Engineering Quality in Software Development

MODULE 4: Topics in Design: Design Review Checklist LESSON 1 - External View Question 1 Please select all that apply. A migration plan addresses which of the following issues associated with phasing out of the legacy system and moving to a new system? a. requirements issues b. user interface compatibility c. transition support d. training e. database compatibility Question 2 Please select all that apply. Which of the following are valid pathways that a use case must enforce in response to an event? a. happy pathway b. alternate pathway c. dependent pathway d. independent pathway e. exception pathway Question 3 Select True only if the entire sentence is true. A user interface document often begins as a hand-drawn mock-up of a design. True False

Question 4 Please select all that apply. Which of the following are required, complementary elements of user interface (UI) design? a. design prototype b. requirements analysis c. system interface d. use-case model e. design specification Question 5 Choose the one best answer. What is a storyboard? a. a series of drawings showing the evolution of a user interface b. a tool for capturing and properly delivering on usability requirements c. a narrative that follows the flow of use cases d. an explanation of the set of user choices and input amounts e. all of the above Question 6 Select True only if the entire sentence is true. A persistent datastore is one that is easily re-created after destruction by a server crash or data corruption. True False A persistent datastore is one that will survive even in the event of a server crash. This is accomplished by storing the data outside of an application's active memory. Although

persistent data is read into transient memory for use or modification, it is always written out to an external datastore for long-term storage. Question 7 Please select all that apply. Which of the following are sections of the external view design review checklist? a. data view b. testing options c. requirements analysis d. migration e. serviceability f. compatibility g. messages LESSON 2 - Internal View Question 1 Choose the one best answer. Which of the following is one way to achieve modular designs? a. b. c. d. use-case diagrams analysis and modeling componentization sequence diagrams

Question 2 Select True only if the entire sentence is true. Resource contention is one of the major reasons why an application will not scale. True False Question 3 Choose the one best answer. Which of the following describes the internal control flow of an application? a. logical process diagrams b. state diagrams c. sequence diagrams d. use-case diagrams Question 4 Select True only if the entire sentence is true. "Size and performance" is a section unique to the internal view of the design checklist. True False Most of the items in the internal view, including "Size and performance," are also pertinent to the external design, but with the focus on internal functions, not externally visible behavior. Question 5 Choose the one best answer. It is recommended that the internal view _____________. a. be reviewed after the external design has been completed b. omit exception handling since this is fully documented in the external design c. be designed prior to the external design for legacy systems or applications d. be designed only by experienced software developers

MODULE 7: Inspections in the Software Lifecycle LESSON 1 - About Inspections Question 1 Choose the one best answer. A formal process designed to find defects in software is known as an ___________. a. inspection b. test c. evaluation Question 2 Choose the one best answer. A Fagan inspection includes ______________________. a. a clearly defined seven-step process b. specific roles for inspection participants c. explicit and measurable entry and exit criteria d. clearly defined objectives for each part of the process e. all of the above Question 3 Some organizations don't use inspections because they believe they will delay the schedule. True False Question 4 Fill in the blanks. In testing, it takes longer to locate a defect because you first have to __debug_____ the symptoms. With inspections, you find the __root____ of the error, which makes finding a defect through inspections faster. Question 5 The best way to know if your inspections are effective is to keep track of the data and actively analyze it. True False LESSON 2 - The Inspection Process Question 1 Select True only if the entire sentence is true. Reviews and inspections are really the same thing. True False The primary goal of an inspection is to find defects. The purpose of a review could be to achieve a certification, resolve defects, or redesign an aspect of a product. Question 2 Select the one best answer. There are four types of defects: operational, minor, investigative, and _________.

a. systemic b. systematic c. symptomatic Question 3 The _moderator leads the inspection process, making sure all the logistics are tended to. Question 4 Choose the one best answer. Fagan recommends inspection meetings last no longer than___________________. a. one hour b. two hours c. three hours Question 5 Select True only if the entire sentence is true. Distributed inspections are encouraged. True False Inspections that take place with participants at different locations are discouraged because it is difficult to create synergy when people are not in the same room.

