0.6 and r=0

P A ∪ B = 0.8,
(1) 127 (2) 255
1 (3) 511 (4) 1023
then P(B) is .
2
19. The domain of the function
Statement 2: If A and B are independent,
1
then P(A ∩ B) = P(A) ⋅ P(B). f(x) = log is
sin x
15. The sum of the digits in the unit place of
(1) R − { − π, π} (2) R − {nπ/n ∈ Z}
all numbers formed with the help of 4, 5,
6, 7 taken all at a time is (3) R − {2nπ/n ∈ Z} (4) (− ∞, ∞)

(1) 132 (2) 143 2x 3x

20. The value of lim 3
2 is
x
(3) 154 (4) 165 x→0

16. Total number of divisors of 12600 is 9 8

(1) log (2) log
equal to 8 9

(1) 48 (2) 60 9
(3) − log (4) log 72
8
(3) 72 (4) 84
log 5  x
log 5
x
21. lim = k, the value
1 1 1 x
x→0
17. The value of 7 2 ⋅7 4 ⋅7 8 , ... ∞ is
of k is

(1) 1 (2) 7 1 2 1 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 5 5 5
(3) 49 (4) 343

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22. If f(x) = (x2 − 4) x3 − 6x2 + 11x − 6 11

7 θ 7
x (2) cos C
+ , then the set of points at which 11 2
1 x
the function f(x) is not differentiable is 11
7 θ 7
(1)
2, 2, 1, 3 (2)
2, 0, 3 (3) sin C
11 2
(3)
2, 2, 0 (4) 1, 3 (4) None of these

d 2
1 1
x 26. The values of k ∈ R for which the follow-

23. sin cot equals
dx 1x ing system of equations x + ky + 3z = 0,
kx + 2y + 2z = 0, 2x + 3y + 4z = 0 admits
1 1 non-trivial solution is
(1) − 1 (2) (3) − (4) 1
2 2
5 5
24. The greatest of the numbers (1) 2, (2) 3,
2 4
1 1 1 1 1 1
2 3 4 5 6 7 5
1, 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 and 7 is (3) 2, (4) None of these
4
1 1
dv k
(1) 2
2
(2) 3
3 27. The solution of  v =
g is
dt m
1 k

t
(3) 7 7 (4) None of these (1) v = Ce
m


mg
k
25. The value of the integral
k
2
t
mg m
(2) v = C

∫
7 e
1
cos θ k
dθ is
9
7 k
1  cos θ
t
mg
m
(3) ve = C

11 k
7 θ 7
(1) tan C (4) None of these
11 2

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28. If 3x + y + λ = 0 is normal to the para- 30. One ticket is selected at random from
2
bola y = − 12x, then λ = 50 tickets numbered 00, 01, 02, ..., 49.
Suppose A and B are sum and product
(1) 98 (2) 99 (3) 100 (4) 102 of digits found on the ticket, then
29. The variance of the data 6, 12, 24, 18, P(A = 6, B = 0) is given by
30 is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 24 (2) 36 49 28 14 7

(3) 48 (4) 72
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PART B : PHYSICS

31. Which one of the following is dimen- at a height h above the tower. The
sionally incorrect ? greatest height reached by the ball is

(1) Inductance L = ML2 T − 2A − 2

(2) Specific resistance ρ = ML3 T − 3A − 2

(3) Magnetic dipole moment µ = M0L2 T0A

(4) Capacitance C = ML2 T − 2A3

32. In an experiment the value of refractive

index of glass was found to be 1.56,
1.53, 1.48, 1.54, 1.55, 1.50, 1.49, 1.51 in
successive 8 measurements. The value 4 5 7 8
of µ in terms of absolute error and (1) h (2) h (3) h (4) h
3 3 3 3
percentage error are
34. A particle of mass m is projected with a
(1) 1.52 ± 0.025, 1.52 ± 2% velocity v at an angle of 45° with the
horizontal. The magnitude of the
(2) 1.52 ± 0.04, 1.52 ± 5% angular momentum of the projectile
about the point of projection when at
(3) 1.53 ± 0.032, 1.53 ± 4%
the maximum height H is
(4) 1.54 ± 0.018, 1.54 ± 2%
3
mv
33. From the top of a tower T, a ball is (1) zero (2)
2g
thrown vertically upwards. When the
ball reaches a distance h below the 3 1
mv 3 2
tower, its speed is double of what it was (3) (4) 2m 2 g H
4 2g

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35. A particle moves in a circle of radius R 37. when P is held at rest by a massless
with a speed v = a s, where s is the thread fixed to the wall is
distance covered and a is a constant.
The acceleration of the particle is

