1.

The Watchtower organization has claimed to be the prophet of God1 yet it has made numerous false prophecies. The excuse given for their false prophecies has been to quote Proverbs 4:18, which says, "But the path of the righteous ones is like the bright light that is getting lighter and lighter until the day is firmly established." Whether or not the "light gets brighter" or not, does not change the fact that the Watchtower made false prophecies. The Bible says in Deut. 18:20-22, "However, the prophet who presumes to speak in my name a word that I have not commanded him to speak or who speaks in the name of other gods, that prophet must die. And in case you should say in your heart: "How shall we know the word that Jehovah has not spoken?" When the prophet speaks in the name of Jehovah and the word does not occur or come true, that is the word that Jehovah did not speak..." If the New World Translation (NWT) condemns false prophesying and states that it is proof that God is not speaking through that prophet, then doesnt this prove that the Watchtower Bible & Tract Society is not speaking for God? 2. Why does the NWT insert the word Jehovah in the New Testament when there are absolutely no Greek manuscripts that have it in there? Isnt this playing with the text? 3. The Watchtower organization states that through good works and sincere effort only 144,000 elite JWs will go to heaven. The 144,000 are mentioned in two chapters in the Bible: Revelation 7 & 14. By looking at the verses it is obvious that the 144,000 are literal Jews of the ancient tribes with no Gentiles among them (7:4-8). They are all males (14:4) and virgins (14:4). If the JW states that the usage of Jewish male virgins is figurative, what gives them the right to state that number of 144,000 is literal? 4. Where does it teach in the Bible that Jesus is Michael the archangel? Why isn't Jesus called Michael right now since he is in heaven? If Jesus is God, why did he pray to the Father in John 17? Jesus prayed to the Father because as a man, under the Law (Gal. 4:4), he needed to pray to the Father. The Bible teaches that he was both God and man (Col. 2:9; John 8:58 with Ex. 3:14). Also, Jesus has two natures. Therefore, we will see two types of scripture concerning Jesus: those that seem to focus on His divine-side, and those that seem to focus on His human-side. The Jehovah's Witnesses are simply ignoring, or changing, the divine-side scriptures and concentrating on those that describe His human-side. See Hypostatic Union for information on the two natures of Jesus. Also, God is a Trinity which means that the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit are all divine, but are distinct persons, not three gods. The person of the Son prayed to the person of the Father. This makes sense since Jesus was fully divine and fully human at the same time. If Jesus is God, why did Jesus say the Father was greater than He (John 14:28)? He said this because His position was different than that of God the Father, not His nature. Heb. 2:9 says that Jesus was made for a little while lower than the angels and Gal. 4:4 says, He was under the Law. Therefore, as a man he was in a lesser position that the Father, but not different in nature. This would also explain why he grew in wisdom and stature (Luke 2:52). By comparison, a husband is the head of the family and the wife is not. Though their positions are different, he has greater authority, their natures are the same. This is how it works with Jesus. His nature is the same as the Father, but he was sent by the Father (John 6:44) and was in a lesser position due to his incarnation and being under the Law. Why did Jesus ask, "Why call me good, only God is good?" in Luke 18:19? Jesus said this because it is true that only God is good. When Jesus said this he wasn't saying that people can't do good things on a human level but that true goodness belongs to God alone. He is the standard of what is good. So, we must ask the Jehovah's Witness, "Was Jesus good?" Obviously, the answer has to be yes. Therefore, when Jesus said only God was good, he was confirming His own deity because what He was doing was good. Also, if Jesus is "a" god, according to the Witnesses, then doesn't that mean there are two gods? It would seem so. But the JW often answers by saying, "There is only one God but Jesus is like God. He is not the Almighty God. He is only the mighty god. And besides, there are those in the Bible who are called gods but really aren't." The biblical response is to go to Isaiah 10:21 where God himself is called the Mighty God. So if Jesus is not the Almighty God and only the mighty God, as the JW's maintain, then that makes

Jesus God since GOD is called the mighty God the same as Jesus. First, there is a Greek word for "first created" and it is not used here. And the word for first born is a transferable title. Gen 41:51, Jerem 31:9 If the Witness says he learns his theology by reading the Bible alone, then he contradicts the Watchtower which says that is not possible Watchtower, Dec. 1, 1990, p. 19 ; Watchtower, Oct. 1, 1967, p. 587 Additionally, the Watchtower says only its organization understands the Bible Watchtower, July 1, 1973, p. 402 Therefore, whatever argument the JW offers is not from their understanding of the Bible, but from the watchtower's interpretation of it false prophecies ; The Time Is at Hand, 1908 edition, p. 101 (1914 is date set) ; Watchtower, Sept. 1, 1922, p. 262 (now 1925) ; Watchtower, Sept. 1, 1922, p. 262 (again 1925) ; Watchtower, Sept. 1, 1922, p. 262 (now it is within months of this date) ;

A.

From time to time, there have arisen from among the ranks of Jehovah's people those, who, like the original Satan, have adopted an independent, faultfinding attitude...They say that it is sufficient to read the Bible exclusively, either alone or in small groups at home. But, strangely, through such 'Bible reading,' they have reverted right back to the apostate doctrines that commentaries by Christendom's clergy were teaching 100 years ago..." (Watchtower, Aug. 15, 1981). B. What are the apostate doctrines of 100 years ago? Why, the Trinity of course.

Zech. 12:10
1 corin 15-17 There are two Greek words for "other": heteros, and allos. The first means another of a different kind, and the second means another of the same kind. Neither is used at all in this section of scripture. The Jehovah's Witness have changed the Bible to make it fit their aberrant theology. Heb. 1:8 This is a verse where God the Father is calling Jesus God: "But about the Son he says, 'Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.'" Since the Jehovah's Witnesses don't agree with that they have changed the Bible, yet again, to agree with their theology. They have translated the verse as "...God is your throne..." The problem with the Jehovah's Witness translation is that this verse is a quote from Psalm 45:6 which, from the Hebrew, can only be translated as "...Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever; a scepter of justice will be the scepter of your kingdom." To justify their New Testament translation they actually changed the OT verse to agree with their theology, too "In beginning was the word..." (en arche en ho logos) A very simple statement that the Word was in the beginning. "and the word was with the God..." (kai ho logos en pros ton theon) This same Word was with God. "and God was the word." -- Properly translated as "and the Word was God." (kai theos en ho logos) This same Word was God.

In the Greek in John 20:28 Thomas said to Jesus, "ho kurios mou, kai ho theos mou," "The Lord of me, and the God of me." If Jesus was not God, but "a" god, then shouldn't Jesus have corrected Thomas? Shouldn't Jesus have said, "No Thomas, I am not the God. I am a god."? But Jesus did not. To do so would have been ludicrous. Nevertheless, the Jehovah's Witness will say that Thomas was so stunned by Jesus' appearance, that he swore. This is ridiculous because it means that Thomas, a devout man of God, swore in front of Jesus and used the Lord's name in vain in violation of Exodus 20:7. This is hardly the case since we find no New Testament equivalent of a disciple of Christ using God's name in vain. Concerning I AM In John 8:56-59 says, " the words are "ego eimi." Literally, this is "I am." "Ego eimi" is the present active indicative first person singular (I am), in Exodus 3:14. OTHER NOTES In John 14:8-9 it says