LESSON 3 - Inspecting Documents Question 1 Choose the one best answer. A document must meet the __________ criteria before the author sends it for inspection. a. entry b. exit c. test Question 2 To make it through an inspection, a document must meet the standards for that document type, follow a template, and use clear language. True False Question 3 What types of representations can be helpful in the inspections process? a. graphic b. symbolic c. pictorial Question 4 The goal of ___________ inspections is to ensure that the project management items for testing are addressed. a. test plan b. test case c. defect Question 5 The main goal of test case inspections is to ensure that each test case covers a specific aspect of the product.

True False

LESSON 4 - Inspecting Code Question 1 Minor defects do not cause the program to fail or operate incorrectly. True False Question 2 Major or operational defects in code cause a program to fail, give an incorrect result, or cause the program to fail to meet the requirements or design specifications. True False Question 3 Choose the one best answer. How many lines of code can you expect to review in a twohour meeting? a. 250 b. 350 c. 150

Question 4 The best review technique to use when agreement is an issue is ______________. a. contract b. Fagan c. comparison Question 5 What is useful when the code is dynamic? a. control flow b. comparison c. contract LESSON 5 - Evaluating Inspections Question 1 The _____________ of a defect includes major, minor, and systemic categories as well as investigative items. a. severity b. importance c. description Question 2 The _____________ of a defect describes the nature of the defect. a. description b. importance c. type

Question 3 For an inspection to be considered effective you should find two to three issues per hour. True False

Question 4 To track defects and identify systemic defects, you should classify defects by severity, type, description, and ____________. a. location b. time c. phase Question 5 To accurately assess removal efficiency you must have a method to collect the number of defects reported from the customer. True False

MODULE 8: Static Code Analysis LESSON 1 - Static Testing and Static Analysis Question 1 "Static testing" and "static analysis" are two different names for the same thing. True False Static analysis is just one form of static testing. Static testing includes desk checks, checklists, mapping, reviews, walkthroughs, inspections, and static analysis. Question 2 Static testing includes which of the following techniques? a. compiling the code b. inspecting the code c. running Rational Functional Tester d. mapping e. walkthroughs Question 3 Static analysis includes which of the following techniques: a. control flow analysis b. statistical modeling c. theorem proving d. universal quantification e. interprocedural analysis f. structural analysis Question 4 Static analysis finds and reports ___________. a. defects b. symptoms

c. problems Question 5 You should select a static analysis tool using which of the following criteria? a. the language(s) the tool supports b. the tool's accuracy c. the variety of symptoms offered d. the number of false positives and false negatives the tool reports Question 6 A false positive is which of the following? a. when a tool reports a syntax error b. when a tool reports a symptom deemed a "real problem" c. when a tool reports a semantic error d. when a tool reports a symptom not deemed a "real problem"

LESSON 2 CodeReview Question 1 CodeReview is a dynamic testing tool. True False CodeReview is a static analysis tool that looks for defects in Java code, both J2SE and J2EE. It does not try to execute the source code, and it does not require a test case. CodeReview works by searching for patterns that do not comply with either best practice guidelines or internal rules. Question 2 Each rule in CodeReview has a severity level of: a. Problem, Severe, or Critical b. Warning, Problem, or Critical c. Recommendation, Warning, or Strenuous d. Recommendation, Warning, or Problem Question 3 The first thing you must do to use CodeReview is to configure a set of rules into a review. True False CodeReview's rules are grouped into sets, called reviews, that are organized by application lifecycle or by verification target. There are seven preconfigured reviews. These reviews facilitate different forms of analysis at different times. Question 4 We recommend that you start with which of the following reviews? a. complete code review b. globalization code review c. structural analysis code review

Question 5 CodeReview allows you to filter out false positives by ________________________. a. creating resource filters b. marking findings that you would like to ignore after running a review c. using the quick fix feature

d. disabling rules prior to running a review

LESSON 3 Adopting Static Analysis Question 1 The benefits of running a pilot include which of the following? a. generating real results b. generating exact savings calculations c. useful in gaining management support d. provides a benchmark e. provides a useful starting point Question 2 Hints to success from teams that have implemented static analysis include which of the following? a. Run a pilot. b. Avoid overwhelming developers. c. Don't try to implement static analysis for the first time too late in your development cycle. d. Have someone screen the results. e. Be creative, and reasonable, in your approach. Question 3 Running static analysis and addressing the symptoms reported is a very quick process; little additional time will be needed to implement static analysis in your development process. True False Running the static analysis tools and responding to the results will take some time. Management must build that time into reasonable schedules or developers will simply not be able to do it. Question 4 When calculating the cost of implementing static analysis tools, be sure to include: a. licensing costs for CodeReview or the tool of your choice b. the cost of formal enforcement and tracking at the beginning c. the ongoing costs of technical experts and champions d. the time to analyze and fix problems Question 5 Recommended methods for calculating savings include: a. Compare defects found in the field to the type found by static analysis tool. b. Compare defects fixed with symptoms reported. c. Compare defects fixed from one release to another. d. Comparison shop for the cheapest tool.