2 4 4 2
a as a a s
(1)  (2) 
2 R 4 2
R

4 2 2
a as a as
(3)  (4) 
3 2 4 3
R R
(1) 7.2 N (2) 6.8 N
Question numbers 36 − 38 are based on the
following paragraph. (3) 6.4 N (4) 6.0 N
A block P weighs 6 N and block Q weighs
12 N. The coefficient of friction between all 38. when P and Q are connected by a light
surfaces in contact is 0.3. The force F flexible cord and passing around a
necessary to drag the block Q to the left with fixed frictionless pulley is
a constant speed

36. when P rests on Q and moves with it is

(1) 8.0 N (2) 8.5 N

(1) 4.0 N (2) 4.5 N (3) 9.0 N (4) 9.5 N

(3) 5.0 N (4) 5.4 N

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39. A solid sphere of mass 900 g and radius
20 cm rolls down on an inclined plane
without slipping and without loss of
energy. The height of the inclined plane
is 0.35 m. The linear speed of the sphere
on reaching the bottom of the inclined
plane will be
(1) 3 m⁄ s (2) 5 m⁄ s
Question numbers 43 and 44 contains
statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four
choices given after the statements, choose
the one that best describes the two
statements.
43. Statement 1: The slope of momentum
versus time graph gives
the acceleration.

(3) 7 m⁄ s (4) 8 m⁄ s Statement 2: Acceleration is the rate of

change of velocity.
40. A point lies at a depth below the
surface of the earth. The value of the (1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is
acceleration due to gravity g is the true, statement 2 is the correct
same as that at a height of 6 km. The explanation of statement 1.
point lies at a depth of (2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is
(1) 9 km (2) 10 km true, statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of statement 1.
(3) 11 km (4) 12 km
(3) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is
41. The excess of pressure inside a spherical
true.
drop of water is 5 times that of another
drop. The mass ratio of the respective (4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is
bubbles is false.
(1) 1 : 125 (2) 1 : 100 44. Statement 1: Transformer cannot work
with d.c. voltage.
(3) 1 : 96 (4) 1 : 80
Statement 2: Transformer is based on
42. In a closed pipe, the first resonance
the phenomenon of
occurs at 30 cm. The length of the pipe,
mutual induction.
at which the third resonance occurs is
(1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is
(1) 80 cm (2) 120 cm
true, statement 2 is the correct
(3) 150 cm (4) 185 cm explanation of statement 1.

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(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is 47. An observer standing on a railway plat-

true, statement 2 is not the correct form receives sounds of frequencies
explanation of statement 1. 2.4 kHz and 1.8 kHz when a train
approaches and recedes from the
(3) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is
observer. Speed of sound in air is
true.
330 m/s. The velocity of the train is
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is (1) 42 ms − 1 (2) 45 ms − 1
false.
(3) 47 ms − 1 (4) 49 ms − 1
45. Three balls coloured black, grey and 48. Two cylinders A and B having pistons
white can withstand hostile conditions contain equal amounts of an ideal
up to 3000°C. The balls are thrown into diatomic gas at 300 K. The piston A is
a furnace where each of them attains free to move while the piston B is held
a temperature of 2500°C. The ball fixed. Same quantity of heat is supplied
which glows brightest is to the gas in each cylinder. The
temperature of the gas in A rises to 35 K.
(1) grey ball
The rise in temperature of the gas in
(2) black ball cylinder B is
(1) 51 K (2) 49 K (3) 47 K (4) 45 K
(3) white ball
Question numbers 49 and 50 are based on the
(4) all the balls will glow with equal following paragraph.
brightness The capacitance of a parallel plate
capacitor is 500 picofarad. Its plates are
46. Starting from the origin, a body vibrates
separated by 1 mm of air and charged to a
1
simple harmonically with a period of s. potential of 1200 V.
6
The kinetic energy will be 75% of total 49. The potential difference with the same
energy after a time charge when doubling the plate
separation is
1 1 1 1
(1) s (2) s (3) s (4) s (1) 1920 V (2) 1960 V
6 4 3 5
(3) 2000 V (4) 2100 V

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50. The energy needed to double the (1) 17 pF (2) 19 pF

separation between the plates is
(3) 21 pF (4) 23 pF
(1) 1.008 × 10 − 2 J (2) 1.208 × 10 − 2 J
54. The temperature at which a hot body
(3) 1.008 × 10 − 4 J (4) 1.208 × 10 − 4 J will emit an electromagnetic wave of
51. The voltage across the electrodes wavelength 5 µm is
of a cathode ray gun is 600 V.
(1) 5000 K (2) 5800 K
The momentum of the electrons is
(me = 9.1 × 10 − 31 kg) (3) 5600 K (4) 5400 K

