Exin ISO 20000

Exin_CertifyMe_EX0-103_v2011-04-15_120q_By-Eleanor
Number: EX0-103
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 2011-04-15
Exin :EX0-103
Version 2011-04-15
Question : 120
new examples added in this exam that make this exam more easy and understandable
By-Eleanor
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is Problem Management primarily concerned with?
A. Looking at Security Plans

B. Looking at the cause of Incidents
C. Looking at the Change Plan
D. Looking at the Release Strategy
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What is the objective of a Management System?
A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of services

B. To ensure that Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are defined for all IT services
C. To ensure that new services and changes to services will be deliverable and manageable at the agreed
cost and services quality
D. To provide the policies and the framework that is needed for the effective management and
implementation of all IT services
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 3
Which of the aspects listed below is included in ISO/IEC 20000?
A. Customer communication
B. Employee motivation
C. Social responsibility
D. Standard products
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 4
Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. Channeling data to Problem Management

B. Ensuring the process is running effectively and efficiently
C. Following up on Incidents
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Exin EX0-103: Practice Exam
D. Setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 5
Which of the following must be included within the Service Management plan?
A. Configuration Item (CI) type

B. Information security controls
C. Return to normal working
D. Tools as appropriate to support the processes
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 6
Which service changes should be documented in change records?
A. All service changes

B. Formal closure of services
C. Staff recruitment
D. User training
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 7
What is the added value of a service being delivered?
A. You can specifically define the service by means of a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. You do not have the ownership of specific costs and risks in producing the service.
C. You do not have to invest in a process to control it.
D. The outcomes have a lower total cost of ownership than when the value is produced within the customer
organization.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 8
What is accreditation in the context of ISO/IEC 20000?

A. The determination of measurement results using defined procedures on the basis of
documentedrequirements
B. The evaluation of test results to verify compliance with requirements plus confirmation by the
certification body
C. The notification of approved testing and certification bodies with the relevant authority for publication
D. The official recognition by a third party of organizations involved in testing, inspection and certification
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 9
The Service Provider should check that the Service Management objectives and the plan are
beingachieved. Which of the following items is not measured as part of this monitoring, measuring or
review?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Major non-conformities
C. Problems
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 10
Which statement below is not a purpose of Supplier Management procedures?
A. That business transactions between all parties are recorded

B. That information on the performance of all suppliers can be observed and acted upon
C. That it is made clear that the supplier cannot subcontract part of the delivered services to the Service
Provider
D. That the suppliers understand their obligation to the Service Provider
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 11
Who conducts the "first party audit"?

A. An external independent organization

B. Customers of the IT Service Management organization
C. Other persons on behalf of the Customer
D. The IT Service Management organization itself
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 12
What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?
A. The Service Level Plans

B. The Service Management Plans
C. The SLAs with the other parties
D. The SLAs with the customers
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 13
What is mandatory to define in the Incident Management procedures?
A. The escalation of Incidents

B. The implementation of emergency Changes
C. The recording of deficiencies in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. The recording of Problems
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a best practice for Capacity Management?
A. A Capacity plan documenting the actual performance and the expected requirements should be
produced at least annually.
B. Decisions about service provision should be based on cost effectiveness comparisons.
C. The resilience of the infrastructure components should be measured and included in the Capacity plan.
D. The Service Catalog should be maintained and kept up-to-date.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 15
An objective of Capacity Management is to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient
Capacity to meet the current and future agreed demands of the Customer's business needs. What
document is produced to support this objective?
A. Availability Plan
B. Business Resource Plan
C. Capacity Plan
D. Service Management Plan
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 16
Availability and Service Continuity Plans need to be developed and reviewed periodically to ensure that
requirements are met as agreed in all circumstances, from normal operations through to a major loss of
service. What is the minimum level of frequency with which these Plans should be developed and
reviewed?
A. At every change to the business environment

B. At least annually
C. At least bi-annually
D. In accordance with the business needs
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?
A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a
registeredcertification body once a year.
B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it
is being delivered.
D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 18
What is the objective of Service Level Management?
A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of service

B. To ensure a sufficient amount of Capacity has been designated in order to achieve agreed service
levels
C. To ensure that agreed service Availabilitycommittments to customers can be met in all circumstances
D. To establish and maintain good relationships with Customers
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Change Management is the most important of the Control processes.

B. Release Management shall be implemented only after the processes Change Management
andConfiguration Management have become mature.
C. Release Management, Change Management and Configuration Management are Control processes.
D. There shall be an integrated approach to Change and Configuration Management planning.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 20
When a new service is being planned, Service Level Management needs to ensure that existing
performance levels of other IT services will not be unduly impacted. From which process will Service Level
Management require input?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. IT Service Continuity Management
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 21
Which stakeholder will define service level requirements?
A. Customer
B. End user
C. Service Provider
D. Supplier
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is used for the assessment of maturity of organizations?
A. CMMI
B. CobIT
TM
C. ITIL
D. MOF
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 23
What is the purpose of CobiT TM ?
A. To provide a high level process model that organizes a broad range of IT activities
B. To provide a set of detailed practices on how to implement processes and is therefore well suited as a
process implementation tool
C. To provide a certified measurement framework that legally provides proof of meeting the Sarbanes-
Oxley (SOX) requirements
D. To provide a uniform structure to understand, implement and evaluate IT capabilities, performance and
risks
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 24
The quality of a product may be assessed by elements such as its appearance, usefulness and robustness.
Which element can be used to assess the quality of a service?

A. How much the service costs compared to other providers of the service
B. How much the service costs divided by an average of evaluation scores
C. How well the service meets customer and user expectations
D. The number of people purchasing that service
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 25
What is the objective of the Continual Improvement (Act) stage of Planning and Implementing Service
Management, as described in the ISO/IEC 20000 standard?
A. To improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the business

B. To improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the ITIL processes
C. To improve the efficiency and effectiveness of service delivery and management
D. To improve the efficiency and effectiveness of service support
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 26
Which of the following actions should be taken to ensure continual improvement of a Quality Management
System?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions
C. Review the Quality Management System at least annually
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a best practice concerning Information Security Risk assessment?
A. Information Security Risk assessments should be carried out by an external auditor to

maintainobjectivity.
B. Information Security Risk assessments should be performed as a result of the review of every Incident.
C. Information Security Risk assessments should be performed at agreed intervals and be maintained
during Changes.
D. Information Security Risk assessments should be performed once a year.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 28
What should Quality Management Systems encourage organizations to do?
A. To achieve the lowest cost of service provision