MODULE 9: Essentials for Unit Testing LESSON 1 - Introduction to Unit Testing Question 1 What type of testing validates the correct implementation of specified requirement and design documents? a. System b. Functional verification c. Build verification Question 2 Unit testing is the lowest level of testing that occurs during software development. True False Question 3 The level of test that is performed to evaluate the system's compliance with its written requirements is called: a. system verification testing b. functional verification testing c. unit integration testing Question 4 The objective of unit integration testing is to verify the correctness of software components that are interacting with each other. True False Question 5 The goal of ____________ is to convert manual test cases and activities into time-saving tools, scripting libraries, and procedures that can be automatically executed as frequently as necessary. a. unit-test automation b. regression testing c. test-driven desing

LESSON 2 - Execute All Code Paths and Branches Question 1 Every rule identified when creating a decision table eventually becomes a test case. True False An alternative to an infinite number of possible paths through a program is basis-path testing which consists of creating a control flow graph, determining the cyclomatic complexity of the graph and then the basis path set, and finally, creating the test cases by determining which inputs will exercise each basis path. Question 2 Which of the following multiplier statements is accurate regarding calculating the number of paths through a unit of code? a. Every decision doubles the number of potential paths. b. Every case statement multiplies the potential paths by the number of cases.

c. Every loop multiplies the potential paths by the number of iteration values for the loop. d. All of the above are true. Question 3 A testing technique that tests each of the elements in a compound condition in isolation is: a. basis path testing b. condition coverage c. loop testing

Question 4 What is the main emphasis of white-box testing? a. time it takes to test b. the internal logic of the program c. it requires knowledge of the internal workings of the code d. none of the above Question 5 Loop testing is a black-box testing technique that focuses exclusively on the validity of loops. True False Loop testing is another white-box testing technique where the suggested tests vary by the type of loop under examination. LESSON 3 - Trigger All Exception-Handling Cases Question 1 Exceptions are ________ in your code that are out of the ordinary scope of application operation. a. leaks b. propagations c. errors Question 2 Exception testing exposes many defects, raising overall quality. True False Question 3 Exception testing is simple to implement. True False Exception testing is actually rather difficult to implement as there are many possible paths. Question 4 Exception-testing identifies error messages and exceptions raised and generates _________ for each possible exceptional condition. a. test cases

b. termination scenarios c. responses Question 5 Exception-handling code often makes up: a. one quarter of the code base b. one half of the code base c. one third of the code base

LESSON 4 - Use Debug Assertions in Code Question 1 The primary role of assertions is to debug code. True False Question 2 Choose the one best answer. Assertions do the following: a. detect subtle programming errors that might otherwise be missed b. detect errors earlier than they might otherwise be found c. make a statement about the code functionality that is guaranteed to be true d. all of the above Question 3 The assertion facility in Java 1.4 is an advanced form of exception handling. True False The assertion facility of Java 1.4 is often incorrectly thought of as an advanced form of exception handling. But assertions are for debugging, not exception handling. Question 4 Which of the following is not a category of assertion properties? a. preconditions b. postconditions c. invariants d. variables Question 5 When is the most efficient time to capture defects? a. compile time b. link time c. runtime LESSON 5 - Measuring Unit Testing Question 1 Which of the following are key measurements that unit test metrics should provide? a. the adequacy of unit tests

b. the complexity of unit tests c. the benefit from unit tests d. the frequency of unit tests Question 2 Metrics for unit tests should meet which of the following usefulness criteria: a. The metrics should guide the desired behavior of the tests. b. The metrics should predict and prevent problems before they occur. c. The benefits provided by the metrics should outweigh the costs of collecting and analyzing the information. d. The metrics should determine if there were enough unit tests performed. e. All of the above.