(1) 17.51 × 10 − 24 kg ms − 1 55. The refractive indices of water and

4 8
(2) 13.2 × 10 − 24 kg ms − 1 glass with respect to air is
3
and
5
(3) 17.51 × 10 − 21 kg ms − 1 respectively. The refractive index of
glass with respect to water is
(4) 13.2 × 10 − 21 kg ms − 1
4 5 6 7
52. A square coil of side 20 cm consists of (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 5 6
50 turns and carries a current of 10 A.
The coil is suspended vertically and the 56. In Young
s double slit experiment using
normal to the plane of the coil makes monochromatic light of wavelength λ,
an angle of 45° with the direction of a fringes are obtained on a screen
uniform horizontal magnetic field of placed at a distance d from the slits.
magnitude 2 T. The magnitude of the When the screen is moved by 60 cm
torque experienced by the coil is towards the slits, the change in fringe
width is 10 − 3 m. The distance between
(1) 20 Nm (2) 18 Nm
the slits d is 0.03 mm. The wavelength of
(3) 16 Nm (4) 14 Nm light used is
53. An experimenter has a coil of 3 mH and
(1) 5500 Å (2) 5000 Å
wants to construct a resonant circuit of
frequency 600 kHz. The capacitance of (3) 4500 Å (4) 4000 Å
the capacitor used in resonant circuit is
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57. In an experiment on photoelectric (1) A transition (2) B transition

effect, the slope of the cut-off voltage
versus frequency of the incident light is (3) C transition (4) D transition
− 15
found to be 4.15 × 10 Vs. The value 59. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g mass in
of Planck
s constant is obtained in the kWh is
experiment is
(1) 10.9 kWh (2) 11.2 kWh
(1) 6.64 × 10 − 34 Js (2) 6.6 × 10 − 34 Js
(3) 11.8 kWh (4) 12.5 × 106 kWh
(3) 6.54 × 10 − 34 Js (4) 6.62 × 10 − 34 Js
60. The number density of electrons and
58. The energy levels of the hydrogen atom holes in intrinsic silicon at a given
of hydrogen element are shown below.
temperature is 4.94 × 1016 m − 3. The con-
A photon of wavelength 630 nm is
ductivity of the silicon is (Mobility of
emitted. This transition corresponds to
electrons µe = 10 − 3 m2V − 1s − 1 and holes
(h = 6.624 × 10 − 34 Js)
µh = 4 × 10 − 4 m2V − 1s − 1)

(1) 10.6 × 10 − 4 Sm − 1

(2) 11.1 × 10 − 6 Sm − 1

(3) 10.6 × 10 − 5 Sm − 1

(4) 11.1 × 10 − 4 Sm − 1

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PART C : CHEMISTRY

61. An electron has a velocity of 300 m sec−1 constant for the reaction
that is accurate to 0.01%. With what 1 N + 3H NH3 is
2 2
accuracy can we locate the position of 2 2

this electron? (Mass of e = 9.1 × 10 − 31 kg, (1) 0.136 atm − 1 (2) 0.0136 atm
− 34
h = 6.625 × 10 Js) (3) 1.36 atm (4) 10.36 atm
(1) 0.00019 m (2) 0.03 m 64. The correct order of hybridization of the
(3) 0.0019 m (4) 0.003 m central atom in the following species
NH3, [PtCl4] − 2, PCl5 and BCl3 is
62. In a fuel cell, hydrogen gas is oxidised
at anode and oxygen is reduced at (1) dsp2, dsp3, sp2 and sp3
cathode as follows.
(2) sp3, dsp2, sp3d and sp2
Anode reaction :
(3) dsp2, sp2, sp3 and dsp3
−
H2(g) + 2 OH → 2 H2O + 2e
(4) dsp2, sp3, sp2 and dsp3
Cathode reaction : 65. What is the half-life of radioactive

O2 + 2 H2O + 4e → 4 OH substance if 87.5% of any given
amount of the substance disintegrates
If 44.8 litres of H2 at STP reacts in in 40 minutes ?
20 minutes, then the average current
(1) 20 min (2) 10 min
produced is
(3) 160 min (4) 13 min 20 sec
(1) 321.66 A (2) 32.166 A
66. What weight of K2Cr2O7 is required to
(3) 300 A (4) 400 A
prepare 500 mL of 0.1 N solution in acidic
63. The ammonia is in equilibrium with a medium ? (M.wt. of K2Cr2O7 = 294)
nitrogen, hydrogen mixture in ratio 1 : 3
(1) 2.45 g (2) 4.5 g
at 400°C and 100 atmosphere pressure
in 24.91 mole present. The equilibrium (3) 14.9 g (4) 98 g

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−1 71.
67. What is the density of CO2 (in gm lit )
at 400 K and exerting a pressure of
−1
0.0821 atm? (R = 0.0821 lit atm mol−1K )

(1) 0.01 (2) 0.11 (3) 2.5 (4) 4.44

68. Units of the rate constants for first and

zero order reactions in terms of
molecularity M units are respectively
In the above reaction (D) is
(1) sec − 1, ML − 1sec − 1
(1) BrCH2 − CH2 − CH2 − F
(2) sec − 1, M