B. To achieve the maximum level of service possible
C. To define as many metrics as possible for each process to ensure strong control
D. To define processesthat contribute to customer acceptance of services
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 29
What is a shared concept of both ISO/IEC 27001 and ISO/IEC 20000?
A. Capacity Management
B. Incident Management
C. Information Security Management
D. Release Management
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 30
It is essential that an owner at senior level has overall responsibility for Service Management.
Which of the statements below is a best practice?
A. A senior responsible owner should be assigned as chairman of the Change Advisory Board (CAB).
B. A senior responsible owner should handle all customer complaints to be able to improve
customersatisfaction.
C. A senior responsible owner should ensure resourcing for service improvement activities.
D. A senior responsible owner should haveresponsiblity for Customer Relationship Management.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 31
Which of the following standards was the forerunner to ISO/IEC 20000?
A. BS 1968
B. BS 7799
C. BS 8800
D. BS 15000
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 32
What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability

B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 33
What is the objective of planning and implementing new or changed services?
A. To ensure that all Changes are assessed, approved, implemented and reviewed in a controlled manner
B. To ensure that approved Changes are implemented in the IT infrastructure with acceptable risks for the
current and new IT services
cost and service quality
D. To ensure that standard methods and procedures are used so that Changes can be handled quickly
and with the lowest possible negative impact on service quality
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 34
Who or what should always be informed in case a Release is rejected, delayed or cancelled?
A. Business Relationship Management

B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. the Senior Management representative
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 35
What is required for an implementation of IT Service Management to be successful?
A. A top-down approach whereby the management of the organization strongly and visibly enforces the
implementation
B. Buy-in specifically from the levels in the organization which will be operationally involved in IT Service
Management activities
C. The appointment of a specialist department responsible for the development of the process structures
D. The involvement and commitment of personnel at all levels in the organization from operational staff to
top management
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 36
What should not be part of a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A. Authorization details
B. Escalation and notification process
C. Impact and priority guidelines
D. Lessons learned and improvement actions
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 37
The ISO/IEC 20000 standard requires that a minimum set of service reports is produced. How are these
service reports used?
A. As input to financial management in order to determine charges for the service

B. As the basis for making management decisions and taking corrective actions
C. To present a professional image of the company
D. To compare the performance of the Service Desk with service targets "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." -
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Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 38
What are the key contents of an IT Service Management system?
A. A documented organizational and operational structure

B. A software system for the ticket system
C. A software system to monitor the key performance indicators (KPIs)
D. Systematic processes for ticket recording and follow-up only
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 39
What is the purpose of a Problem review?
A. To prevent computer systems from having too limited disk space so that capacity problems will not
occur
B. To provide expert help on risk assessment for optimization of security procedures
C. To restore the service to normal operating conditions as soon as possible
D. To seek improvements to the process and to prevent recurrence of Incidents or mistakes
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 40
What is part of the policy for Budgeting and Accounting for IT Services?
A. Rules governing the handling of variances against budgets

B. The charging mechanism
C. The costs of the Underpinning Contracts (UCs) over a fixed period
D. The percentage of 'hidden' end-user costs
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 41
Which of the following calculates the number of defects per million opportunities?

A. CobIT TM
B. ITIL
C. MOF
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 42
According to ISO/IEC 20000, what is the minimum frequency for the Service Provider and the Customer to
attend a service review meeting for discussing changes to the service scope?
A. annually
B. monthly
C. only when there is a businessneed to change the service
D. quarterly
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 43
The appointed member of management is only responsible for the co-ordination and management of all
services. Can this person perform internal audits for the delivery processes?
A. No, because as manager he is not competent enough.

B. No, because this person is responsible for all processes and therefore he would audit his own work.
C. Yes, because this person is not responsible for the delivery processes.
D. Yes, because as manager he should have knowledge of performing internal audits.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 44
What can be improved by achieving quality objectives?
A. effectiveness of the service

B. personal satisfaction of the Configuration Manager
C. relationship with interested suppliers
D. relationship with unauthorized parties
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 45
What does an IT service definition include?
A. the use of IT to support the customers business processes

B. the use of IT to support the organizations internal business processes
C. the use of IT to support the business processes of suppliers and partners
D. the use of IT to improve employee satisfaction within the organization
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 46
Which one of the following standards is concerned primarily with security?
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO/IEC 15504
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. ISO/IEC 27001
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 47
Which of the following defines a lifecycle that is split into four quadrants (optimizing, changing, supporting
and operating)?
A. CobIT TM
B. ITIL
C. MOF
D. Six Sigma
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 48
When scoping for ISO/IEC 20000, what is it that will be audited for certification?

A. the ITIL processes in scope

B. the Management System in scope
C. the sections of the standard in scope
D. the services in scope
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 49
Which of the following is within the scope of the requirements of ISO/IEC 20000?
A. Charging for IT Services

B. Information Security Management
C. Operations
D. Service Desk
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 50
Top management needs to ensure that its employees are aware of the relevance and importance of their
activities. What else do all employees need to be aware of?
A. how they can provide policies and a framework for a Management System
B. how they contribute to the achievement of the Service Management objectives
C. how they contribute to the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
D. how they contribute to the total salary reduction
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 51
Which processes should the Plan, Do, Check, Act methodology be applied to?
A. all of the processes in scope of ISO/IEC 20000

B. the Planning & Implementing Service Management process
C. the Requirements for a Management System process
D. those that support business critical services
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 52
What does the concept of "quality" comprise?
A. satisfying customer requirements

B. gaining ISO/IEC 20000 certification
C. execution of Service Level Agreements (SLAs) only
D. maximizing utilization of personnel capacity
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 53
What is according to ISO/IEC 20000 a required part of the planning for new or changed services?
A. establishing a good relationship with the Customer

B. service acceptance criteria
C. setting up a process to deal with contractual disputes
D. the process for identifying, measuring, reporting and managing improvement activities
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 54
What does the standard explicitly recommend to be implemented with Configuration Management?
A. Change
B. Change and Release
C. Change and Security
D. Release
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 55
The success and failure of Releases shall be measured. What is included in these measurements?
A. the frequency and types of Releases

B. the Incidents related to a Release in the period following a Release
C. the Release dates
D. the Request for Change (RFC)
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 56
What services can be left out of the Service Catalogue?
A. incidental services that are seldom delivered

B. network-related services
C. services that are delivered to less then 10% of the Customers
D. no services
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 57
According to the ISO/IEC 20000 standard it is important that a process exists to deal with contractual
disputes with suppliers. Which process is responsible for the definition of this process?

