Exam Title

: Symantec 250-311 : Administration of Backup Exec for Windows

Version : R6.1

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 1. The Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager supports the use of which database solutions? (Choose two.) A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 B. MySQL Server 2005 C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 D. Oracle Database 11g E. Oracle Database 9i Answer: AC 2. In the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console, where do you modify replication? A. Admim > Servers > Server Properties > Directory Servers B. Admin > Servers > Local Site > Replication Partner C. Policies > Management Server Lists > Replication D. Admin > Servers > Database > Tasks Answer: B 3. What are the three configurable actions in TruScan Proactive Threat Scan? (Choose three.) A. log suspect process only B. set a public SNMP trap C. quarantine suspect process D. terminate the suspect process E. generate dump of system state F. suspend the suspect process Answer: ACD 4. A computer is configured in Mixed Control mode. The administrator creates and applies a firewall policy to the computer that has a rule that allows FTP traffic above the blue line and another rule that blocks LDAP traffic below the blue line. On the computer, local rules are created to allow LDAP traffic and block FTP. Which traffic flow behavior should be expected on the local computer? A. Both FTP and LDAP traffic are allowed. B. Both FTP and LDAP traffic are blocked. C. FTP is blocked and LDAP is allowed. D. FTP is allowed and LDAP is blocked. Answer: A 5. What is one reason for disabling learned applications? A. Learned applications can often expose usernames and passwords. B. Learned applications require promiscuous mode. C. Learned applications are often legitimate programs.

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 D. Learned applications are illegal in some countries. Answer: D 6. An administrator believes that client computers are running different software versions of Symantec Endpoint Protection. Which report type shows which client computers are running different software versions? A. Application and Device Control Report B. System Report C. Compliance Report D. Computer Status Report Answer: D 7. Which statement is true about the Database Backup and Restore utility? A. It only backs up an embedded database. B. It allows you to define the backup location. C. It saves database backups to the local computer. D. It is run from the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console. Answer: C 8. How do administrators back up the embedded database using the tools provided with the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager? A. select Start > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Backup B. select Start > Programs > Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager > Database Backup and Restore C. launch Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager Console > Admin page > Database Backup and Restore D. launch Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager Console > Admin page > launch Backup and Restore Wizard Answer: B 9. What controls access from one network segment to another? A. hub B. MTA C. sensor D. firewall Answer: D 10. Which label is given to a program or algorithm that replicates itself over a computer network and usually performs malicious actions? A. virus B. zero-day exploit C. spam

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 D. worm Answer: D 11. Which five components are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.) A. antispam B. application and device control C. full disk encryption D. host integrity E. antivirus F. antispyware G. content filtering H. intrusion prevention I. client firewall J. asset management Answer: BEFHI 12. Which two statements are true about Symantec Endpoint Protection TruScan Proactive Threat Scan? (Choose two.) A. It inspects encrypted network traffic. B. It evaluates process behavior. C. It uses malicious code detection signatures. D. It blocks attackers' IP addresses. E. It detects unknown threats. Answer: BE 13. Which Network Threat Protection technologies of the Symantec Endpoint Protection client provide the primary protection layers against network attacks? A. Proactive Threat Protection and Network Access Control B. Proactive Threat Protection and Client Firewall C. Intrusion Prevention and Client Firewall D. Client Firewall and Network Access Control Answer: C 14. Lifeline Supply Company wants to reduce or eliminate the HelpDesk calls they receive due to end users modifying, moving, or deleting configuration files. Which component of Symantec Endpoint Protection will allow the IT administrator to prevent users from altering configuration files? A. TruScan Proactive Threat Scan B. Device Control

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 C. Application Control D. Host Integrity Answer: C 15. Lifeline Supply Company found during a recent audit that the current security solution for their desktops and servers missed several rootkits within their environment. These rootkits have compromised several company computers. Which protection technology in Symantec Endpoint Protection could remediate these rootkits? A. Host Integrity B. Antivirus and Antispyware Protection C. Network Threat Protection D. Application and Device Control Answer: B 16. Which page is used to create login accounts to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console? A. Policies B. Home C. Admin D. Clients Answer: A 17. A company has a large sales force who travel with laptops. They want to block USB access on the laptops when they are disconnected from the corporate network. Which two things are required to achieve this? (Choose two.) A. multiple sites B. multiple locations C. firewall policy D. device control policy E. host integrity policy Answer: BD 18. Where can you edit a non-shared policy? A. Clients B. Monitors C. Home D. Admin Answer: A 19. Refer to the exhibit.

