OCET 2011

Question Booklet Series : A

Roll No. In Figures

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics

Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A

1. The Pauli exclusion principle is obeyed by : (A) all neutral particles (B) all charged particles (C) all particles with spin quantum numbers of 1/2 (D) all particles with spin quantum numbers of 1 The E in LASER stands for : (A) entropy (C) energy X-rays are deflected by: (A) an electric field (C) both the electric and magnetic fields

2.

(B) electric (D) emission

3.

(B) a magnetic field (D) none of the electric and magnetic fields

4.

Which of the following is a necessary and sufficient condition for a simple harmonic motion ? (A) Constant time period (B) Constant acceleration (C) Proportionality between acceleration and displacement from equilibrium position (D) Proportionality between restoring force and displacement from equilibrium position Which of the following nuclei can not be used for the NMR analysis ? (B) 12C (A) 1H (C) 19F (D) 31P Absorption of light in the ultraviolet region is because of the : (A) electronic transitions only (B) vibrational level transitions only (C) rotational level transitions only (D) rotational and the vibrational transitions. The electric field in unpolarized light : (A) has no direction at any time (B) rotates rapidly (C) is always parallel to the direction of propagation (D) changes direction randomly and often Heat has the same unit as : (A) temperature (C) energy/time

5.

6.

7.

8.

(B) work (D) heat capacity

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672

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9.

An inelastic collision is one in which : (A) momentum is not conserved but kinetic energy is conserved (B) total mass is not conserved but momentum is conserved (C) neither kinetic energy nor momentum is conserved (D) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved

10. A magnetic field exerts a force on a charged particle : (A) always (B) never (C) if the particle is moving across the field lines (D) if the particle is moving along the field lines 11. The number of all possible matrices of order 22 with each element 0 or 1 is : (A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32 12. If V =
4 3 dr = 001 ? r , at what rate in cubic units in V increasing when r = 10 and 3 dt

(A) (C) 40

(B) 4 (D) 4/3

13. The maximum value of f(x) = 5 | x 1 | for x R is (A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

14. If

(3x
0

+ 2x + K)dx = 0, then K is equal to : (B) 1 (D) 1

(A) 2 (C) 2

15. The general solution of the differential equation xdy = ydx is : (A) y = eKx (B) y = Kx (C) xy = K 16. If f(x) = (A) 1 (C) 1 (D) y = K logex

1 , g(x) = f[f(x)] and h(x) = f[g(x)], then what is the value of f(x) g(x) h(x) ? 1x

(B) 0 (D) 2

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672

17. If

a2 + b2 ab = 5, then 2 is equal to : a+b a b2

2 3 5 13

(A) (C)

(B) (D)

3 2 13 5

(23)3 + 027
18. The value of (A) 26 (C) 227 19. The last digit in 9200 is : (A) 9 (C) 3

(23)2 69 + 09

is equal to : (B) 233 (D) 2

(B) 7 (D) 1

20. About which axes, will be the graph of y = x2, x R is symmetric ? (A) x-axis (B) y-axis (C) both axes (D) none of the axes 21. Amphipathic molecules contain : (A) a polar group (C) a polar and a nonpolar group 22. Lysosomes contain enzymes known as : (A) Transferases (C) Ligases

(B) a nonpolar group (D) an alkyl group

(B) Hydrolases (D) Polymerases

23. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have all of the following except : (A) a plasma membrane (B) a genome of DNA (C) the ability to replicate (D) subcellular organelles 24. Biological membranes are associated with all of the following except : (A) free movement of proteins and nucleic acids across the membrane (B) sites for biochemical reactions (C) release of protons when damaged (D) prevention of free diffusion of ionic solutes