B. Contract Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Supplier Management
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 58
What triggers a re-test of the Availability and Service Continuity plans?
A. a major change to the business environment

B. a major disaster having occurred
C. significant periods of unplanned non-availability
D. six months having passed since the last test
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 59
Security controls shall be documented. What will the controls be related to?
A. locations
B. risks
C. services
D. staff
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 60
If the service provider believes the service levels will not be met for an incident, when shall a customer be
informed of this?
A. After the breach

B. Before the breach
C. During service reporting
D. Never
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 61
Problem Management is responsible for carrying out trend analysis of Incident volumes and types.
What is the reason for this?
A. to be able to charge to the correct users of the service

B. to be able to provide reports to management
C. to prevent repetitive occurrence of Incidents
D. to provide input to the Capacity Database
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 62
During an audit, evidence is required for Service Management policies, plans and procedures.
Who should ensure that this evidence is available?
A. the Auditor
B. the Business Relationship process owner
C. theSenior responsible owner
D. the Service Level Manager
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 63
While planning for service improvements, what is an important best practice to consider?
A. Service improvement targets should be measurable, linked to business objectives and documented in a
plan.
B. The progress of service improvement should be discussed at least weekly in the steering committee.
C. The progress should be monitored closely by an independent project manager to maintain objectivity.
D. The service improvement targets should not change until the target is reached, or else no consistency is
maintained.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 64
What should planning for a new or changed service consider?
A. a complete review of all recent security breaches

B. Known Errors to file systems
C. the existing service levels
D. verification that the appropriate level of testing is completed
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 65
Part of the Configuration Management process is about Configuration identification. What should be
included as an attribute of a managed Configuration Item (CI)?
A. Incidents
B. Known Errors
C. Licenses
D. Requests for Change (RFCs)
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 66
All service changes should be reflected in Change Management records. Which of the aspects below is an
example of a service change, that needs to be reflected in a Change record?
A. a formal closure of services

B. a major Incident
C. a Service Level Agreement failure
D. an identified Problem
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 67
Customer satisfaction measurement is an important activity in the Business Relationship Management
process. What is the objective of Customer satisfaction measurement?
A. to enable the Service Provider to compare performance with the Customer satisfaction targets and
previous surveys
B. to gather information about potential new services that might be interesting for the end users of the
services
C. to optimize the resolution processes so that service levels are exceeded
D. to reduce Incidents during the service delivery process
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 68
How should the requirements for Service Continuity and Availability be identified?
A. This should be calculated based upon historical data for major Incidents and their consequences for the
organization.
B. This should be done on the basis of Customer satisfaction investigations, so that the real user need can
be clearly identified.
C. This should be identified based upon the business priorities, Service Level Agreements (SLAs) and
assessed risks.
D. This should be made up from Service requirements and Service Level Agreements (SLAs) if available.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 69
Where are agreements regarding Service Delivery and its relationship to Security Management recorded?
A. in a Capacity Plan
B. in a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
C. in a Definitive Software Library (DSL)
D. in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 70
When should the final closure of an Incident record be completed?
A. when all relevant information for classification and routing has been entered
B. when the Incident has been dispatched outside the Service Desk department
C. when the Incident is solved and normal operation is restored
D. when the initiating user has been given the opportunity to confirm that the service is restored
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 71
Who has a responsibility in continual improvement?
A. the customer
B. all employees
C. Quality experts only
D. Management only
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 72
What is a benefit to an organization when the services are delivered according to ISO/IEC 20000?
A. The environmental needs of the employees in the organization are well looked after.
B. The organization becomes morecustomer focused.
C. The organization behaves in a socially responsible way.
D. The organization hasless suppliers to deal with.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 73
What purpose does implementation of a Quality Management System as per ISO/IEC 20000 serve?
A. It allows the suppliers to have full visibility of the organization's internal processes.
B. It defines specific Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) upon which service performance can be
assessed.
C. It forces the organization to adopt a hierarchical management approach.
D. It provides a guideline for the Quality Management measures that must be taken to implement quality
policy in an organization.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 74
Which of the following is true of process descriptions?
A. They express the level of compliance with the requested quality characteristics.
B. They represent a complete set of monitoring options.
C. They describe vertical and horizontal escalation options.
D. They complement descriptions of structural and organizational roles and responsibilities.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 75
Which of the following is an ISO/IEC 20000 requirement relating to the service management plan?
A. it must be available in at least one hard copy and approved

B. it must include the documented procedures specified by the standard
C. it must include the scope of the organization's service management plan
D. It must never include any know-how of the organization
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 76
The Relationship processes describe the relationships with the business and with the suppliers.
What should the Relationship processes ensure?
A. that all parties understand the business needs, responsibilities and obligations
B. that the business and suppliers are directly informed of Major Incidents
C. that the service levels for all services are consistent in the supply chain
D. that there is a frequent contact between the suppliers and the business to resolve dissatisfaction issues
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. The Relationship processes cover Supplier Management and Business Relationship
Management, and together they should ensure that the business drivers of the customer are understood
and that the responsibilities and obligations of all parties are understood and documented.
B. Incorrect. The process for a Major Incident should include communication across all areas involved in
resolution as well as to the customers affected. However, this is managed within the Incident Management
process and is the responsibility of a nominated manager of the Major Incident. It is therefore outside of the
scope of the Relationship processes. C. Incorrect. It is not necessary for the services levels to be consistent
across all suppliers, and in fact it is unlikely that this will be the case. It is however necessary that supplier
service levels are aligned with those of the business, so that the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) agreed
with the customer can be met.
D. Incorrect. The business should not have direct contact with the suppliers. The service provider is
responsible for managing the suppliers to ensure the quality of the services provided to the business.
QUESTION 77
Why are processes required?
A. to be able to define quality objectives in a structured manner

