LMR - J. Andres

THE SULTAN REVIEW GROUPNURSING REVIEW 2nd Floor New World Building Paredes cor.
Morayta Street, Sampaloc, Manila Email: srg_nursingreview@yahoo.com Website: http:// www.srgnursing.com Mobile No: (0917) 8686261 Tel No.: (02) 7346432
NURSING LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, RESEARCH & BIOETHICS

Prepared by: Jay Lapaz Andres, RN, MAN 1. Ms. Castro is newly-promoted to a patient care manager position. She updates her knowledge on the theories in management and leadership in order to become effective in her new role. She learns that some managers have low concern for services and high concern for staff. Which style of management refers to this? a. Organization Man b. Impoverished Management c. Country Club Management d. Team Management 2. Her former manager demonstrated passion for serving her staff rather than being served. She takes time to listen, prefers to be a teacher first before being a leader, which is characteristic of a. Transformational leader c. Servant leader b. Transactional leader d. Charismatic leader 3. On the other hand, Ms. Castro notices that the Chief Nurse Executive has charismatic leadership style. Which of the following behaviors best describes this style? a. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted of him and regards him with reverence b. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield positive results c. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership d. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand. 4. Which of the following conclusions of Ms. Castro about leadership characteristics is TRUE? a. There is a high correlation between the communication skills of a leader and the ability to get the job done. b. A manager is effective when he has the ability to plan well. c. Assessment of personal traits is a reliable tool for predicting a managers potential. d. There is good evidence that certain personal qualities favor success in managerial role. 5. She reads about Path Goal theory. Which of the following behaviors is manifested by the leader who uses this theory? a. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations b. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own practice c. Admonishes staff for being laggards. d. Reminds staff about the sanctions for non performance. 6. One leadership theory states that leaders are born and not made, which refers to which of the following theories? a. Trait c. Great Man b. Charismatic d. Situational 7. She came across a theory which states that the leadership style is effective dependent on the situation. Which of the following styles best fits a situation when the followers are selfdirected, experts and are matured individuals? a. Democratic c. Laissez faire b. Authoritarian d. Bureaucratic 8. She surfs the internet for more information about leadership styles. She reads about shared leadership as a practice in some magnet hospitals. Which of the following describes this style of leadership? a. Leadership behavior is generally determined by the relationship between the leaders personality and the specific situation b. Leaders believe that people are basically good and need not be closely controlled c. Leaders rely heavily on visioning and inspire members to achieve results d. Leadership is shared at the point of care. 9. Ms. Castro learns that some leaders are transactional leaders. Which of the following does NOT characterize a transactional leader? a. Focuses on management tasks b. Is a caretaker c. Uses trade-offs to meet goals d. Inspires others with vision 10. She finds out that some managers have benevolent-authoritative style of management. Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit most likely? a. Has condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates b. Gives economic or ego awards c. Communicates downward to the staff d. Allows decision making among subordinates 11. Harry is a Unit Manager I the Medical Unit. He is not satisfied with the way things are going in his unit. Patient satisfaction rate is 60% for two consecutive months and staff morale is at its lowest. He decides to plan and initiate changes that will push for a turnaround in the condition of the unit. Which of the following actions is a priority for Harry? a. Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the agenda. b. Seek help from her manager. c. Develop a strategic action on how to deal with these concerns. d. Ignore the issues since these will be resolved naturally. 12. She knows that there are external forces that influence changes in his unit. Which of the following is NOT an external force? a. Memo from the CEO to cut down on electrical consumption b. Demands of the labor sector to increase wages c. Low morale of staff in her unit d. Exacting regulatory and accreditation standards 13. After discussing the possible effects of the low patient satisfaction rate, the staff started to list
SULTAN REVIEW GROUP NURSING REVIEW NURSING LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, RESEARCH & BIOETHICS Jay Lapaz Andres, RN, MAN
Page1
Page1
down possible strategies to solve the problems head-on. Should they decide to vote on the best change strategy, which of the following strategies is referred to this? a. Collaboration c. Dominance b. Majority rule d. Compromise 14. One staff suggests that they review the pattern of nursing care that they are using, which is described as a a. job description b. system used to deliver care c. manual of procedure d. rules to be followed 15. Which of the following is TRUE about functional nursing? a. Concentrates on tasks and activities b. Emphasizes use of group collaboration c. One-to-one nurse-patient ratio d. Provides continuous, coordinated and comprehensive nursing services 16. Functional nursing has some advantages, which one is an EXCEPTION? a. Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized. b. Great control of work activities. c. Most economical way of delivering nursing services. d. Workers feel secure in dependent role 17. He raised the issue on giving priority to patient needs. Which of the following offers the best way for setting priority? a. Assessing nursing needs and problems b. Giving instructions on how nursing care needs are to be met c. Controlling and evaluating the delivery of nursing care d. Assigning safe nurse-patient ratio 18. Which of the following is the best guarantee that the patients priority needs are met? a. Checking with the relative of the patient b. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient c. Consulting with the physician d. Coordinating with other members of the team 19. When Harry uses team nursing as a care delivery system, he and his team need to assess the priority of care for a group of patients, which of the following should be a priority? a. Each patient as listed on the worksheet b. Patients who needs least care c. Medications and treatments required for all patients d. Patients who need the most care 20. She is hopeful that her unit will make a big turnaround in the succeeding months. Which of the following actions of Harry demonstrates that he has reached the third stage of change? a. Wonders why things are not what it used to be b. Finds solutions to the problems c. Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities d. Selects the best change strategy 21. Julius is a newly-appointed nurse manager of The Good Shepherd Medical Center, a tertiary hospital located within the heart of the metropolis. He thinks of scheduling planning workshop with his staff in order to ensure an
effective and efficient management of the department. Should he decide to conduct a strategic planning workshop, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of this activity? a. Long-term goal-setting b. Extends to 3-5 years in the future c. Focuses on routine tasks d. Determines directions of the organization 22. Which of the following statements refer to the vision of the hospital? a. The Good Shepherd Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the Philippines in the next five years b. The officers and staff of The Good Shepherd Medical Center believe in the unique nature of the human person c. All the nurses shall undergo continuing competency training program. d. The Good Shepherd Medical Center aims to provide a patient-centered care in a total healing environment. 23. The statement, The Good Shepherd Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered care in a total healing environment refers to which of the following? a. Vision c. Philosophy b. Goal d. Mission 24. Julius plans to revisit the organizational chart of the department. He plans to create a new position of a Patient Educator who has a coordinating relationship with the head nurse in the unit. Which of the following will likely depict this organizational relationship? a. Box c. Broken line b. Solid line d. Dotted line 25. He likewise stresses the need for all the employees to follow orders and instructions from him and not from anyone else. Which of the following principles does he refer to? a. Scalar chain c. Unity of command b. Discipline d. Order 26. Julius orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationship throughout the organization. Which of the following principles refer to this? a. Span of control c. Esprit d corps b. Hierarchy d. Unity of direction 27. He emphasizes to the team that they need to put their efforts together towards the attainment of the goals of the program. Which of the following principles refers to this? a. Span of control b. Unity of direction c. Unity of command d. Command responsibility 28. Julius stresses the importance of promoting esprit d corps among the members of the unit. Which of the following remarks of the staff indicates that they understand what he pointed out? a. Lets work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another b. In order that we achieve the same results; we must all follow the directives of Julius and not from other managers. c. We will ensure that all the resources we need are available when needed.