Question 3 What is a small collection of automated test cases designed to allow developers to run them before integrating code into the build called? a. Quickset b. Check c. Fullset Question 4 The number of tests passed should be equal to the number of tests written. True False Question 5 The Fullset is a large suite of automated functional test cases. Fullsets provide a more complete coverage of code than Quicksets. True False LESSON 6 - Tools That Support Unit Testing Question 1 Which of the following categories of unit testing tools is the most commonly used? a. bounds checking b. code coverage c. debugging Question 2 Memory leak tools send function calls into the code and investigate the return codes to see if the code behaves correctly. True False Memory leak tools warn about uninitialized variables and unreleased allocated memory. Simulator tools run the code and simulate real usage, including sending function calls into the code. Question 3 Which of the following are features of the Rational Application Developer tool (RAD)? a. CodeReview

b. Component Test c. PurifyPlus d. all of the above Question 4 What type of tool ensures correct pointer management, making sure code does not go out of scope on arrays or pass around null pointers? a. Memory leak b. Bounds checking c. Code coverage

Question 5 Completing static analysis of your code prior to running unit tests can cost you time in unit testing, but can reduce the overall number of problems found and debugged. True False Static analysis can save you time during unit testing.

MODULE 11: Estimating Effort for Development Tasks LESSON 1 - Why Estimate? Question 1 Bad estimates happen when ___________________________________________. a. there is a lack of collaboration between testers and developers b. the facts have been interpreted incorrectly c. inadequate measurement tools are used Question 2 Good estimates are the responsibility of which of the following software development groups? a. project managers b. consultants c. business analysts d. architects e. designers f. developers g. test managers *ALL of them Question 3 Which of the following statements are true? a. Good estimates promote effective use of critical skills and resources. b. Good estimates help teams avoid negative surprises like missed project dates, overtime, and so on. c. Good estimates clearly delineate the cost versus benefit relationship for a proposed project. d. Good estimation skills are common among developers.

e. Good estimates enable teams to deliver what was promised, when it was promised, and at the stated cost. Question 4 Order the steps on the right to reflect the estimation process. Step Step Step Step 1 2 3 4 B D A C a. Apply constraints and priorities. b. Estimate product size. c. Select optimum schedule, effort, and cost estimate. d. Estimate total project effort and costs.

Question 5 Estimating skills are a natural consequence of being a good developer. True False Creating good estimates is easier said than done. The process requires you to work and to improve your skills and increase your expertise in this area. LESSON 2 - Understanding Estimation Question 1 Match the meanings on the right to the terms on the left. Estimate - D Plan - B Metrics - A Measures - C a. what you count or measure b. a forecast c. the value of what was measured d. an educated guess based on history and statistics

Question 2 Project size can be estimated through which of the following parameters? a. artifacts b. size of development team c. lines of code d. similar projects done in the past e. function points Question 3 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. Contingency is an additional cost associated with __mitigating_ project risk. Question 4 Estimating inaccuracies are inevitable in the early phases of a project. True False Question 5 "Sizing by analysis" is another term used for which of the following estimation methodologies? a. b. c. d. analogy top-down bottom-up function points

LESSON 3 - Estimation Best Practices

Question 1 To get your estimation off on the right foot, which of these best practices should be followed? a. start estimating early in the project and expect iterations along the way b. put similar past projects aside to avoid conflicting information c. document assumptions to track information and uncover errors d. resist changing requirements and project scope to avoid an incorrect estimate e. account for documentation effort and testing costs as part of your estimate f. factor in the skill level, availability, and participation of developers, testers, and stakeholders g. all of these are best practices to follow when starting an estimation Question 2 Rejecting a range versus a single number as an estimate is one common mistake that people make when doing estimation. True False Question 3 Which of the following statements are true of best practices in estimation? a. Modifying estimates over time results in greater accuracy. b. Multi-phase estimating means you commit to the estimates in the next phase only. c. Find one estimating methodology and stick with it throughout your project. d. Use valid statistics to reduce variance. e. Collaborate with an expert or experienced estimator to verify calculations. Question 4 Which of the following statements are true and apply to the end of the estimation process? a. Understand whether contributors have produced optimistic, most likely, or pessimistic estimates. b. Be aware of frequent patterns of customer behavior. c. Know what contingency others have included. d. Consider how to package the estimate before publication. e. Be aware of expected customer behavior that might have a negative impact on the project. ALL of them Question 5 You should disregard bad estimates and begin the process again following best practices. True False Don't hide bad estimations. If an estimation turns out to be off, get it reviewed and work from good assumptions, good documentation, and good practices. Communication is key.