B. to ensure that service issues never arise
C. to provide consistency in the output from activities
D. to satisfy the needs of major outsource providers
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The processes should support the quality objectives. B. Incorrect. Service issues are a part of
day to day life; processes will help to minimize their impact.
C. Correct. A predictable approach is required.
D. Incorrect. Touch points with suppliers are needed to demonstrate end to end quality control.
QUESTION 78
B. The organization becomes more process focused and thereby more efficient.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The ISO/IEC 20000 standard is driven by the business needs of the customer, not the
environmental needs of the employees of the organization. B. Correct. ISO/IEC 20000 is a process-based
standard. The service management processes covered in the standard deliver the best possible service to
meet a customer's business needs within agreed resource levels.
C. Incorrect. The ISO/IEC 20000 standard focuses on meeting the business needs of the customer via a
process-based approach. The social behavior of the organization is not considered.
D. Incorrect. Compliance to the ISO/IEC 20000 standard will ensure that suppliers are effectively managed,
however delivering services according to ISO/IEC 20000 does not mean that there are less suppliers to
deal with.
QUESTION 79
The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) methodology can be applied to all ISO/IEC 20000 processes.
What does the Act phase of this methodology cover?
A. establishing the objectives and processes necessary to deliver results in accordance with Customer
requirements and the organization's policies
B. implementation of the processes
C. monitoring and measuring processes and services and reporting the results
D. taking the necessary actions to continually improve process performance "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." -
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This action is taken during the Plan phase of the methodology. B. Incorrect. This action is
taken during the Do phase of the methodology. C. Incorrect. These are the actions taken during the Check
phase. D. Correct. This action is taken during the Act phase of the methodology.
QUESTION 80
An approach to developing and implementing a Quality Management System consists of several steps.
Which of the following is not a necessary step?
A. agreeing to the quality policy and objectives with the Change Manager
B. determining and providing the resources necessary to attain the quality objectives
C. determining the needs and expectations of Customers and other interested parties
D. establishing methods to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of each process
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. The quality policy and quality objectives need to be agreed with more people, not only with the
Change Manager.
B. Incorrect. This is a step involved in developing and implementing a Quality Management System.
C. Incorrect. This is a step involved in developing and implementing a Quality Management System.
D. Incorrect. This is a step involved in developing and implementing a Quality Management System.
QUESTION 81
What is the primary purpose of analyzing Change records?
A. to be able to open a new Problem record, so proactive identification of Incidents is possible

B. to check if related Incident records are adequately closed
C. to detect increasing levels of Changes and emerging trends
D. to provide input to the Service Reporting process
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:

A. Incorrect. Problem records are opened based upon Incident analysis. B. Incorrect. To check if Incident
records are adequately closed, Incident records shall be analyzed.
C. Correct. Analysis of Change records allows for trend identification. D. Incorrect. The purpose of
analyzing Change records is to detect increasing levels of Changes and emerging trends.
QUESTION 82
Personnel should be competent on the basis of appropriate education and experience. Which of the
following is a best practice relating to competence?
A. Appropriate records of education, training, skills and experience need to be maintained.

B. At least two employees should be suitably trained for each role.
C. Employees should have at least a relevantbachelors degree.
D. Personnel should all have a relevant Security training according to ISO/IEC 27002.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. This is a best practice according to the standard. B. Incorrect. This is relevant to availability of
resources, however not a best practice for competency.
C. Incorrect. A bachelors degree is not a requirement, relevant training for the role is. D. Incorrect. This is a
specific training for Security, but not a best practice for competency in general.
QUESTION 83
Which standard describes the fundamental aspects of Quality Management Systems?
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO/IEC 15504
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. ISO/IEC 27001
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. ISO 9000 is part of a family of standards for Quality Management Systems. B. Incorrect. ISO/
IEC 15504 is the Process Assessment standard. C. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 20000 is the IT Service
Management standard focused on the IT Service Management System.
D. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 27001 his is the Security Management standard focused on the Security
Management System
QUESTION 84
What is the objective of the Service Continuity and Availability Management processes?
A. to ensure agreed effective communication towards Customers

B. to ensure that agreed levels of service commitments to Customers can be met in all circumstances
C. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to Customers can be met in all
circumstances
D. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to providers can be met in all
circumstances
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Effective communication is not the objective of the process Service Continuity and Availability
Management. It is more relevant to Service Reporting. B. Incorrect. Managing levels of service is the
objective of the Service Level Management process.
C. Correct. This is the objective of the Service Continuity and Availability Management processes. D.
Incorrect. Service Continuity and Availability Management is a process between a supplier and a Customer.
Not between a supplier and a provider.
QUESTION 85
A group of activities within Release Management is roll-out, distribution and installation. What should be
ensured as part of these activities?
A. Changes are scheduled based upon priority and risk.

B. Contingency and back-out plans are available.
C. Redundant products, services and licenses are decommissioned.
D. The Release is tested to the satisfaction of the Customers.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This is part of Change Management as opposed to Release Management. B. Incorrect. This is
part of the documentation procedure, not of the roll-out, distribution and installation.
C. Correct. This is a best practice according to the standard.
D. Incorrect. This is part of Release verification and acceptance.
QUESTION 86
Top management has to provide evidence of its commitment to developing, implementing and improving its
Service Management capability within the context of the organization's business and Customers'
requirements. What is the best way that management can make this visible?
A. by outsourcing Change Management
B. by taking disciplinary action against underperforming employees
C. by taking part in the planning of new IT services
D. through leadership and actions
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Outsourcing Change Management is insufficient evidence to show top management
commitment.
B. Incorrect. This is not sufficient action to ensure that commitment from top management is visible.
C. Incorrect. Taking part in the planning of new services is insufficient action to ensure that commitment
from top management is visible.
D. Correct. Top management can make their commitment visible by showing strong leadership and taking
firm actions.
QUESTION 87
Which of the following is used as a set of guidance materials for IT governance?
A. CobITTM
B. ISO 9000
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. MOF
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. CobiTTM is ISACA's guidance for IT governance. B. Incorrect. ISO 9000 is the generic Quality
Management System standard. C. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 20000 is the IT Service Management standard. D.
Incorrect. MOF is the service management framework from Microsoft.

QUESTION 88
What is the objective of IT Service Management?
A. to provide critical services to business customers

B. to provide guaranteed service levels against business requirements
C. to provide management of services to meet business requirements
D. to provide services to the maximum level to the business
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The customer services will be more than critical services. B. Incorrect. The services are not
guaranteed, the service is simply being provided. C. Correct. The focus for IT Service Management needs
to be on agreed business requirements. D. Incorrect. The customers may not require "maximum" levels.
QUESTION 89
To which process shall Problem Management ensure that up-to-date information on Known Errors and
corrected Problems is available?
A. all ISO/IEC 20000 processes

B. Availability Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. According to the standard Problem Management shall make this information available to the
Incident Management process, not to all ISO/IEC processes. B. Incorrect. According to the standard
Problem Management shall make this information available to the Incident Management process.
C. Incorrect. According to the standard Problem Management shall make this information available to the
Incident Management process.
D. Correct. Problem Management shall make this information available to the Incident Management
process, to allow for Incident matching.
QUESTION 90
Which type of event or activity can trigger a service Change, which would need to be catered for in the
Service Management plan?