Page1
d. We need to put our efforts together in order to raise the bar of excellence in the care we provide to all our patients. 29. He discusses the goal of the department. Which of the following statements is a goal? a. Increase the patient satisfaction rate b. Eliminate the incidence of delayed administration of medications c. Establish rapport with patients. d. Reduce response time to two minutes. 30. He wants to influence the customary way of thinking and behaving that is shared by the members of the department. Which of the following terms refer to this? a. Organizational chart c. Organizational structure b. Cultural network d. Organizational culture 31. He asserts the importance of promoting a positive organizational culture in their unit. Which of the following behaviors indicate that this is attained by the group? a. Proactive and caring with one another b. Competitive and perfectionist c. Powerful and oppositional d. Obedient and uncomplaining 32. Stephanie is a new Staff Educator of a private tertiary hospital. She conducts orientation among new staff nurses in her department. Joseph, one of the new staff nurses, wants to understand the channel of communication, span of control and lines of communication. Which of the following will provide this information? a. Organizational structure c. Job description b. Policy d. Manual of procedures 33. Stephanie is often seen interacting with the medical intern during coffee breaks and after duty hours. What type of organizational structure is this? a. Formal c. Staff b. Informal d. Line 34. She takes pride in saying that the hospital has a decentralized structure. Which of the following is NOT compatible with this type of model? a. Flat organization c. Shared governance b. Participatory approach d. Tall organization 35. Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements are TRUE? 1. Highly cost-effective 2. Makes management easier 3. Reflects the interest of the worker 4. Allows quick decisions or actions. a. 1 & 2 c. 2, 3& 4 b. 2 & 4 d. 1, 2, & 4 36. Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to act, which is BEST defined as: a. having responsibility to direct others b. being accountable to the organization c. having legitimate right to act d. telling others what to do 37. Regardless of the size of a work group, enough staff must be available at all times to
accomplish certain purposes. Which of these purposes in NOT included? a. Meet the needs of patients b. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed c. Cover all time periods adequately. d. Allow for growth and development of nursing staff. 38. Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in formulating objectives for nursing care? a. Written nursing care plan c. Prescribed standards b. Holistic approach d. Staff preferences 41. Stephanie considers shifting to transformational leadership. Which of the following statements best describes this type of leadership? a. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership. b. Serves the followers rather than being served. c. Maintains full trust and confidence in the subordinates d. Possesses innate charisma that makes others feel good in his presence. 42. As a manager, she focuses her energy on both the quality of services rendered to the patients as well as the welfare of the staff of her unit. Which of the following management styles does she adopt? a. Country club management b. Organization man management c. Team management d. Authority-obedience management 43. Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric Ward. Most of her staff nurses are senior to her, very articulate, confident and sometimes aggressive. Katherine feels uncomfortable believing that she is the scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her department. Which of the following is the best action that she must take? a. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction b. Disregard what she feels and continue to work independently c. Seek help from the Director of Nursing d. Quit her job and look for another employment. 44. As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in any organization. Which of the following statements regarding conflict is NOT true? a. Can be destructive if the level is too high b. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times c. May result in poor performance d. May create leaders 45. Katherine tells one of the staff, I dont have time to discuss the matter with you now. See me in my office later when the latter asks if they can talk about an issue. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies did she use? a. Smoothing c. Avoidance b. Compromise d. Restriction 46. Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing burnout. Which of the following is the best thing for her to do?
Page1
a. Advise her staff to go on vacation. b. Ignore her observations; it will be resolved even without intervention c. Remind her to show loyalty to the institution. d. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help. 47. She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the following activities EXCEPT: a. Setting specific standards and activities for individual performance. b. Using agency standards as a guide. c. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses d. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior. 48. Which of the following statements is NOT true about performance appraisal? a. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their performance. b. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report c. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal. d. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff. 49. There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she makes her daily rounds. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal? a. The staff member is observed in natural setting. b. Incidental confrontation and collaboration is allowed. c. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically. d. The evaluation may provide valid information for compilation of a formal report. 50. She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a staff member. Which of the following actions is appropriate? a. She asks another nurse to attest the session as a witness. b. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse to read the appraisal before the session is over. c. She tells the staff that the session is manager-centered. d. The session is private between the two members. 51. Alexandra is tasked to organize the new wing of the hospital. She was given the authority to do as she deems fit. 51. She is aware that the director of nursing has substantial trust and confidence in her capabilities, communicates through downward and upward channels and usually uses the ideas and opinions of her staff. Which of the following is her style of management? a. Benevolentauthoritative c. Exploitiveauthoritative b. Consultative d. Participative 52. She decides to illustrate the organizational structure. Which of the following elements is NOT included? a. Level of authority c. Span of control
b. Lines of communication d. Unity of direction 53. She plans of assigning competent people to fill the roles designed in the hierarchy. Which process refers to this? a. Staffing c. Recruitment b. Scheduling d. Induction 54. She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for staff nurse position. Which one is NOT necessary? a. Certificate of previous employment b. Record of related learning experience (RLE) c. Membership to accredited professional organization d. Professional identification card 55. Which phase of the employment process includes getting on the payroll and completing documentary requirements? a. Orientation c. Selection b. Induction d. Recruitment 56. She tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in all directions and involve workers in decision making. Which form of organizational structure is this? a. Centralized c. Matrix b. Decentralized d. Informal 57. In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located at the a. Leftmost box c. Rightmost box b. Middle d. Bottom 58. She decides to have a decentralized staffing system. Which of the following is an advantage of this system of staffing? a. greater control of activities b. Conserves time c. Compatible with computerization d. Promotes better interpersonal relationship 59. Aubrey thinks about primary nursing as a system to deliver care. Which of the following activities is NOT done by a primary nurse? a. Collaborates with the physician b. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses c. Provides care for 5-6 patients during their hospital stay. d. Performs comprehensive initial assessment 60. Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by a group of paraprofessional workers led by a professional nurse who take care of patients with the same disease conditions and are located geographically near each other? a. Case method b. Modular nursing c. Nursing case management d. Team nursing 61. St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance Improvement Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as the Quality Control Officer. She commits herself to her new role and plans her strategies to realize the goals and objectives of the department. Which of the following is a primary task that they should perform to have an effective control system? a. Make an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses b. Identify the values of the department c. Identify structure, process, outcome standards & criteria
Page1
d. Measure actual performances 62. Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed. Among the following standards, which is considered as a structure standard? a. The patient verbalized satisfaction of the nursing care received b. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel. c. All patients shall have their weights taken recorded d. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before discharge 63. When she presents the nursing procedures to be followed, she refers to what type of standards? a. Process c. Structure b. Outcome d. Criteria 64. The following are basic steps in the controlling process of the department. Which of the following is NOT included? a. Measure actual performance b. Set nursing standards and criteria c. Compare results of performance to standards and objectives d. Identify possible courses of action 65. Which of the following statements refers to criteria? a. Agreed on level of nursing care b. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care c. Step-by-step guidelines d. Statement which guide the group in decision making and problem solving 66. She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned. Which of the following tasks is NOT included in the controlling process? a. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies b. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital c. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff d. Checking if activities conform to schedule 67. Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of the following is NOT a process standard? a. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within twenty four hours upon admission. b. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any invasive procedure c. Patients reports 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital. d. Patient education about their illness and treatment shall be provided for all patients and their families. 68. Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process is effective? a. The things that were planned are done b. Physicians do not complain. c. Employees are contended d. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate. 69. Ms. Valencia is responsible to the number of personnel reporting to her. This principle refers to: a. Span of control b. Unity of command c. Carrot and stick principle d. Esprit d corps
70. She notes that there is an increasing unrest of the staff due to fatigue brought about by shortage of staff. Which action is a priority? a. Evaluate the overall result of the unrest b. Initiate a group interaction c. Develop a plan and implement it d. Identify external and internal forces. 71. Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of the hospital. His first assignment is to determine the level of patient satisfaction on the care they received from the hospital. He plans to include all adult patients admitted from April to May, with average length of stay of 3-4 days, first admission, and with no complications. Which of the following is an extraneous variable of the study? a. Date of admission b. Length of stay c. Age of patients d. Absence of complications 72. He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework. Whose theory addresses the four modes of adaptation? a. Martha Rogers c. Florence Nightingale b. Sr. Callista Roy d. Jean Watson 73. He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about this method? a. Most direct means of gathering information b. Versatile in terms of content coverage c. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering d. Yields information that would be difficult to gather by another method 74. Which of the following articles would Kevin least consider for his review of literature? a. Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients b. Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms c. Outcome Standards in Tertiary Health Care Institutions d. Environmental Manipulation and Client Outcomes 75. Which of the following variables will he likely EXCLUDE in his study? a. Competence of nurses c. Salary of nurses b. Caring attitude of nurses d. Responsiveness of staff 76. He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine a. degree of agreement and disagreement b. compliance to expected standards c. level of satisfaction d. degree of acceptance 77. He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. Which of the following criteria refers to the consistency or the ability to yield the same response upon its repeated administration? a. Validity c. Sensitivity b. Reliability d. Objectivity 78. Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the subjects being studied? a. Sensitivity c. Validity b. Reliability d. Objectivity 79. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an instrument measures what it is supposed to be measure? a. Validity c. Meaningfulness
Page1
b. Reliability d. Sensitivity 80. He plans for his sampling method. Which sampling method gives equal chance to all units in the population to get picked? a. Random c. Quota b. Accidental d. Judgment 81. Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing because he is assigned at the family suites where most patients come from different cultures and countries. Which of the following designs is appropriate for this study? a. Grounded theory c. Case study b. Ethnography d. Phenomenology 82. The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is a. Dorothea Orem c. Betty Newman b. Madeleine Leininger d. Sr. Callista Roy 83. Which of the following statements best describes a phenomenological study? a. Involves the description and interpretation of cultural behavior b. Focuses on the meaning of experiences as those who experience it c. Involves an in-depth study of an individual or group d. Involves collecting and analyzing data that aims to develop theories grounded in realworld observations 84. He systematically plans his sampling plan. Should he decides to include whoever patients are admitted during the study he uses what sampling method? a. Judgment c. Random b. Accidental d. Quota 85. He finally decides to use judgment sampling. Which of the following actions of Raphael is correct? a. Plans to include whoever is there during his study. b. Determines the different nationality of patients frequently admitted and decides to get representations samples from each. c. Assigns numbers for each of the patients, place these in a fishbowl and draw 10 from it. d. Decides to get 20 samples from the admitted patients 86. He knows that certain patients who are in a specialized research setting tend to respond psychologically to the conditions of the study. This is referred to as a. Bias c. Halo effect b. Hawthorne effect d. Horns effect 87. Which of the following items refer to the sense of closure that Raphael experiences when data collection ceases to yield any new information? a. Saturation c. Limitation b. Precision d. Relevance 88. In qualitative research the actual analysis of data begins with: a. search for themes b. validation of thematic analysis c. weave the thematic strands together d. quasi statistics 89. Raphael is also interested to know the coping abilities of patients who are newly diagnosed to have terminal cancer. Which of the following types of research is appropriate?