LESSON 4 - Variance and Risk Question 1 Relying on averages for estimation without understanding their underlying distributions is called ___________. a. the Monte Carlo theory b. random variance

c. predictive estimation d. the Flaw of Averages Question 2 Which of the following has a function that describes the likelihood of values and is called the variable's probability distribution? a. statistical variable b. random variable c. distributed variable d. absolute variable Question 3 A low variability correlates to high predictability. True False

Question 4 For meaningful estimations, keep in mind that since the inputs to your estimates are random variables, the outputs must _______________________________________. a. also be variables b. be recalculated c. apply assumptions to statistical distributions Question 5 _________________________ allows you to build dynamic models that replace fixed assumptions with random inputs that you specify and control. a. Predictive estimation b. Statistical instrumentation c. Monte Carlo simulation

LESSON 5 - Tool Example: Rational Method Composer Question 1 Match the descriptions on the right to the terms on the left. Bottom-up estimating - C Estimating model - D Estimating factor - A Estimating formula - B a. has an influence on the effort required to perform a task or activity b. defines a way to calculate a value for an estimate using estimating factors c. creates estimates for tasks in a work breakdown structure d. calculates an estimate based on a particular criteria

Question 2 In RMC, you create estimating models for which you define its estimating factors. Which of the following are default values you must define for each estimating factor you create? a. size b. count c. low estimate d. median estimate e. high estimate

f. most likely estimate Question 3 In RMC, you can make adjustments to the estimation by changing the _count_____ and modifying the __formula___. Question 4 Using RMC, you can apply estimating factors at any time at both the activity level and the task level. True False You can apply estimating factors at the higher level (activities) or the task level, but not both within the same activity structure.

Question 5 Which of the following statements are true? a. RMC provides an intuitive and complete way to apply estimating formulas to individual tasks. b. RMC provides an intuitive and complete way to modify estimating formulas for overall activities. c. RMC allows you to export the effort estimates to Microsoft Project. d. RMC allows you to export the effort estimates to Rational Portfolio Manager. e. RMC enables you to enhance estimating formulas for individual tasks or overall activities. *ALL of them

MODULE 13: In-Process Metrics for Software Developers LESSON 1 - Introduction to In-Process Metrics Question 1 In-process metrics provide the mechanism for capturing and quantifying the requirements phase of the development process. True False In-process metrics provide the mechanism for capturing and quantifying all aspects of the development process. Applying these measurements during development determines if a project is executing according to schedule, and quantifies the quality of the software at each stage of production. The information discovered is often of most use during the testing phase of development. Question 2 Which of the following are benefits of in-process metrics? a. They provide immediate and constructive feedback. b. They provide indisputable facts.

c. They provide justification for proceeding to the testing phase of the development process. d. They provide a record and indication of continued improvement in both process and project. Question 3 The only way to realize the full value of in-process metrics is by the repeated application of the process over time. True False Question 4 ODC is a tool that supports the capturing and quantifying of _____________. a. defect information b. testing results c. requirements Question 5 Which of the following tools analyzes defect data collected by organizations using the ODC methodology? a. Rational RequisitePro b. Rational PurifyPlus c. CodeReview d. JMYSTIQ LESSON 2 Requirements Metrics Question 1 The core objective of any development project is to produce a functional application that meets some or most of the client's requirements. True False Meeting all of your customer's requirements should be the highest priority of your team. If the delivered product does not meet requirements, your team does not get repeat business or recommendations. Potentially, failure to meet requirements can result in lawsuits and unpaid contracts. Question 2 Which of the following tools captures requirements metrics? a. Rational RequisitePro b. Rational PurifyPlus c. CodeReview Question 3 Which of the following are attributes used in analyzing requirements? a. status b. phase implemented c. stakeholder source d. stability e. date created f. use case Question 4 Which of the following statements is correct? a. Investing time in gathering and analyzing inconsequential or peripheral data is the greatest threat to realizing the value of metrics.

b. The earlier you address requirements issues, the less the impact on your project in both time and expense. c. It is crucial that you ensure that you have met all customer requirements d. All of the above statements are correct.