A. Major Incident
B. Service improvement activities
C. System Lifecycle Management
D. Urgent Change
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This is an event within a process, the process is designed to handle these events, and so it
does not affect the Service Management plan. B. Correct. Improving the service implies changes to the
processes and service and consequently affects the Service Management plan.
C. Incorrect. System Lifecycle Management manages the lifecycle of IT systems; this does not affect the
Service Management plan.
D. Incorrect. This is an event within a process. The process is designed to handle these events, and so this
does not affect the Service Management plan.
QUESTION 91
Why is it important that reviews are conducted at regular intervals during the Check phase of the Plan-Do-
Check-Act (PDCA) methodology?
A. to be able to allocate roles and responsibilities

B. to be able to define the objectives and requirements that are to be achieved by Service Management
C. to be able to establish the Service Management policy, objectives and plans
D. to determine whether the Service Management requirements are effectively implemented and
maintained
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This is a part of implementing the Service Management plan. B. Incorrect. This is a part of the
Service Management plan. During the Check phase it is important to review if the objectives are being
achieved.
C. Incorrect. This is a part of Management responsibility. D. Correct. This is a part of the standard with
regard to the Check phase.
QUESTION 92
What is the certification audit primarily based on?

A. personnel records
B. process descriptions
C. reports by certified financial auditors
D. specifications
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 20000 is a process-based standard. Although various records and documents may be
used as evidence in a certification audit, process-related documents (e.g. process descriptions) will form
the basis of the evidence. B. Correct. ISO/IEC 20000 is a process-based standard. The certification audit
will be primarily based upon process-related documentation (such as process descriptions) which can be
used to assess the range of processes covered in the standard. C. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 20000 is a process-
based standard, and therefore process-related documents (e.g. process descriptions) will form the basis of
the evidence. Reports by certified financial auditors will provide relevant evidence to audit Budgeting and
Accounting for IT Services, but will not provide information across all processes. D. Incorrect. ISO/IEC
20000 is a process-based standard. Although various records and documents may be used as evidence in
a certification audit, process-related documents (e.g. process descriptions) will form the basis of the
evidence.
QUESTION 93
What is the correct way to make a change to a contract as a result of a major review of an authorized
contract?
A. through the Business Relationship Management process

B. through the Change Management process
C. through the Customer representative
D. through the Supplier Management process
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The Business Relationship Management process is responsible for setting up service review
meetings to discuss changes to the service scope, SLA , contract etc. Changes to the contract(s) resulting
from these meetings will be subject to the Change Management process. B. Correct. Any changes to the
contract shall be subject to the Change Management process. C. Incorrect. These representatives will be
involved via other processes (e.g. Business Relationship Management process).
D. Incorrect. Supplier Management is responsible for having a process in place for a major review of the
contract. Any changes to the contract shall be subject to the Change Management process.

QUESTION 94
Targets for resolution should be based on priority. When scheduling Incident or Problem resolution, which
of the following should not be taken into account?
A. the available skills

B. the competing requirements for resources
C. the effort/cost to provide the method of resolution
D. the number of previously reported Incidents for the particular Configuration Item (CI)
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This is a relevant aspect for scheduling Incident or Problem resolution. B. Incorrect. This is a
relevant aspect for scheduling Incident or Problem resolution. C. Incorrect. This is a relevant aspect for
scheduling Incident or Problem resolution. D. Correct. This is not relevant when scheduling resolution. It is
relevant when identifying Problems.
QUESTION 95
What is a responsibility of the Service Provider with regard to Supplier Management as defined in ISO/IEC
20000-1:2005?
A. to ensure that a process exists for the procurement of suppliers

B. to ensure that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with suppliers are aligned with SLAs of the business
C. to ensure that subcontracted suppliers meet contractual requirements in all circumstances
D. to ensure that supplier processes and procedures are defined where outsourced
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This is outside the scope of the standard. B. Correct. A focus on end-to-end Service
management is essential plus it is required by the standard.
C. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Lead Suppliers. D. Incorrect. The Service Provider needs to
retain management control, but does not define the supplier processes.

QUESTION 96
What details should be recorded as a baseline prior to implementing a plan for service improvement?
A. backlog of changes for the service

B. number of staff involved
C. service quality and levels
D. time taken to operate the process
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This may be one of the measures if backlog of changes is to be reduced but there may be
other details too.
B. Incorrect. This may be one of the measures if staff numbers are to be improved but there may be other
details too.
C. Correct. The standard recommends the collection of service quality and levels as a baseline so that
actual improvement can be measured.
D. Incorrect. This may be one of the measures if time taken is to be improved but there may be other
details too.
QUESTION 97
What is SixSigma®?
A. It is a quality instrument to measure defects in process outputs.

B. It is a six step maturity model to improve the capability of business processes.
C. It is a standard that is recently developed for improvement of IT processes.
D. It is a structured, statistically based approach to process improvement.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. It is not only a quality instrument, it encompasses an improvement methodology.
B. Incorrect. It is not a maturity model.
C. Incorrect. It is developed in the 80's for general business processes.
D. Correct.
QUESTION 98
How should the Deming cycle be used?

A. as a model for continual improvement

B. as a model for customer orientation
C. as a model to be used during the design phase of the service
D. as a model to calculate the costs of service improvement
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. This is the focus of the cycle.
B. Incorrect. The focus of the cycle is on continual improvement and not specifically customer orientation.
C. Incorrect. The model can be used during the design phase, but the focus is on continual improvement
during all phases.
D. Incorrect. Cost models as part of budgeting and accounting would do this.
QUESTION 99
What is the definition of Availability?
A. a record containing details of which Configuration Items (CIs) are affected and how they are affected by
an authorized Change
B. a snapshot of the state of a service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
C. any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes or may cause an
interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of that service
D. the ability of a component or service to perform its required function at a stated instant or over a stated
period of time
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This is the definition of a Change record.
B. Incorrect. This is the definition of a Baseline.
C. Incorrect. This is the definition of an Incident.
D. Correct. This is the definition of Availability.
QUESTION 100
New or changed services need to be accepted before being implemented into the live environment. What
shall be done after a new or changed service has been implemented?
A. A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is held comparing actual outcomes against those planned.
B. An approach needs to be defined for interfacing to projects that are creating or modifying services.
C. Nothing additional: the new or changed service goes into Business As Usual and will be managed as a
normal service.
D. The manner in which the Change shall be reversed or remedied if unsuccessful needs to be defined.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. This clause is part of the standard.
B. Incorrect. This is part of Plan Service Management (Plan), and not relevant after new or changed
services have been implemented.
C. Incorrect. According to the standard a PIR is a necessity. Doing nothing additional is no option. D.
Incorrect. This clause is part of Change Management. And this should already be in place or defined before
implementing.
QUESTION 101
What is the recommendation with regard to the implementation of an emergency Change?
A. Only the senior manager should authorize emergency Changes.