a. Phenomenological c. Grounded Theory b. Ethnographic d. Case Study 90. Which of the following titles of the study is appropriate for this study? a. Lived Experiences of Terminally-Ill Cancer Patients b. Coping Skills of Terminally-Ill Cancer Patients in a Selected Hospital c. Two Case Studies of Terminally-Ill Patients in Manila d. Beliefs & Practices of Patients with Terminal Cancer 91. Ms. Montana plans to conduct a research on the use of a new method of pain assessment scale. Which of the following is the second step in the conceptualizing phase of the research process? a. Formulating the research hypothesis b. Review related literature c. Formulating and delimiting the research problem d. Design the theoretical and conceptual framework 92. Which of the following codes of research ethics requires informed consent in all cases governing human subjects? a. Helsinki Declaration c. Belmont Report b. Nuremberg Code d. ICN Code of Ethics 93. Which of the following ethical principles was NOT articulated in the Belmont Report? a. Beneficence c. Justice b. Respect for human dignity d. Nonmaleficence 94. Which one of the following criteria should be considered as a top priority in nursing care? a. Avoidance of destructive changes b. Preservation of life c. Assurance of safety d. Preservation of integrity 95. Which of the following procedures ensures that the investigator has fully described to prospective subjects the nature of the study and the subject's rights? a. Debriefing c. Informed consent b. Full disclosure d. Cover data collection 96. After the review session has been completed, Karen and the staff signed the document. Which of the following is the purpose of this? a. Agree about the content of the evaluation. b. Signify disagreement of the content of the evaluation. c. Document that Karen and the staff reviewed the evaluation. d. Serve as basis for future evaluation. 97. A nurse who would like to practice nursing in the Philippines can obtain a license to practice by: a. Paying the professional tax after taking the board exams b. Passing the board exams and taking the oath of professionals c. Paying the examination fee before taking the board exams d. Undergoing the interview conducted by the Board of Nursing and taking the board exams
Page1
98. Reciprocity of license to practice requires that the country of origin of the interested foreign nurse complies with the following conditions: a. The country of origin has similar preparation for a nurse and has laws allowing Filipino nurses to practice in their country. b. The Philippines is recognized by the country of origin as one that has high quality of nursing education c. The country of origin requires Filipinos to take their own board examination d. The country of origin exempts Filipinos from passing their licensure examination 99. Nurses practicing the profession in the Philippines and are employed in government hospitals are required to pay taxes such as: a. Both income tax and professional tax b. Income tax only since they are exempt from paying professional tax c. Professional tax which is paid by all nurses employed in both government and private hospitals d. Income tax which paid every March 15 and professional tax which is paid every January 31. 100. According to RA 9173 Philippine Nursing Act of 2002, a graduate nurse who wants to take must licensure examination must comply with the following qualifications: a. At least 21 years old, graduate of BSN from a recognized school, and of good moral character b. At least 18 years old, graduate of BSN from a recognized school and of good moral character c. At least 18 years old, provided that when s/he passes the board exams, s/he must be at least 21 years old; BSN graduate of a recognized school, and of good moral character d. Filipino citizen or a citizen of a country where we have reciprocity; graduate of BSN from a recognized school and of good moral character 101. Which of the following is TRUE about membership to the Philippine Nurses Association (PNA)? a. Membership to PNA is mandatory and is stipulated in the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002 b. Membership to PNA is compulsory for newly registered nurses wanting to enter the practice of nursing in the country c. Membership to PNA is voluntary and is encouraged by the PRC Code of Ethics for Nurses d. Membership to PNA is required by government hospitals prior to employment 102. When the license of the nurse is revoked, it means that the nurse: a. Is no longer allowed to practice the profession for the rest of her life b. Will never have her/his license re-issued since it has been revoked c. May apply for re-issuance of his/her license based on certain conditions stipulated in RA 9173 d. Will remain unable to practice professional nursing
103. According to the current nursing law, the minimum educational qualification for a faculty member of a college of nursing is: a. Only a Master of Arts in Nursing is acceptable b. Masters degree in Nursing or in the related fields c. At least a doctorate in nursing d. At least 18 units in the Master of Arts in Nursing Program 104. The educational qualification of a nurse to become a supervisor in a hospital is: a. BSN with at least 9 units of post graduate studies in nursing administration b. Master of Arts in Nursing major in administration c. At least 2 years experience as a head nurse d. At least 18 units of post graduate studies in nursing administration 105. The Board of Nursing has quasi-judicial power. An example of this power is: a. The Board can issue rules and regulations that will govern the practice of nursing b. The Board can investigate violations of the nursing law and code of ethics c. The Board can visit a school applying for a permit in collaboration with CHED d. The Board prepares the board examinations 106. When a nurse causes an injury to the patient and the injury caused becomes the proof of the negligent act, the presence of the injury is said to exemplify the principle of: a. Force majeure c. Res ipsa loquitur b. Respondeat superior d. Holdover doctrine 107. Ensuring that there is an informed consent on the part of the patient before a surgery is done, illustrates the bioethical principle of: a. Beneficence c. Truth telling/veracity b. Autonomy d. Nonmaleficence 108. When a nurse is providing care to her/his patient, s/he must remember that she is duty bound not to do doing any action that will cause the patient harm. This is the meaning of the bioethical principle: a. Non-maleficence c. Justice b. Beneficence d. Solidarity 109. When the patient is asked to testify in court, s/he must abide by the ethical principle of: a. Privileged communication c. Solidarity b. Informed consent d. Autonomy 110. When the doctor orders do not resuscitate, this means that a. The nurse need not give due care to the patient since s/he is terminally ill b. The patient need not be given food and water after all s/he is dying c. The nurses and the attending physician should not do any heroic or extraordinary measures for the patient d. The patient need not be given ordinary care so that her/his dying process is hastened 111. Which of the following statements is TRUE of abortion in the Philippines? a. Induced abortion is allowed in cases of rape and incest b. Induced abortion is both a criminal act and an unethical act for the nurse
Page1
c. Abortion maybe considered acceptable if the mother is unprepared for the pregnancy d. A nurse who performs induced abortion will have no legal accountability if the mother requested that the abortion done on her. 112. Which of the following is NOT true about a hypothesis? Hypothesis is: a. testable b. proven c. stated in a form that it can be accepted or rejected d. states a relationship between variables 113. Which of the following measures will best prevent manipulation of vulnerable groups? a. Secure informed consent b. Payment of stipends for subjects c. Protect privacy of patient d. Ensure confidentiality of data 114. Which of the following procedures ensures that Ms. Montana has fully described to prospective subjects the nature of the study and the subjects rights? a. Debriefing c. Informed consent b. Full disclosure d. Covert data collection 115. This technique refers to the use of multiple referents to draw conclusions about what constitutes the truth a. Triangulation c. Meta-analysis b. Experiment d. Delphi technique 116. The statement, Ninety percent (90%) of the respondents are female staff nurses validates previous research findings (Santos, 2001; Reyes, 2005) that the nursing profession is largely a female dominated profession is an example of a. implication c. analysis b. interpretation d. conclusion 117. The study is said to be completed when Ms. Montana achieved which of the following activities? a. Published the results in a nursing journal. b. Presented the study in a research forum. c. The results of the study is used by the nurses in the hospital d. Submitted the research report to the CEO. 118. Situation: Stephanie is a nurse researcher of the Patient Care Services Division. She plans to conduct a literature search for her study. Which of the following is the first step in selecting appropriate materials for her review? a. Track down most of the relevant resources b. Copy relevant materials c. Organize materials according to function d. Synthesize literature gathered. 119. She knows that the most important categories of information in literature review are the: a. research findings c. methodology b. theoretical framework d. opinions 120. She also considers accessing electronic data bases for her literature review. Which of the following is the most useful electronic database for nurses? a. CINAHL c. HealthSTAR b. MEDLINE d. EMBASE 121. While reviewing journal articles, Stephanie got interested in reading the brief summary of the article placed at the beginning of the