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672

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25. Endonuclease is an enzyme that hydrolyzes a : (A) nucleotide from only the 3' end of an oligonucleotide (B) nucleotide from only the 5' end of an oligonucleotide (C) bond only in a specific sequence of nucleotides (D) a phosphodiester bond located anywhere in a polynucleotide 26. microRNAs (miRNAs) are : (A) microscopic RNA molecules (B) short single stranded RNAs ~23 nucleotides long with regulatory activities (C) double stranded RNA ~23 nucleotides long with regulatory activities (D) large RNA molecules 27. Glycine sidechain has : (A) an aryl group (C) a hydrogen atom

(B) a phenyl group 10% (D) a hydroxyl group

28. Which one among following is not a true amino acid ? (A) glycine (B) histidine (C) glutamic acid (D) proline 29. Proteins can be separated according to mass by : (A) isoelectric focussing (B) ion exchange chromatography (C) SDS-PAGE (D) PAGE 30. Sequences that can be several thousand base pairs upstream or downstream of an eukaryotic promoter and which increases gene expression are : (A) CAAT Box (B) TATA Box (C) Insulators (D) Enhancers 31. DNA replication is : (A) semi conservative (B) totally conservative (C) sometimes totally sometimes partially conservative (D) not at all conservative 32. Telomeres are : (A) at the end of bacterial chromosomes (B) at the end of plasmid DNA (C) at the end of linear chromosomes in eukaryotes (D) in between chromosomes in eukaryotes
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33. RecA is a protein involved in : (A) translation (C) splicing

(B) recombination (D) transcription

34. A transition mutation is (A) substitution of a purine/pyrimidine with purine/pyrimidine (B) substitution of a purine with pyrimidine or vice versa (C) insertion of one or two bases into the DNA chain (D) always is a missense mutation 35. The sigma subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase (A) is part of the core enzyme (B) is the catalytic subunit (C) does the proof reading (D) is a gyrase 36. During processing of transfer RNA (tRNA) (A) only exonucleases are involved (C) some bases are modified by methylation (B) excess bases from the 3end are cleaved (D) RNA is degraded

37. The pathway from a gene to a protein in eukaryotic cells involves (A) first, transport of mRNA, then its processing, then transcription, then translation (B) first, transcription of the RNA, then its transport, then processing, then translation (C) first, processing of the RNA, then its transport, then transcription, then translation (D) first, transcription of RNA, then its processing, then its transport, then translation 38. Ribosome is made up of : (A) RNA and protein (C) RNA, lipid and protein 39. Chaperones aid in (A) DNA replication (C) RNA synthesis 40. pBR322 is a (A) gene (C) plasmid 41. Haptens (A) can act as antigens (C) are macromolecule 42. Haemoglobin is a : (A) monomeric protein (C) oligomeric protein
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 7

(B) RNA, DNA and (D) RNA, lipid, and glycoprotein (B) protein folding (D) protein degradation (B) chromosome (D) cosmid (B) bind to antibodies specific to them (D) never act as antigenic determinants (B) dimeric protein (D) tetrameric protein
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43. In serine proteases, catalytic triad consists of : (A) serine, glycine histidine (B) serine, histidine, aspartate (C) serine, proline, histidine (D) serine, leucine, aspartate 44. An enzyme : (A) stabilizes the transition state (B) binds very tightly to the substrate (C) binds very tightly to the product (D) prevent the reaction from proceeding in the reverse direction 45. Cell membranes have : (A) only lipids (C) both integral and peripheral proteins 46. Calmodulin is a : (A) membrane protein (C) kinase

(B) only proteins (D) only transport proteins

(B) protein that bind calcium (D) second messenger

47. Intercellular signaling in which one cell can communicate with other over long distances is called : (A) paracrine (B) autocrine (C) juxtacrine (D) endocrine 48. Molecular motors involved in contraction and trafficking are : (A) Dyneins (B) Myosins (C) Ribosomes (D) Kinesins 49. Cyclin dependent kinases : (A) occur only in the M phase (C) are always activated