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 Inheritance is turned on for groups LLSCO, Group A, Laptops, and Group 2 (outlined). Without turning inheritance off, which top level group must be modified to affect users in the Laptop group? A. Desktops B. Laptops C. Group 1 D. Group A Answer: C 20. The administrators at Lifeline Supply Company have a manufacturing facility that runs three shifts. Employees at the facility must share computers. The administrators want the ability to apply different policies/configurations for each shift. How can the administrator configure the environment to allow policies to be applied to each shift? (Choose two.) A. create one group for all computers in the facility B. create one group for all users in the facility C. create one group for all computers on each shift D. create one group for all users on each shift E. switch the clients to computer mode F. switch the clients to user mode Answer: DF 21. Lifeline Supply Company has a number of sales people who travel with laptops. They have decided to put them into a single group named "Laptops" and implement location awareness. They have set up four locations using multiple criteria. When the laptop connects to the network and two locations evaluate as true, which location's policies would be applied? A. the last edited location B. the default location C. the Global group location D. the first alphabetically listed location Answer: B 22. A group is configured for Pull communication. New policies become available on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager that manages the clients within this group. When do the clients get the new policies from the server? A. at the scheduled LiveUpdate time B. as soon as the policies are saved C. on the next connection to the Group Update Provider

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 D. at the scheduled heartbeat interval Answer: D 23. To enable TruScan Proactive Threat Scans, which Symantec Endpoint Protection technology must be installed? A. Network Access Control B. Network Threat Protection C. Antivirus and Antispyware D. Device Control Answer: C 24. As the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator, you are importing from an Active Directory environment. Your director wants to know which object types are being imported. Which three objects are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Choose three.) A. user accounts B. security groups C. organizational units D. computers E. security policies F. resources Answer: ACD 25. A new employee with Lifeline Supply Company has just been placed in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager group. The employee has been granted limited administrator access to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager computer. All credentials have been set up by the security teams for network and system access via the directory server. Which password must the employee use to log in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager once the account is created? A. the password associated with the directory server domain administrator account B. the password established in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager C. the password associated with the Active Directory user account D. the password associated with the limited administrator account Answer: C 26. Which group must you select within the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console to manually import an organizational unit structure from Active Directory? A. Global B. Temporary

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 C. Clients D. Sites Answer: A 27. On which two ports can the LDAP query run when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager connects to the LDAP server? (Choose two.) A. 80 B. 139 C. 389 D. 443 E. 636 Answer: CE 28. You can export a client package as a single _____. A. .ZIP file B. .EXE file C. .RAR file D. .TAR file Answer: C 29. Which installation type options are available when defining Client Install Settings? A. Interactive, Silent, and Unattended B. Interactive, Restart, and Silent C. Restart, Silent, and Unmanaged D. Enable, Log, and Silent Answer: A 30. Using the Migration and Deployment Wizard, how can you identify computers for deployment? A. by defining the appropriate management server list B. by selecting the IP addresses from a domain server C. by importing a text file of computer names D. by importing a text file of computer IP addresses Answer: D 31. How can you verify that the client is receiving the latest policy updates from the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM)? A. by comparing the client's software version to the version on the SEPM B. by comparing the client's policy package size to the SEPM's policy package size C. by comparing the client's policy serial number to the SEPM's policy serial number D. by comparing the client's policy file permissions to the SEPM's policy file permissions

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 Answer: C 32. Which command set can you locate in the Internet Information Service (IIS) logs to verify that the client is communicating with the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager? A. OPEN and READ B. READ and CLOSE C. GET and POST D. GET and PUT Answer: C 33. In which Client Management Log can you identify when the client last connected to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager? A. Control B. Security C. System D. Compliance Answer: C 34. The Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator is configuring a client as a Group Update Provider. The Symantec Endpoint Protection client firewall is enabled on this client. For the Group Update Provider to communicate with the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager, the administrator must ensure the client firewall policy permits traffic on which default port? A. 1443 B. 2967 C. 8443 D. 9090 Answer: B 35. When a Group Update Provider (GUP) goes offline, what provides definition updates to the GUP's clients? A. Symantec LiveUpdate Servers B. Internal LiveUpdate Server C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager D. A different Group Update Provider Answer: C 36. What does a client do when communicating in Pull Mode? A. keeps a constant connection to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager B. connects at the LiveUpdate interval C. operates exclusively in client mode

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