journal report. Which of the following refers to this? a. Introduction c. Abstract b. Preface d. Background 122. She notes down ideas that were derived from the description of an investigation written by the person who conducted it. Which type of reference source refers to this? a. Footnote c. Primary source b. Bibliography d. Endnotes 123. She came across a study which is referred to as meta-analysis. Which of the following statements best defines this type of study? a. Treats the findings from one study as a single piece of data b. Findings from multiple studies are combined to yield a data set which is analyzed as individual data c. Represents an application of statistical procedures to findings from each report d. Technique for quantitatively combining and thus integrating the results of multiple studies on a given topic. 124. This kind of research gathers data in detail about a individual or groups and presented in narrative form, which is a. Case study c. Analytical b. Historical d. Experimental 125. Stephanie is finished with the steps in the conceptual phase when she has conducted the LAST step, which is a. formulating and delimiting the problem. b. review of related literature c. develop a theoretical framework d. formulate a hypothesis 126. She states the hypothesis of the study. Which of the following is a null hypothesis? a. Infants who are breastfed have the same weight as those who are bottle fed. b. Bottle-fed infants have lower weight than breast-fed infants c. Cuddled infants sleep longer than those who are left by themselves to sleep. d. Children of absentee parents are more prone to experience depression than those who live with both parents. 127. She notes that the dependent variable in the hypothesis Duration of sleep of cuddled infants is longer than those infants who are not cuddled by mothers is a. Cuddled infants c. Infants b. Duration of sleep d. Absence of cuddling 128. Situation: Aretha is a nurse researcher in a tertiary hospital. She is tasked to conduct a research on the effects of structured discharge plan for post-open heart surgery patients. She states the significance of the research problem. Which of the following statements is the MOST significant for this study? a. Improvement in patient care b. Development of a theoretical basis for nursing c. Increase the accountability of nurses. d. Improves the image of nursing 129. Regardless of the significance of the study, the feasibility of the study needs to be
Page1
considered. Which of the following is considered a priority? a. Availability of research subjects b. Budgetary allocation c. Time frame d. Experience of the researcher 130. Aretha knows that a good research problem exhibits the following characteristics; which one is NOT included? a. Clearly identified the variables/phenomenon under consideration. b. Specifies the population being studied. c. Implies the feasibility of empirical testing d. Indicates the hypothesis to be tested. 131. She states the purposes of the study. Which of the following describe the purpose of a study? 1. Establishes the general direction of a study 2. Captures the essence of the study 3. Formally articulates the goals of the study 4. Sometimes worded as an intent a. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 3, 4 b. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 132. She opts to use interviews in data collection. In addition to validity, what is the other MOST serious weakness of this method? a. Accuracy c. Objectivity b. Sensitivity d. Reliability 133. She plans to subject her instrument to pretesting. Which of the following is NOT achieved in doing pretesting? a. Determines how much time it takes to administer the instrument package b. Identify parts that are difficult to read or understand c. Determine the budgetary allocation for the study d. Determine if the measures yield data with sufficient variability 134. She tests the instrument whether it looks as though it is measuring appropriate constructs. Which of the following refers to this? a. Face validity b. Content validity c. Construct Validity d. Criterion-related validity 135. Which of the following questions would determine the construct validity of the instrument? a. What is this instrument really measuring? b. How representative are the questions on this test of the universe of questions on this topic? c. Does the question asked looks as though it is measuring the appropriate construct? d. Does the instrument correlate highly with an external criterion? 136. Which of the following experimental research designs would be appropriate for this study if she wants to find out a cause and effect relationship between the structured discharge plan and compliance to home care regimen among the subjects? a. True experiment c. Post-test only design b. Quasi experiment d. Solomon four-group 137. One hypothesis that she formulated is Compliance to home care regimen is greater among patients who received the structured
discharge plan than those who received verbal discharge instructions. Which is the independent variable in this study? a. Structured discharge plan b. Compliance to home care regimen c. Post-open heart surgery patients d. Greater compliance 138. Situation: Alyssa plans to conduct a study about nursing practice in the country. She decides to refresh her knowledge about the different types of research in order to choose the most appropriate design for her study. She came across surveys, like the Social Weather Station and Pulse Asia Survey. Which of the following is the purpose of this kind of research? a. Obtains information regarding the prevalence, distribution and interrelationships of variables within a population at a particular time b. Get an accurate and complete data about a phenomenon. c. Develop a tool for data gathering. d. Formulate a framework for the study 139. She will likely use self-report method. Which of the following self-report methods is the most respected method used in surveys? a. Personal interviews c. Telephone interviews b. Questionnaires d. Rating Scale 140. Alyssa reads about exploratory research. Which of the following is the purpose of doing this type of research? a. Inductively develops a theory based on observations about processes involving selected people b. Makes new knowledge useful and practical. c. Identifies the variables in the study d. Finds out the cause and effect relationship between variables 141. She reviews qualitative design of research. Which of the following is true about ethnographic study? a. Develops theories that increase the knowledge about a certain phenomenon. b. Focuses on the meanings of life experiences of people c. Deals with patterns and experiences of a defined cultural group in a holistic fashion d. In-depth investigation of a single entity 142. She knows that the purpose of doing ethnographic study is to: a. Understand the worldview of a cultural group b. Study the life experiences of people c. Determine the relationship between variables d. Investigate intensively a single entity 143. Alyssa wants to learn more about experimental design. Which is the purpose of this research? a. Test the cause and effect relationship among the variable under a controlled situation b. Identify the variables in the study c. Predicts the future based on current intervention d. Describe the characteristics, opinions, attitudes or behaviors of certain population about a current issue or event
Page1