B. The Change process should be completely bypassed.
C. There is a separate process for emergency Changes.
D. Where possible the Change process should be followed.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The authorization of the emergency Change is part of the process and there is no
recommendation about who does this.
B. Incorrect. It is not recommended to bypass the whole process although some activities may be bypassed
and covered later.
C. Incorrect. There is a requirement for a separate policy for emergency Changes but not a
recommendation for a separate process.
D. Correct. It is recommended that the Change process should be followed where possible although any
activities bypassed should be undertaken as soon as possible.
QUESTION 102
For which type of organizations is ISO/IEC 20000 appropriate for use?
A. for organizations to confirm that all of the ITIL® guidelines have been implemented
B. for organizations which need to demonstrate alignment to customer requirements "Pass Any Exam. Any
Time." - www.actualtests.com 36
C. for organizations wishing to certify their services
D. for tool vendors to specify the Service Provider's processes
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. ITIL® is much deeper than ISO/IEC 20000 therefore it will not confirm that all of ITIL® has
been implemented.
B. Correct. This is referenced within the scope of the standard. C. Incorrect. It is the management system
that gets certified not the services. D. Incorrect. Service Providers specify their processes based upon ISO/
IEC 20000 and ITIL®.
QUESTION 103
Any organization may be impacted by legislative or regulatory change in the future. Where should this be
covered?
A. in a Change request
B. in the Business Relationship Management process
C. in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. in the Service Management plan
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. A legislative or regulatory change may result in a Change request once the change happens,
but the Service Management plan is the place to anticipate such triggers. B. Incorrect. The Business
Relationship Management process is likely to gather the information about such changes but the Service
Management plan is the place to anticipate such triggers. C. Incorrect. The Service Level Agreement may
be impacted by such changes once they happen but the Service Management plan is the place to anticipate
such triggers. D. Correct. The Service Management plan should cover Service Management processes and
service changes triggered by events such as these.
QUESTION 104
What level of Capacity is targeted by Capacity Management?
A. sufficient Capacity to meet agreed current and future demands

B. sufficient Capacity to meet all current and future demands
C. sufficient Capacity to meet all development and operational requirements
D. sufficient Capacity to meet current demands only
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. The objective is to ensure the service provider has sufficient Capacity to meet the current and
future agreed demands of the Customer's business needs. B. Incorrect. There is no objective to meet all
demands but to meet agreed demands. C. Incorrect. There is no specific mention of development and
operational requirements. D. Incorrect. The objective is to provide sufficient Capacity to meet current
demands but also agreed future demands.
QUESTION 105
What does a quality policy aim to define?
A. the formally expressed quality intentions and direction of an organization

B. the legal obligations that the organization must fulfill
C. the requirements of ISO/IEC 20000
D. the requirements of the customer as stated in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. A statement defined to deliver focus to the organization. B. Incorrect. The document will record
any policy statements pertinent to the obligations but not the obligations themselves.
C. Incorrect. These detail the needs of the Quality Management System, not of the policy. D. Incorrect.
These would provide input to the definition of the policies but these would not be the policies themselves.
QUESTION 106
Which audit is conducted by, or on behalf of, the organization itself for internal purposes and can form the
basis for an organization's self-declaration of conformity?
A. First party audit

B. Second party audit
C. Third party audit
D. Fourth party audit
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:

A. Correct. A first-party audit is conducted for internal purposes. B. Incorrect. A second party audit will be
conducted by Customers of the organization or by other persons on behalf of the Customers.
C. Incorrect. The third party audit will be conducted by external independent organizations. D. Incorrect. The
fourth party audit is not a known concept.
QUESTION 107
In planning to implement Service Management, what does the plan need to say regarding tools according to
ISO/IEC 20000-2:2005?
A. The plan defines the tools as appropriate to support the processes.

B. The plan details the effects of new technologies and techniques on capacity.
C. The plan does not state any tools requirements.
D. The plan lists how every individual process is supported by a tool.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. If tools are used to support a process, there is a need to define them. B. Incorrect. This is a
requirement of Capacity Management (6.5c) and not of the plan to implement Service Management.
C. Incorrect. The plan does require that tools are defined if used. D. Incorrect. There is no requirement that
every individual process must be supported by a tool.
QUESTION 108
Why is a scope statement for ISO/IEC 20000 important?
A. It defines what the management system has been certified against

B. It details all of the companies that have been certified
C. It details all of the services that have been certified
D. It identifies which processes have been excluded from the scope
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. The scope statement shows what the management system was tested against in order to award
certification.
B. Incorrect. Only one company can be awarded a certificate (single legal entity). C. Incorrect. It is the
management system that is being certified not the services. D. Incorrect. All processes within the scope of
the standard must be audited.

QUESTION 109
Where would an IT service for the customer normally be defined?
A. in the IT Framework
B. in the Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
C. in the Service Catalog or the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. in the Service Report
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The IT Framework provides a structure for service management but would not define the
service itself.
B. Incorrect. The OLA would define a support arrangement behind the prime customer service. C. Correct.
The Service Catalog or the SLA would define the service for the customer. D. Incorrect. The Service Report
would provide details of service performance not define the service.
QUESTION 110
What is required to be included in Release Management procedures according to ISO/IEC 20000?
A. the authorization and implementation of emergency Changes

B. the investigation and prevention of Security Incidents
C. the recording of all reported Incidents
D. the updating and changing of configuration information and Change records
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This is part of the Change Management procedures. B. Incorrect. This is part of the
Information Security Management procedures. C. Incorrect. This is part of the Incident Management
procedures. D. Correct. According to the standard this is a requirement. Release management procedures
shall include the updating and changing of configuration information and Change records.
QUESTION 111
What should planning for new or changed services include?