LESSON 3 - Progress Metrics Question 1 Measurements for any time period within the development of a product, allowing you to monitor whether your team is improving, staying the same, or decreasing in its effectiveness, is an example of which type of metrics? a. requirements metrics b. progress metrics c. quality metrics Question 2 The number of test cases generated during the Elaboration phase of a project can reveal a baseline for productivity and provide valuable benchmarking data. True False The number of line items generated during the Elaboration phase can reveal a productivity baseline and benchmarking data. Reviewing the number of line items completed and the number deferred can help better plan future projects. Over time, you may need to reduce the number of line items per project, add more resources than you required in the past, or add time to the project. Question 3 In the Construction phase, you can continue volume measurement by tracking the number of lines of _______________ developed. a. new code b. redundant code c. defect analysis code d. application code Question 4 Measuring and monitoring the number of defects is an effective way to evaluate project health and identify activities that are exceeding budget targets. True False Measuring and monitoring earned value is an effective way to evaluate project health and identify activities that are exceeding budget targets. You determine these indicators by comparing projected and actual costs on everything from labor to resources and travel. Question 5 An earned value analysis outcome of above budget (cost variance) and ahead of schedule (schedule variance) is the result of which of the following probable causes? a. a major problem encountered, or the work being more difficult than anticipated b. extra resources used, or higher-than-anticipated daily rates c. insufficient resources have been applied d. original estimate was conservative, or exceptional progress was made

LESSON 4 - Quality Metrics Question 1 Capturing quality metrics can improve the product quality as well as the process itself.

True False

Question 2 The Pareto Principle is based on which of the following theories? a. 20% of a population possesses 80% of the wealth b. 20% of the people in an organization do 80% of the work c. 20% of product defects are found using 80% of the test cases executed

Question 3 A Pareto chart is a bar graph that quantifies and displays the relative impact of ________________. a. projected test results b. actual test results c. problems or conditions

Question 4 Do not use the defects found during inspections and code reviews as the number of errors metric, as these defects are not part of the formal test effort. True False The defects found during an inspection or code reviews are an important part of the number of error count. Question 5 When gathering LLOC measurements upon initial code delivery, and for subsequent releases or updates, the measurements fall into which of the following classifications? a. shipped source instructions b. changed source instructions c. defect source instructions d. requirement source instructions

LESSON 5 Unit Testing Metrics Question 1 Unit testing metrics typically capture information in which three categories? a. projected values b. test adequacy c. run frequency d. product outcome

Question 2 The metric representing unit tests written measures automated and manual unit tests. True False The metric representing unit tests written measures only automated unit tests. The metric considers only those tests that are easily reused when regression testing or when running automated test engines. Question 3 Which of the following are true about complex code?

a. complex code delays integration b. complex code increases maintenance c. complex code is difficult to execute using manual tests d. complex code provides likely points for injecting additional defects

Question 4 Cyclomatic complexity is the most widely used member of a class of dynamic software metrics. True False Cyclomatic complexity is the most widely used member of a class of static software metrics. It measures the number of linearly independent paths through a program module. This measure provides a single ordinal number that can be compared to the complexity of other programs. Cyclomatic complexity is often referred to as program complexity, or as McCabe's complexity. Question 5 Which of the following tools help you collect unit test metrics? a. Rational RequisitePro b. Rational PurifyPlus c. CodeReview d. JMYSTIQ

LESSON 6 - Build Integration Question 1 Which of the following is the final step in initial development? a. requirements b. build/integration c. analysis/modeling Question 2 What do you call a collection of tests created to ensure that the latest subsystem, or complete application, meets the requirements laid out for the final segment of a project? a. build verification test b. functional verification test c. system verification test Question 3 The BVT is a short set of tests that target the core functionality of the project, and the number of test cases covered by this phase is an indicator of the effectiveness of the BVT process. True False Question 4 What do you do after deciding on the best set of test cases, provided the test cases selected for analysis adequately represent the critical functionality of the project? a. Confirm that all test cases can be traced to requirements.

b. Run the BVT. c. Measure how many test cases the project passes successfully. d. Interpret a high pass percentage as a sign of high-quality work. Question 5 As a straight measurement of time, the turnaround time between build releases metric has little value. True False