144. She knows that there are three elements of experimental research. Which is NOT included? a. Manipulation c. Control b. Randomization d. Trial 145. Alyssa knows that there are times when only manipulation of study variables is possible and the elements of control or randomization are not attendant. Which type of research is referred to this? a. Field study b. Quasi-experiment c. Solomon-Four group design d. Post-test only design 146. One of the related studies that she reads is a phenomenological research. Which of the following questions is answered by this type of qualitative research? a. What is the way of life of this cultural group? b. What is the effect of the intervention to the dependent variable? c. What the essence of the phenomenon is as experienced by these people? d. What is the core category that is central in explaining what is going on in that social scene? 147. Other studies are categorized according to the time frame. Which of the following refers to a study of variables in the present which is linked to a variable that occurred in the past? a. Prospective design c. Cross sectional study b. Retrospective design d. Longitudinal study 148. Situation: Harry a new research staff of the Research and Development Department of a tertiary hospital is tasked to conduct a research study about the increased incidence of nosocomial infection in the hospital. Which of the following ethical issues should he consider in the conduct of his study? 1. Confidentiality of information given to him by the subjects 2. Self-determination which includes the right to withdraw from the study group 3. Privacy or the right not to be exposed publicly 4. Full disclosure about the study to be conducted a. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3, 4 b. 1, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 149. Which of the following is the best tool for data gathering? a. Interview schedule c. Use of laboratory data b. Questionnaire d. Observation 150. During data collection, Harry encounters a patient who refuses to talk to him. Which of the following is a limitation of the study? a. Patients refusal to fully divulge information. b. Patients with history of fever and cough c. Patients admitted or who seeks consultation at the ER and doctors offices d. Contacts of patients with history of fever and cough 151. What type of research is appropriate for this study? a. Descriptive- correlational c. Quasiexperiment b. Experiment d. Historical 152. In the statement, Frequent hand washing of health workers decreases the incidence of
nosocomial infections among post-surgery patients, the dependent variable is a. incidence of nosocomial infections b. decreases c. frequent hand washing d. post-surgery patients 153. Harry knows that he has to protect the rights of human research subjects. Which of the following actions of Harry ensures anonymity? a. Keep the identities of the subject secret b. Obtain informed consent c. Provide equal treatment to all the subjects of the study. d. Release findings only to the participants of the study 154. He is oriented to the use of electronic databases for nursing research. Which of the following will she likely access? a. MEDLINE b. National Institute of Nursing Research c. American Journal of Nursing d. International Council of Nurses 155. He develops methods for data gathering. Which of the following criteria of a good instrument refers to the ability of the instrument to yield the same results upon its repeated administration? a. Validity c. Sensitivity b. Specificity d. Reliability 156. Harry is aware of the importance of controlling threats to internal validity for experimental research, which include the following examples EXCEPT: a. History c. Attrition b. Maturation d. Design 157. His colleague asks about the external validity of the research findings. Which of the responses of Harry is appropriate? The research findings can be a. generalized to other settings or samples b. shown to result only from the effect of the independent variable c. reflected as results of extraneous variables d. free of selection biases 158. Student Nurse Monica is trying to recall her concept of inductive reasoning and deductive reasoning. Which among the following is a true statement regarding inductive and deductive reasoning? a. Inductive reasoning is the process of developing generalizations from specific observations whereas deductive reasoning is the process of developing specific predictions from general principles. b. Inductive reasoning is the process of developing specific predictions from general principles whereas deductive reasoning is the process of developing generalizations from specific observations. c. Both inductive and deductive reasoning deals with the process of developing observations. d. Both inductive and deductive reasoning deals with the process of developing specific predictions from general principles. 159. The statement, If we assume that separation anxiety occurs in hospitalized
children, then we might predict that the children in the Andres Bonifacio Memorial Hospital whose parents do not stay with their children will manifest symptoms of stress is an example of: a. Inductive Reasoning c. Logical Reasoning b. Deductive reasoning d. None of above 160. Student nurse Monica reviewed the two broad categories of research- quantitative and qualitative. Which among these utilize inductive reasoning? a. Quantitative research c. Both of these b. Qualitative research d. None of these 161. The scientific method is based on the positivist paradigm. Which among the following types of research is based on the positivist tradition? a. Quantitative research c. Phenomenology b. Qualitative research d. Ethnography 162. Student nurse Monica knows that quantitative researchers gather empirical evidence. Empirical evidence is: a. Evidence as produced by the mental capacity of man b. Evidence based on practice c. Evidence gathered through interview d. Evidence gathered directly or indirectly through the senses. SITUATION: Nurse Angela is trying to compare the effectiveness of patient-controlled analgesia as opposed to intramuscular analgesia in relieving pain after surgery. 163. In nurse Angelas research, the dependent variable is the: a. Patient-controlled analgesia b. Intramuscular analgesia c. Pain d. Surgery 164. The independent variable is the: a. Method of pain management b. Type of surgery c. Pain intensity d. Nursing intervention 165. The variable pain in Nurse Angelas research is also known as: a. Presumed cause c. Presumed attribute b. Presumed effect d. Presumption 166. The different analgesic methods used by Nurse Angela in her research is also known as: a. Presumed cause c. Presumed attribute b. Presumed effect d. Presumption 167. If nurse Angelas research is an experiment, the different analgesic methods used by nurse Angela may also be referred to as: a. Dependent variable c. Treatment variable b. Criterion variable d. Attribute variable
SITUATION: Nurse Rachel is reviewing the different types of research. 168. A study that examined the experience of children who received liver transplants from the time before transplantation, through surgery, and after is an example of what type of research? a. Quantitative research b. Qualitative research c. Experimental research d. Quasi- experimental research 169. If the researcher gave pineapple juice to one group of elderly clients and prune juice to another group of elderly clients to evaluate which method would facilitate elimination more effectively, this research is said to have utilized which type of design? a. Experimental c. Phenomenology b. Non-experimental d. Ethnography 170. If the researcher compared the elimination pattern of a vegetarian from that of a pesco-vegetarian, the researcher is said to have utilized which type of design? a. Experimental c. Phenomenology b. Non- experimental d. Ethnography 171. The researcher who will study the lived experience of participants in a reality- TV show who fed on insects, worms and frogs would utilize which type of design. a. Experimental c. Phenomenology b. Non- experimental d. Ethnography 172. The researcher who will study the dietary practices of ramp models, and beauty queens awho need to maintain a certain weight would utilize which type of research design? a. Experimental c. Phenomenology b. Non- experimental d. Ethnography SITUATION: Nurse Angelina is conceptualizing a research project for her team. She decided to conduct a quantitative study. 173. Which among the following should Nurse Angelina do first? a. Formulate a hypothesis b. Develop a research question c. Define the research framework d. Conduct a review literature 174. The conceptual phase involves all of the following EXCEPT? a. Designing the sampling plan b. Reviewing the related literature c. Defining the theoretical framework d. Formulating the hypothesis 175. Pre-testing the questionnaire is done in which phase of the research process? a. Conceptual phase c. Empirical phase b. Design and planning phase d. Analytical phase 176. Preparing the data for analysis is done in which phase of research process?