(B) are always inactivated by phosphorylation (D) binds to cyclins

50. Basal metabolic rate : (A) is influenced by energy intake (B) is not influenced by energy intake (C) does not respond to change in harmone levels (D) does not decrease upon starvation 51. At equilibrium, the free energy change for any reaction is : (A) large and positive (B) large and negative (C) small and positive (D) zero

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672

52. The behaviour of real gases approaches that described by the ideal gas law : (A) at low pressure (B) at high temperature and pressure (C) at low temperature (D) at low temperature and high pressure 53. A predominantly ionic bond is formed between two elements which have : (A) Equal electronegativities (B) Equal ionization energies (C) An equal number of bonding electrons (D) Very different electronegativities 54. The low bond energy of F2 is best explained by : (A) the high electronegativity of F (B) the small size of F (C) double bonding through lone pairs on F (D) repulsion by lone pairs on F 55. A second order rate constant can have units : (A) dm3 mol s1 (B) dm6 mol2 s1 (C) dm6 mol2 s1 (D) dm3 mol1 s1 56. Which of the following is the strongest acid in aqueous solution ? (A) ethanol (B) phenol (C) p-hydroxytoluene (D) p-nitrophenol 57. A suitable reagent for converting a primary alcohol into the corresponding chlorolakane would be : (A) Cl2 (B) SOCl2 (C) HCl (D) NaCl 58. Which one of the following contains the greatest number of molecules ? (A) 10 g of O2 (B) 10 g of O3 (C) 10 g of O3+ (D) 10 g of O32+ 59. A purified cytochrome protein isolated from a bacterial preparation was found to contain 0376% iron (Atomic mass of Fe : 558 u). Assuming that the protein contains one atom of iron per molecule than the molecular weight of the protein is : (A) 14840 u (B) 432 u 5 (C) 710 u (D) 20981 u 60. Which one of the following can exist as geometric isomers ? (A) CH2Cl2 (B) CH2ClCH2Cl (C) CHBr = CHCl (D) CH2Cl CH2Br 61. Mixture of camphor and sodium chloride can be separated by : (A) Chromatography (B) Sublimation (C) Electrophoresis (D) Sieving
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 9 [Turn over

62. The genetic disease in which the person is anaemic, but does not get infected with malaria is : (A) Haemophilia (B) Sickle cell anaemia (C) Colour blindness (D) Downs syndrome 63. 1 torr = ____________________ mm of Hg. (A) 1 (C) 1013 64. Antidote for accidental acid poisoning ? (A) NaOH (C) Aqua-regia

(B) 760 (D) 1/760

(B) Na2CO3 (D) Lime water

65. Anaemia is a deficiency disease caused due to improper intake of : (A) folic acid (B) iron (C) vitamin B12 (D) any of the above 66. Anti-serum is : (A) active immunization (C) antigen and antibody 67. Hepatitis B affects : (A) liver (C) heart

(B) passive immunization (D) antigens

(B) kidneys (D) lungs

68. Which of the following is the live attenuated vaccine ? (A) Diphtheria (B) Oral polio (C) Tetanus Toxoid (D) Pertusis 69. Efficiency of a protective colloidal is judged from : (A) Octane value (B) Cetane value (C) Gold number (D) Silver number 70. Arrhenius equation is helpful in explaining : (A) Temperature influence on rate kinetics (B) Solubility phenomenon (C) Osmotic pressure and temperature relationship (D) Diffusional rate 71. Which of the following immunoglobulin provides mucosal immunity ? (A) IgG (B) IgM (C) sIgA (D) IgE
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 10

72. Ringworm is caused by : (A) bacterium (C) virus 73. Alzheimers disease is caused in : (A) infants (C) elderly

(B) fungus (D) worm

(B) pre-menopausal women (D) adolescents

74. The units to measure the sound intensity are : (A) Richter (B) Debye (C) Diopter (D) Decibel 75. If a person counted 40 drops of a medication in filling a graduated cylinder to the mark 25 ml, how many drops per ml did the dropper delivers ? (A) 16 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 20

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672

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ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672

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