(3) ML, sec − 1, sec − 1 (2) F − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − F

(4) M, sec − 1
(3) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − F
69. A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of N2,
44 g of CO2 and 16 g of CH4. The total (4) CH3 − CH − CH2 − F
pressure of the mixture is 720 mm of Hg.
The partial pressure of CH4 is F

(1) 180 mm (2) 360 mm

72.
(3) 540 mm (4) 720 mm

70. The number of atoms in 100 g of an

FCC crystal with density d = 10 g cm−3
and cell edge as 200 pm is equal to

(1) 3 × 1025 (2) 5 × 1024

(3) 1 × 1025 (4) 2 × 1025 C in the above reaction is

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(1) (2) (1) 2 × 10 − 5 (2) 2 × 10 − 4

(3) 2 × 10 − 3 (4) 2 × 10 − 2

76. The heat of combustion of gaseous

methane (CH4) at constant volume
is measured in a bomb calorimeter
(3) (4) at 298.2 K and is found to be
− 885389 Jmol−1. Find the value of
enthalpy change.
(1) − 630.34 kJ (2) − 890.377 kJ

(3) − 960.3 kJ (4) − 349.23 kJ

73. The vapour pressure of water at 20°C is 77. An arsenious sulphide sol. carriers a
negitive charge. The maximum
17 mm. Calculate the vapour pressure
precipitating power for this sol. is
of a solution containing 3 g of urea
possessed by
(Mol. mass = 60) in 50 g of water at 20°C.
(1) K2SO4 (2) CaCl2
(1) 5.462 mm (2) 16.694 mm
(3) 10.732 mm (4) 8.316 mm (3) Na3PO4 (4) AlCl3
74. The metal which does not form coloured
78. Water is said to be permanently hard
compound is
when it contains
(1) Cr (2) Fe (3) Zn (4) Mn
(1) sulphates of Ca and Mg
75. The H+ ion concentration of a buffer
solution containing 0.2 mole per litre (2) bicarbonates of Mg and Ca
CH3COONa and 1.5 mole per litre
(3) sulphates of Na and K
CH3COOH is (Ka for acetic acid is
(4) carbonates of Mg and Ca
1.8 × 10 − 5 )

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79. In Solvay ammonia process, sodium 82. White lead is

bicarbonate is precipitated due to
(1) basic carbonate of lead
(1) presence of NH3 (2) Pb(OH)2 + Na2CO3

(2) reaction with CO2 (3) Pb(OH)2 + PbCO3

(4) mixture of lead carbonate and lead

(3) low solubility product of sodium oxide
bicarbonate
83. P4O10 is not used to dry NH3 gas
(4) high solubility product of sodium because
bicarbonate
(1) P4O10 reacts with moisture
80. The substance used to impart green (2) P4O10 is not a drying agent
colour to glass is
(3) P4O10 is acidic and NH3 is basic
(1) Cu2O (2) SnO2
(4) P4O10 is basic and NH3 is acidic
(3) Cr2O3 (4) CdS
84. Ammonia on catalytic oxidation gives
an oxide from which nitric acid is
81. In Gold-schmidt alumino thermic process,
obtained. The oxide is
thermite contains
(1) N2O3 (2) NO (3) NO2 (4) N2O5
(1) 3 parts of Fe2O3 and 1 part of Al
85. Chlorine is liberated when we heat

(2) 1 part of Fe2O3 and 1 part of Al (1) KMnO4 + NaCl

(2) K2Cr2O7 + MnO2

(3) 3 parts of Al2O3 and 4 parts of Al
(3) Pb(NO3 )2 + MnO2
(4) 3 parts of Fe2O3 and 2 parts of Al
(4) K2Cr2O7 + HCl

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86. Rearrangement of an oxime to amide

in the presence of strong acid is called
(3)
(1) Aldol condensation

(2) Backmann rearrangement

(4)
(3) Fries rearrangement

(4) Curtive rearrangement

87. The product of following reaction is

88.

B in the above reaction is

(1)
(1) (2)

(2)
(3) (4)

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89. High octave gasoline contains a large 90. The raw material used in making nylon is
proportion of
(1) Adipic acid
(1) branched chain alkanes
(2) Butadiene
(2) cycloalkanes
(3) Ethylene
(3) arenes
(4) Methyl methacrylate
(4) straight chain alkanes

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READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet
(Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. For each incorrect response, one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would be
deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if
no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
5. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except
for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided.
6. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet.
All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test
Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work
.
7. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away
this Test Booklet with them.
8. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave
his/her seat.
10. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer
Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a
candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have
handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates
are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in
the Attendance Sheet.
11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone etc., is
prohibited.
12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of the Board.
13. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
14. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of
papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit
Card inside the examination hall/room.

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