Page1
a. Design and planning phase b. Empirical phase c. Analytic phase d. Dissemination phase 177. All of the following may be done in the dissemination phase of the research process EXCEPT? a. Writing the research report b. Preparing a journal article c. Preparing an intervention protocol d. Presentation of the research in a conference SITUATION: Student Nurse Katrina is preparing nursing research problems. 178. All of the following are appropriate sources of research problems in nursing EXCEPT: a. Nursing literature b. Clinical exposure and experience c. Natural science journals d. Social issues of relevance to the health care community 179. Nurse Katrina is making a final selection of a research problem. The four most important considerations include the significance of the problem, the researchability of the problem, the feasibility of addressing the problem and the: a. Availability of the study participants b. Its interest to the researcher c. Ethical considerations d. Time and timing considerations 180. Nurse Katrina thought of the following research problem- Do patients of nurses with greater empathy experience less pain than those with less empathy? a. Quantitative research c. Experimental research b. Qualitative research d. QuasiExperimental 181. Which among the following statements is a testable hypothesis that could be derived from the problem- Do patients of nurses with greater empathy experience less pain than those with less empathy? a. Patients of nurses with greater empathy experience less pain. b. Patients of nurses with greater empathy experience less pain than those with less empathy. c. Patients of nurses with greater empathy experience more pain. d. Patients of nurses with greater empathy are not likely to experience pain. 182. A testable hypothesis is also known as: a. Null hypothesis c. Directional hypothesis b. Statistical hypothesis d. Research hypothesis SITUATION: Nurse Mira is asking her patient to sign a consent form. She is very careful with regard to ethical considerations in patient care. 183. When the patient affixes his signature in the consent form, the patient performs which element of an informed or enlightened consent? a. Authorization elements
b. Threshold elements or preconditions c. Information elements or full disclosure

d. Consent elements or voluntarism 184. The patient verbalization of, I consented to being a subject to the nurses research because I am afraid that I refuse, her attitude towards me will turn sour, is a clear violation of? a. Freedom for harm c. Right to full disclosure b. Right to self determination d. Right to privacy 185. Nurse Mira overhead a patient verbalizes, The nurse asked permission to have my photo taken, but I never expected that it will be used to solicit donations for this nursing unit! is a clear violation of? a. Freedom for harm c. Right to full disclosure b. Right to self determination d. Right to privacy 186. The principle of beneficence as applied in research include: a. The right to fair treatment b. The right to self determination c. The right to full disclosure d. The freedom from exploitation 187. The right to privacy is an aspect of the: a. Principle of beneficence b. Principle of outmost care c. Principle of justice d. Principle of respect for human dignity SITUATION: Nurse Leona encountered various research articles during her review of literature. Through this process, she realized that knowledge of various research designs is important in developing accurate and interpretable evidence. 188. Nurse Lorena read about the study in alcohol consumption among Americans over a 10 year period using data from 1984, 1990 and the 1995 National Alcohol Survey. This study revealed that the rate. This study utilized which among the following research designs? a. Cross-sectional design c. Cohort design b. Trend study d. Experimental research 189. Nurse Lorena also came across the study of Mindell and Jacobson in 2000 which assessed the sleep patterns and prevalence of sleep disorders during pregnancy. In this research, women at different points of pregnancy were compared: 8 to 12 weeks, 18 to 22 weeks, 25 to 28 weeks, 25 to 28 weeks and 35-38 weeks and its conclusions has it that sleep disturbances were especially common in late pregnancy. This study utilized which among the ff. research designs? a. Cross-sectional design c. Cohort design b. Trend study d. Experimental research 190. Nurse Lorena also read an article by Zust in 2000 about a pilot study that explored the feasibility of a future large-scale research on the effectiveness of a 20 week cognitive therapy intervention on depressed battered
Page1
woman. If this intervention will be compared with an ongoing intervention utilized for depressed battered woman, this study would utilize which among the following designs? a. Cross-sectional design c. Cohort design b. Trend study d. Experimental research 191. Nurse Lorena recalled that a pilot study is more than just a small-scale study. Which among the following statements about a pilot study is CORRECT? a. A pilot study is done to know whether the respondents understand the questions and the directions in a questionnaire or if they find certain questions objectionable. b. A pilot study is done to test protocols, data collection instruments, sample recruitment strategies and other aspects of a study in preparation for a larger study. c. A pilot study is done to test research hypothesis in preparation for a larger study. d. A pilot study is done to actively introduce some form of intervention and to have greater control over extraneous variables. 192. Nurse Lorena knows that the introduction of a 20 weeks cognitive therapy intervention on depressed battered women in the research article by Zust in 2000 is an example of? a. Control c. Random assignment b. Manipulation d. Random sampling SITUATION: Nurse Gelly is going through various concepts that would help enhance her research designs. 193. Internal validity refers to the extent to which it is possible to make an inference that the independent variable is truly causing the dependent variable and that the relationship between the two is not spurious. Which among the following types of research possess a high degree of interval validity? A. Pre-experimental design B. Correlational design C. Experimental design D. Quasi-Experimental design 194. Nurse Gelly learned that the threat of history refers to the occurrence of external events that took place concurrently with the independent variable and which could affect the dependent variable. Which among the following is an example of a threat of history? a. A group of researchers were studying the effects of a municipality- wide health education campaign through home visits encouraging pregnant rural women to stop smoking, have their anti- tetanus immunization and improve their nutritional practices. One- month after the campaign was launched; a new national health campaign on prenatal care was aired on the local radio.
b. A group of researchers were measuring the attitude of hospital nurses toward assisted suicide. They utilized a pretest that discussed about the various arguments for and against assisted suicide, outcomes of court cases and others. At the end of instruction, the same pretest was used as a post test to measure and observe whether the nurses attitude changed. c. A group of researchers are assessing the level of morale of clinical instructors assigned to different clinical areas in two different campuses of the same school of nursing. The level of morale was measured in both campuses before and after the intervention. During the period of intervention, some participants in the research declined to complete the post test questionnaire because of workload and deadlines to heat. d. A group of researchers were studying depression in women who delivered by cesarian delivery versus those who delivered vaginally. The subjects were compared regardless of their age, ethnicity, social class, obstetric history, mental health history and health status. 195. Nurse Gelly decided to observe women delivering twins in the hospital she is working in during her free days. Nurse Gelly utilizes which type of sampling? a. Convenience sampling c. Purposive sampling b. Quota Sampling d. Network sampling 196. Nurse Gelly changed the sampling design of her research. This time, she decided to draw out two names from a list of names of women pregnant with twins provided to her by five Obstetricians in the hospital she is working in. Which type of sampling is this? a. Simple random sampling c. Cluster sampling b. Stratified random sampling d. Systematic sampling 197. Nurse Gelly identified one sampling design as either probability or non probability sampling design. Which one is it? a. Simple random sampling c. Cluster sampling b. Stratified random sampling d. Systematic sampling SITUATION: Nurse Renan, the fourth year level coordinator, wanted to evaluate the teaching performance of clinical instructors under his supervision. 198. Nurse Renan decided to conduct a short interview of every 3rd student nurse who would drop by the nurses station. He is conducting what type of sampling. a. Probability sampling c. Both of these b. Non probability sampling d. None of these 199. Nurse Renan decided to jot down notes regarding his short interview. Upon
Page1
immediate inspection of his notes, he noticed that majority of those interviewed gave a positive feedback regarding the teaching performance of their clinical instructors. This observation is a manifestation of which type of measure of central tendency. a. Mean c. Mode b. Median d. None of these 200. Nurse Renan asked the students to rate the teaching performance of their clinical instructors using a five-point scale where five is the highest and one is the lowest. He noticed that Clinical Instructor A had a mean score of 3.8 Renan derived this value by? a. Inspecting the frequency distributions of scores b. Dividing the sum of all scores by each and every score in the distribution. c. Dividing the sum of all scores by 100. d. Dividing the middle values of an array by 2. 199. All of the following statements regarding the mean is correct EXCEPT: a. The mean is equal to the sum of all scores divided by the total number of scores. b. The mean is affected by each and every score in the distribution. c. The mean fluctuates less than the mode or the median. d. The mean is the most stable index of variability. 200. The teaching performance of the clinical instructions identified by the students using a five- point scale where five is the highest and one is the lowest belongs to what level of measurement. a. Nominal c. Interval b. Ordinal d. Ratio SITUATION: Nurse Bien is applying her knowledge on descriptive and inferential statistics in her research. 201. Nurse studied the relationship between the attitude towards health care professionals of pregnant women and their capacity to focus on instructions during the active and transitional stage of labor. She decided to make a graph to present the results of her findings. Which among the following graphs will she use? a. Pie chart b. Component bar diagram c. Histogram d. Scatter plot 202. In her study, nurse Bien decided to use a significance level of .05. This means that: a. Nurse Bien is accepting the risk that out of 100 samples drawn from a population, a true null hypothesis will be rejected only 5 times. b. Nurse Bien is accepting the risk that out of 100 samples drawn from a population, a true null hypothesis will be is only correct in five cases.