A. budgets and staff resources

B. major non-conformities to all Underpinning Contracts (UCs)
C. recent Problems and Known Errors in the desktop environment
D. trends in Capacity growth of the current applications
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. When planning new or changed services it should be considered how this affects the budget
and workload.
B. Incorrect. Major non-conformities to all Underpinning Contracts are not relevant to planning for new or
changed services.
C. Incorrect. Recent Problems and Known Errors in the desktop environment have normally no relation to
planning for new or changed services.
D. Incorrect. This indicates the Capacity growth for current applications, it does not need to provide any
relevant information for new or changed services.
QUESTION 112
What is required to be included in proposals for new or changed services according to ISO/IEC 20000?
A. an updated Operational Level Agreement

B. cost, organizational, technical and commercial impact
C. the policies, plans and procedures of each process or set of processes
D. the Service Management plan
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. This is not relevant.
B. Correct. This is part of the standard.
C. Incorrect. Documenting these documents is part of Do, revising is part of Act (in de PDCAmethodology ).
This is no part of the proposals for new or changed services. D. Incorrect. This plan is much broader than
only new or changed services.
QUESTION 113
What purpose can the ISO/IEC 20000 standard serve?
A. It defines specific Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) upon which service performance can be
assessed.
B. It defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit.
C. It helps to decide on the requirements that need to be verified within the scope of a supply agreement.
D. It provides a yardstick for the design of a Total Quality Management System.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The standard requires that service performance is assessed by monitoring and reporting
against service level targets. However, it does not define specific KPIs, as these will differ depending upon
the situation (organization, services, agreed targets etc). B. Correct. The Specification (Part 1) of the
standard defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit.
C. Incorrect. The requirements need to be driven by the business needs of the customer, not by the
standard. The standard can help to ensure that suppliers are managed towards the provision of quality
services.
D. Incorrect. This is not the purpose of the ISO/IEC 20000 standard. The Specification (Part 1) of the
QUESTION 114
Why is it important for Service Providers to provide documents and records?
A. It is part of the requirements (evidence) to become ISO/IEC 20000 compliant.

B. to be able to uniquely identify and record all Configuration Items (CIs) in the Configuration Management
Database (CMDB)
C. to ensure effective planning, operation and control of Service Management
D. to ensure employeesare aware of the relevance and importance of their work activities
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. Producing documents should never be a goal solely to become ISO/IEC 20000 compliant.
B. Incorrect. This is part of Configuration Management. C. Correct. To manage Service Management,
documents and records are needed. As a result, the Service Provider has evidence that it is in control.
Producing documents should never be a goal solely to become ISO/IEC 20000 compliant.
D. Incorrect. This is part of competence, awareness and training and is not relevant to documentation.

QUESTION 115
Who should be recommended to support the Senior Responsible Owner in his/her responsibility for the
delivery of the management system?
A. a decision taking group

B. the Change Advisory Board (CAB)
C. the senior customer representative
D. the service managers
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
A. Correct. The standard states that the Senior Responsible Owner should be supported by a decision
taking group with sufficient authority to define policy and to enforce decisions. B. Incorrect. The Change
Advisory Board is an important group with a specific function which is not as wide as the management
system.
C. Incorrect. The senior customer representative may provide input to requirements for the management
system but will not be responsible for its delivery. D. Incorrect. The service managers will implement the
management system that is the responsibility of the Senior Responsible Owner.
QUESTION 116
What are the key contents of an IT Service Management System?
A. a software system for the ticket system

B. a software system to monitor the key performance indicators (KPIs)
C. definition of corporate measures to achieve the required level of quality
D. systematic processes for ticket recording and follow-up only
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 117

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 118

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 119

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 120

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:

EXIN_CertifyMe_EX0-103_v2010-07-29_120q_By-Aalok
Number: EX0-103
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 2010-07-29
Code: EX0-103
Version:2010-07-29
it solved all your exam problems easily
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By-Aalok
Exam A
QUESTION 1

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 2

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 3
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 4

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 5

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 6

D. User training
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 7
organization.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 8

certification body
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 9
review?
C. Problems
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 10

Provider
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 11


Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 12

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 13

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 14
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 15
C. Capacity Plan
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 16
reviewed?

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 17
is being delivered.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 18

levels
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 19

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 20
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 21
A. Customer
B. End user
C. Service Provider
D. Supplier
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 22
A. CMMI
B. CobIT
TM
C. ITIL
D. MOF
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 23
risks
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 24

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 25

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 26
System?
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 27

during Changes.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 28

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 29
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 30
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 31
A. BS 1968
B. BS 7799
C. BS 8800
D. BS 15000
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 32

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 33
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 34

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 35
implementation
top management
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 36
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 37

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 38

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 39
occur
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 40

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 41

A. CobIT TM
B. ITIL
C. MOF
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 42
A. annually
B. monthly
D. quarterly
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 43

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 44

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 45

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 46
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO/IEC 15504
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. ISO/IEC 27001
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 47
and operating)?
A. CobIT TM
B. ITIL
C. MOF
D. Six Sigma
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 48


Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 49

C. Operations
D. Service Desk
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 50
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 51

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 52

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 53

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 54
A. Change
D. Release
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 55

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 56

D. no services
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 57

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 58

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 59
A. locations
B. risks
C. services
D. staff
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 60
informed of this?
A. After the breach

D. Never
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 61

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 62
A. the Auditor
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 63
plan.
maintained.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 64

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 65
A. Incidents
B. Known Errors
C. Licenses
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 66

B. a major Incident
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 67
previous surveys
services
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 68
organization.
assessed risks.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 69
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 70
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 71
A. the customer
B. all employees
D. Management only
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 72
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 73
assessed.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 74
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 75

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 76
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 77

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 78
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
deal with.
QUESTION 79
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 80
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
Change Manager.
QUESTION 81

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 82

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 83
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO/IEC 15504
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. ISO/IEC 27001
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
Management System
QUESTION 84

circumstances
circumstances
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 85

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 86
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
commitment.
firm actions.
QUESTION 87
A. CobITTM
B. ISO 9000
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. MOF
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 88

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 89

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 90

A. Major Incident
D. Urgent Change
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 91

maintained
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
achieved.
QUESTION 92

D. specifications
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
evidence.
QUESTION 93
contract?

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 94

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 95
20000-1:2005?

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 96

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
other details too.
details too.
details too.
QUESTION 97
What is SixSigma®?