Page1
c. Nurse Bien is accepting the risk that only 5 samples drawn from a population will cause the true null hypothesis to be accepted. d. None of the above. 203. Nurse Bien went through several research articles. She read about the experiment done by M. Gesmudo that compared the effects of using 70% Isopropyl Alcohol, PNSS and sterile water on the length of cord separation time with a mean of 6.50 days(S.D.=!.85 days), followed by Sterile Water with a mean of 7.11 days (S.D.=2.32 days), 70% Isopropyl Alcohol had the longest length of cord separation time with a mean of 9.56 days (S.D.= 2.07 days). Nurse Bien knows that to test the significance of difference between means, the researcher used which among the following? a. T-Test b. Analysis of variance(ANOVA) c. Pearsons product-moment correlation d. Chi-square test 204. Nurse Bien also read about the research of Steward and Pridham in 2002 which examined the growth patterns of extremely low-birth-weight preterm infants. The researchers found a significant negative correlation between the infants birth weight and the number of days of ventilator support and a positive correlation between birth weight and growth velocity. The researchers utilized which among the following statistical test? a. T-Test b. Analysis of variance(ANOVA) c. Pearsons product-moment correlation d. Chi-square test 205. Nurse Bien knows the importance of nursing practice that is based on evidence. When asked what type of research design is considered a gold standard in intervention studies, a correct answer would be: a. Meta- analysis b. Meta- synthesis c. randomized controlled trials d. Cohort studies 206. Two nurses are not in violation of a clients right to confidentiality if the are discussing client information. a. with a social worker in anticipation of discharge b. in the cafeteria during their lunch hour c. in the hallway outside the clients room d. about a comatose person 207. The nurse explains to a client that a Patients Bill of Rights, created in 1973 by the American Hospital Association , was developed to: a. provide standards of care for all clients b. create policy and procedures guidelines c. protect the client from civil liberties violations d. ensure safe and competent medical care 208. Upon arriving on the unit one morning, the nurse discover of a clients room stating PATIENT IS BLIND, PROVIDE ASSISSTANCE. The nurse is aware that this violates the clients rights to
Page1
a. safe care b. privacy c. privileged communication d. habeas corpus 209. Telling the truth. a. autonomy d. beneficence b. veracity e. justice c. fidelity f. nonmaleficence 210. To do or promote good. a. autonomy d. beneficence b. veracity e. justice c. fidelity f. nonmaleficence 211. To promote independent choice, self determination and freedom of action a. autonomy d. beneficence b. veracity e. justice c. fidelity f. nonmaleficence 212. To promote fair judgment. a. autonomy d. beneficence b. veracity e. justice c. fidelity f. nonmaleficence 213. To be truthful. a. autonomy d. beneficence b. veracity e. justice c. fidelity f. nonmaleficence 214. To have primary loyalty to patients. a. autonomy d. beneficence b. veracity e. justice c. fidelity f. nonmaleficence 215. The principles that govern right and proper conduct of a person regarding life, biology and the health professionals is referred to as: a. Morality c. Religion b. Values d. Bioethics 216. Among the following virtue ethics, which of the following assist an individual to control his or her feelings when a challenging situation arises? a. Temperance c. Justice b. Prudence d. Fortitude 217. Among the following virtue ethics, which of the following rectifies the ignoring of a client who is considered as Impossible case and instead, saving a client who is in severe bleeding because of incomplete amputation? a. Prudence c. Character b. Justice d. Fortitude 218. Saving a patients life, performing an act of charity as well as the prevention of harm are all in the principle of: a. Beneficence c. Double Effect b. Nonmaleficence d. Paternalism 219. Gluttony, drunkenness, too much sex and drug addiction are all the violation of what Virtue ethics? a. Temperance c. Justice b. Prudence d. Fortitude 220. Putting a non skid rags and side bars on a bathroom of an elderly patient is a virtue ethics called: a. Temperance c. Justice b. Prudence d. Fortitude 221. The purpose of having a nurses code of ethics is: a. Delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice b. Identify nursing action recommended for specific health care situations
c. To help the public understand professional conduct expected of nurses d. To define the roles and functions of the health care givers, nurses, clients 222. This principle states that a person has unconditional worth and has the capacity to determine his own destiny: a. Bioethics c. Justice b. Fidelity d. Autonomy 223. It may be redundant that health care provider including professional nurse agree to do no harm to their client. The principle that describes this agreement is called: a. Beneficence c. Nonmaleficence b. Accountability d. Respect for autonomy 224. A childs immunization may cause discomfort during administration, but the benefits of protection from disease, both for the individual and for society, outweigh the temporary discomforts. This involves the principle of: a. Beneficence c. Nonmaleficence b. Fidelity d. Respect for autonomy 225. If the nurse assesses a client for pain and then offer a plan to manage the pain, the principle that encourages the nurse to monitor the clients response to the plan is: a. Beneficence c. Nonmaleficence b. Fidelity d. Respect for autonomy 226. What is the principle to hold on when caring for children who have been abandoned and abused? a. Respect c. Autonomy b. Constant assurance d. Allocation of resources 227. The principle that tells children are to be treated accordingly as person is: a. Beneficence c. Justice b. Respect d. Autonomy 228. When there is only one pacemaker and there are many patients needing it, the bioethical principle to be used is: a. Beneficence c. Justice b. Respect d. Autonomy 229. In choosing sharp intramuscular for injections, you are practicing principle of: a. Beneficence c. Justice b. Respect d. Non maleficence 230. Which of the following patients rights can be suspended for a valid reason? a. Right to privacy b. Right to freedom from physical restraints and seclusion c. right to treatment with the last restriction d. right to confidentiality of records 231. Ethics and law have sometimes been distinguished in the following way: the law attempts to resolve conflict in society by regulating behavior, whereas ethics is concerned with determining the rules for resolving conflict both in belief and in the behavior or action based on those beliefs. Ethics thus emphasizes:
a. the reasons that can be given as to

why certain beliefs should be adopted and certain actions done. b. the ways in which individuals can be excused from being held responsible for their actions. c. how a rational resolution of conflicting beliefs is unattainable due to the different backgrounds of people. d. the difference between an individual's religious training and the requirements of the laws of his state and nation. 232. An elderly woman told her daughters that if she ever ended up with dementia she wouldn't want to live like that. Years later she developed senile dementia and her daughters had her move into a nursing home. Although she did not recognize family or friends, she enjoyed the company of others and the nursing home's cat. When she stopped eating, her daughters were asked whether she should receive a feeding tube. a. The daughters may approve the insertion of a feeding tube with the proviso that future triggers could lead to its removal or nonuse. b. The daughters should consider their mothers previously stated wishes as an advance directive and must not place a feeding tube. c. The daughters cannot decide for their mother because of lack of both a power of attorney for health care and an advance directive. d. Before placing a feeding tube, the daughters should obtain a court order. 233. A patient who has coronary artery disease and congestive heart failure shows his physician his advance directive that states he wants to receive cardiopulmonary resuscitation and other forms of life-sustaining treatment has deeply held beliefs that suggest that not trying to live is tantamount to committing suicide. What should the doctor do and say to the patient in response to this? a. The doctor should educate the patient about the near futility of CPR under these circumstances. b. The doctor might want to ask the patient to explore this further with the chaplain. c. The patient's expression of a preference should be explored to understand its origins. d. All the above. 234. A patient tells his family that he would never want to be "kept alive like a vegetable". The term "vegetable" should be understood by the doctor to mean: a. The patient does not want any heroics or extraordinary treatments. b. Pull the plug if the patient is ever in terminal state on a respirator. c. If the patient is in a comatose state, let him die. d. The doctor should interpret the term as vague and not helpful in advance care planning discussions unless it is clarified.
235.
An elderly man with end-stage emphysema presents to the emergency room awake and alert and complaining of shortness of breath. An evaluation reveals that he has pneumonia. His condition deteriorates in the emergency room and he has impending respiratory failure, though he remains awake and alert. A copy of a signed and witnessed living will is in his chart stipulates that he wants no "invasive" medical procedures that would "serve only to prolong my death." No surrogate decision maker is available. Should mechanical ventilation be instituted? a. The presence of a living will or other advance directive obviates the responsibility to involve a competent patient in medical decision making. b. If the patient has remained awake and alert, his living will is irrelevant to medical decision making. c. The potential risks and benefits of mechanical ventilation need not be presented to the patient because of the presence of a valid living will. d. Even if the patient refuses mechanical ventilation therapy, his wishes need not be honored because he is in the emergency room. 236. The same patient described in Question #4 presents confused and somnolent. A copy of a signed and witnessed living will is in his chart stipulates that he wants no "invasive" medical procedures that would "serve only to prolong my death." No surrogate decision maker is available. Should mechanical ventilation be instituted? a. Mechanical ventilation should NOT be instituted because it serve only to "prolong death" in this patient. b. Mechanical ventilation should be instituted because of the intent of the directive in the living will is evident. c. Mechanical ventilation should be instituted because the patients pneumonia represents a potentially reversible condition from which the patient may recover fully. d. The living will is NOT a helpful guide to mechanical ventilation decision-making in this patient. 237. Jose is a 62-year-old man who just had a needle biopsy of the pancreas showing adenocarcinoma. You run into his brother in the hall, and he begs you not to tell Jose because the knowledge would kill him even faster. A family conference to discuss the prognosis is already scheduled for later that afternoon. What is the best way for the doctor to handle the situation? a. The doctor should honor the request of the family member who is protecting his beloved brother from the bad news. b. The doctor should tell Jose's brother that withholding information is not permitted under any circumstance. c. Jose should withhold informing the patient about the pancreatic cancer because of the grave diagnosis.