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
D. Correct.
QUESTION 98


Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
during all phases.
QUESTION 99
period of time
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 100
normal service.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
implementing.
QUESTION 101

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
and covered later.
QUESTION 102
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
been implemented.
QUESTION 103
covered?
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 104

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 105

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 106

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 107
ISO/IEC 20000-2:2005?

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 108

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
certification.

QUESTION 109
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
service itself.
QUESTION 110

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 111


Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
and workload.
changed services.
QUESTION 112

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 113
assessed.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
services.
QUESTION 114

Database (CMDB)
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 115

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
system.
QUESTION 116

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 117

D. User training
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 118

A. CobIT TM
B. ITIL
C. MOF
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 119
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
deal with.
QUESTION 120

Database (CMDB)
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:

EXIN.ActualTests.EX0-103.v2009-03-05.by.jiovalon.116q
Number: 000-000
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0
Exin EX0-103
EX0-103 ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation
Practice Test
Version 3.0
Exam A
QUESTION 1

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 2

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 3
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 4

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 5

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 6

D. User training
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 7
organization.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 8

certification body
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 9
review?
C. Problems
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 10

Provider
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 11


Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 12

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 13

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 14
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 15
C. Capacity Plan
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 16
reviewed?

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 17
is being delivered.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 18

levels
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 19

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 20
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 21
A. Customer
B. End user
C. Service Provider
D. Supplier
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 22
A. CMMI
B. CobIT
TM
C. ITIL
D. MOF
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 23
risks
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 24

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 25

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 26
System?
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 27

during Changes.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 28

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 29
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 30
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 31
A. BS 1968
B. BS 7799
C. BS 8800
D. BS 15000
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 32

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 33
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 34

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 35
implementation
top management
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 36
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 37

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 38

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 39
occur
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 40

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 41

A. CobIT TM
B. ITIL
C. MOF
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 42
A. annually
B. monthly
D. quarterly
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 43

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 44

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 45

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 46
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO/IEC 15504
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. ISO/IEC 27001
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 47
and operating)?
A. CobIT TM
B. ITIL
C. MOF
D. Six Sigma
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 48


Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 49

C. Operations
D. Service Desk
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 50
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 51

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 52

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 53

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 54
A. Change
D. Release
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 55

Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 56

D. no services
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 57

Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 58

Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 59
A. locations
B. risks
C. services
D. staff
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 60
informed of this?
A. After the breach

D. Never
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 61

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 62
A. the Auditor
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 63
plan.
maintained.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 64

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 65
A. Incidents
B. Known Errors
C. Licenses
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 66

B. a major Incident
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 67
previous surveys
services
Answer: A
Section: (none)
QUESTION 68
organization.
assessed risks.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 69
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 70
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 71
A. the customer
B. all employees
D. Management only
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 72
Answer: B
Section: (none)
QUESTION 73
assessed.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 74
Answer: D
Section: (none)
QUESTION 75

Answer: C
Section: (none)
QUESTION 76
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 77

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 78
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
deal with.
QUESTION 79
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 80
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
Change Manager.
QUESTION 81

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 82

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 83
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO/IEC 15504
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. ISO/IEC 27001
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
Management System
QUESTION 84

circumstances
circumstances
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 85

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 86
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
commitment.
firm actions.
QUESTION 87
A. CobITTM
B. ISO 9000
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. MOF
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 88

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 89

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 90

A. Major Incident
D. Urgent Change
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 91

maintained
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
achieved.
QUESTION 92

D. specifications
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
evidence.
QUESTION 93
contract?

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 94

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 95
20000-1:2005?

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 96

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
other details too.
details too.
details too.
QUESTION 97
What is SixSigma®?

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
D. Correct.
QUESTION 98


Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
during all phases.
QUESTION 99
period of time
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 100
normal service.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
implementing.
QUESTION 101

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
and covered later.
QUESTION 102
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
been implemented.
QUESTION 103
covered?
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 104

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 105

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 106

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 107
ISO/IEC 20000-2:2005?

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 108

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
certification.

QUESTION 109
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:
service itself.
QUESTION 110

Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 111


Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
and workload.
changed services.
QUESTION 112

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
QUESTION 113
assessed.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation:
services.
QUESTION 114

Database (CMDB)
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation:

QUESTION 115

Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation:
system.
QUESTION 116

Answer: C
Section: (none)

Exin ISO 20000

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Exin_CertifyMe_EX0-103_v2011-04-15_120q_By-Eleanor

A. Looking at Security Plans

A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of services

A. Channeling data to Problem Management

A. Configuration Item (CI) type

A. All service changes

What is accreditation in the context of ISO/IEC 20000?

A. That business transactions between all parties are recorded

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 4

A. An external independent organization

A. The Service Level Plans

A. The escalation of Incidents

A. At every change to the business environment

A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of service

A. Change Management is the most important of the Control processes.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 8

A. To improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the business

A. Information Security Risk assessments should be carried out by an external auditor to

A. To achieve the lowest cost of service provision

A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability

A. Business Relationship Management

A. As input to financial management in order to determine charges for the service

A. A documented organizational and operational structure

A. Rules governing the handling of variances against budgets

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 13

A. No, because as manager he is not competent enough.

A. effectiveness of the service

A. the use of IT to support the customers business processes

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 15

A. the ITIL processes in scope

A. Charging for IT Services

A. all of the processes in scope of ISO/IEC 20000

A. satisfying customer requirements

A. establishing a good relationship with the Customer

A. the frequency and types of Releases

A. incidental services that are seldom delivered

A. Business Relationship Management

A. a major change to the business environment

A. After the breach

A. to be able to charge to the correct users of the service

A. a complete review of all recent security breaches

A. a formal closure of services

A. it must be available in at least one hard copy and approved

A. to be able to define quality objectives in a structured manner

A. to be able to open a new Problem record, so proactive identification of Incidents is possible

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 26

A. Appropriate records of education, training, skills and experience need to be maintained.

A. to ensure agreed effective communication towards Customers

A. Changes are scheduled based upon priority and risk.

D. Incorrect. This is part of Release verification and acceptance.

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 29

A. to provide critical services to business customers

A. all ISO/IEC 20000 processes

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 30

A. to be able to allocate roles and responsibilities

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 31

A. through the Business Relationship Management process

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 32

A. the available skills

A. to ensure that a process exists for the procurement of suppliers

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 33

A. backlog of changes for the service

A. It is a quality instrument to measure defects in process outputs.