Page1
Page1
d. The doctor should ask Jose how he wants to handle the information in front of the rest of the family, and allow for some family discussion time for this matter. 238. A 25-year-old female medical student was doing a rotation in an HIV clinic. Sara is a 30-year-old woman who dropped out of college after she found that she contracted HIV from her husband, who has hemophilia. In talking to Sara, it turns out that the medical student and the patient shared a number of things--both are from the same part of Montana originally, also have young children, and like to cook. Sara now has advanced HIV. How should the medical student tell Sara about the advanced HIV and that she will need some blood tests without making her angry or upset? a. The medical student should follow the protocol for breaking bad news because it covers everything. b. The medical student should tell Sara about the advanced HIV and the need for blood tests and not be concerned about provoking a reaction. c. The medical student should get another perspective perhaps from someone in clinic who has known Sara before breaking the bad news. d. None of the above. 239. A young mother has just been informed that her 2-year-old son has leukemia. The mother refuses permission to begin chemotherapy and informs the oncology team that their family physician (a naturopath) will follow the child's illness. What should you do as the team physician? a. I should wait to hear from the family physician. b. I should honor the mothers request in this situation. c. I should arrange promptly a care conference with both the mother and the family's naturopathic physician to discuss the chemotherapy. d. If chemotherapy offers a clear and compelling survival benefit as the only hope this child has, and the mother refuses treatment, I am professionally obligated to seek a court order to appoint a guardian for the child. 240. Your patient has been suffering from chronic low back pain for many years now. She voices her frustration with the various treatment modalities that you have been trying and says her friend had recommended a homeopath. How do you respond? a. Encourage your patient to consult with local experts or the library to find out more about what homeopathy can offer. b. Inform the patient that homeopathy is ineffective in treating her medical condition. c. Respond by saying that complementary medical therapy is reasonable for her condition and definitely not harmful. d. Encourage your patient to see a homeopath and discourage her from staying in contact with you.
Your 36-year-old patient has just tested positive for HIV. He asks that you not inform his wife of the results and claims he is not ready to tell her yet. What would you say to your patient? a. Encourage the patient to share the information with his wife on his own, giving him a bit more time if necessary. b. Tell the patient that his wife is at serious risk for being infected with HIV and that you have a duty to ensure that she knows of the risk. c. Tell the patient that public health law requires reporting both the patient and any known sexual partners to local health officers. d. All the above. 242. A 75-year-old woman shows signs of abuse that appears to be inflicted by her husband. As he is her primary caregiver, she feels dependent on him and pleads with you not to say anything to him about it. How would you handle this situation? a. This is a case of elder abuse and the doctor is required to always report incidents of abuse to the authorities. b. The doctor is not permitted under HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) to report the abuse. c. The laws supporting reporting elder abuse allow the doctor to break confidentiality and report suspected abuse. d. The patient should not be reported. Instead, she should obtain support and access to other services in order to maintain her primary caregiver. 243. A 60-year-old man has a heart attack and is admitted to the medical floor with a very poor prognosis. He asks that you not share any of his medical information with his wife as he does not think she will be able to take it. His wife catches you in the hall and asks about her husband's prognosis. What are you required to do legally? a. The doctor should inform the wife about her husbands poor prognosis. b. The doctor is should not divulge the prognosis to the wife, but he should ask the nurse to let the wife know about her husbands condition. c. The wife is certainly affected by her husband's health and prognosis and every effort should be made to encourage an open dialogue between them. d. The doctor should not encourage the patient to talk to his wife about his condition. 244. A mother brings her 18-month-old daughter to your office for a routine physical examination. The child has had no immunizations. Her mother says that they believe in naturopathic medicine and prefer not to immunize their children. You would tell the mother in this situation that: a. You respect her (the mothers) wishes and say no more. b. The risk faced by unimmunized individuals is relatively high. c. The mother's refusal to immunize poses a significant likelihood of harm to her child.
241.
Page1
d. The physician should be sure that the child's mother understands the risks of remaining unimmunized an attempt to correct any misconceptions about the degree of risk associated with getting immunized. 245. A 23-year-old Navajo man has injured his leg after a fall. He presents to the emergency room of the reservation hospital where he is complaining of pain. His leg appears to be broken. The man requests that you call a medicine man before doing anything further. What should the doctor do? a. Call the local medicine man before proceeding with treatment of the leg fracture. b. The emergency room medical doctor is under no obligation to communicate with a medicine man about the patients leg fracture. c. Tell the patient that he will not call his medicine man. d. Because the patient came to the emergency room, the doctor is allowed to begin treatment then call the medicine man. 246. A 3-year-old child is brought to your clinic with a fever and stiff neck. You are quite certain the child has meningitis. When you discuss the need for a spinal tap and antibiotic treatment, the parents refuse permission, saying, "We'd prefer to take him home and have our minister pray over him." How should the physician handle this? a. The physician should do what the parents request to take the child home. b. The physician should call the parents religious leader and have him come to the hospital before providing standard medical therapy. c. The physician has no duty to provide treatment to the child when the parents refuse treatment. d. When efforts to obtain parental permission to treat the patient fail, the physician is justified in seeking legal help or may be legally authorized to proceed with the procedure and treatment of the child. 247. Mr. H is a 24-year-old man who resides in a skilled nursing facility, where he is undergoing rehabilitation from a cervical spine injury. The injury left him quadriplegic. He has normal cognitive function and no problems with respiration. He is admitted to your service for treatment of pneumonia. The resident suggests antibiotics, chest physiotherapy, and hydration. One day while signing out Mr. H to the cross covering intern, the intern says "he should be a DNR, based on medical futility." How would you respond to the intern? a. The patient should be a DNR because in this case CPR offers no chance of meaningful benefit to the patient and the probability of success is <1%. b. The patient should NOT be a DNR based on medical futility. c. The patient should be a DNR because even if the CPR is successful, his quality of life is below the minimum acceptable based on his quadriplegia and his pneumonia. d. The patient should be a DNR because his quality of life is without value.
Mrs. W is an 81-year-old woman with recurrent colon cancer with liver metastases admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. Because of her poor prognosis, you approach her about a DNR order, but she requests to be "a full code." Can you write a DNR order anyway? a. No, because the patient requested a full code. b. Yes, because Mrs. W is elderly, has a diagnosis of recurrent metastatic cancer, and the chance of a successful DNR is 0%. c. No, because the CPR for Mrs. W and in her condition could not be called "futile." d. Yes, because hospital policy allows doctors to write a DNR in this situation. 249. Mrs. W is an 81-year-old woman with recurrent colon cancer with liver metastases admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. Mrs. W still wants to be a "full code." Your intern suggests that you sign her out as a "slow code." Should you do this? a. Yes, because slow codes are ethically justifiable. b. Yes, because the "slow code" allows the appearance of respecting the patient's desire for CPR. c. No, because the slow code is not actually complying with the request for a full code and is ethically unjustifiable. d. No, because slow codes are illegal. 250. Mrs. P is a 74-year-old woman presenting for emergent treatment of a fracture-dislocation of her right hip, suffered in a fall at her nursing home. She appears frail, but is alert and oriented. She is accompanied by her daughter, and both state that they want her to receive full medical care. On admission two hours earlier, the emergency room physician heard a loud systolic murmur, and echocardiogram revealed critical aortic stenosis, with a valve area of 0.3 cm2. The surgeon suggests that the patient, because of her cardiac status and age, should have a DNR order in the chart. Do you agree? a. No, because the patient has not consented to the DNR order. b. No, because the patient only suffered a fall at her nursing home. c. Yes, because cardiac arrest in the setting of critical aortic stenosis carries virtually zero chance of survival and CPR in this setting can be termed medically futile. d. Yes, because the hospital policy allows the doctor to write such an order.
248.
WHAT IS YOUR GOAL? TO TOP THE BOARD EXAM!!!
Page1

LMR - J. Andres

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

LMR - J. Andres

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

THE SULTAN REVIEW GROUPNURSING REVIEW 2nd Floor New World Building Paredes cor.

NURSING LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, RESEARCH & BIOETHICS

b. Threshold elements or preconditions c. Information elements or full disclosure

a. the reasons that can be given as to

WHAT IS YOUR GOAL? TO TOP THE BOARD EXAM!!!

You might also like