EVALUATION TEST OF CRIMINAL LAW 1.

May be defined as that branch of division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and provide for their punishment. a. Penology c. Criminology b. Criminal law d. Capital offense 2. A theory underlying the system of our criminal law, of which Rafael Garofalo and Enrico Ferri, including Dr. Cesare Lombroso, were the greatest exponents, that crime is considered as essentially a social and natural phenomenon; as such it cannot be treated and checked by the application of abstract principle of law and jurisprudence, nor by the imposition of a punishment, fixed and determined a priority, but rather through the enforcement of individual measures in each particular case after a personal, thorough and individual investigation conducted by a competent body of psychiatrist and social scientists. a. Juristic or classical theory c. punitive theory b. Positivist or realistic theory d. Non- punitive theory 3. Under this theory, man is considered as an essentially moral creature with an absolute free will to choose between good and evil; he should be adjudged or held accountable for his wrongful acts for as long as his free will is unimpaired. a. Juristic or classical theory c. Territoriality b. Positivist or realistic theory d. Non- punitive theory 4. One of the characteristics of criminal law, where penal laws, like those intended for public security and safety, shall be obligatory upon all persons residing within the State, subjects to the principles of public and international law and treaty agreements. a. Irretrospectivity c. Territoriality b. Generality d. All of the foregoing 5. One of characteristics of criminal law, where penal laws do not have retroactive effect, except in cases where they favor the accused charged with felony and who are not habitual criminals. a. Irretrospectivity c. Territoriality b. Generality d. All of the foregoing 6. The third characteristics of criminal law, where penal laws applicability is subject to punishment crimes committed within the Philippine territory, extending to the twelve- mile limits from the headlines, except from the limitations only as have been conceded by the territorial sovereign through the proper political agencies. a. Irretrospectivity c. Territoriality b. Generality d. All of the foregoing 7. One theory with respect to the jurisdiction to try crimes committed on board a foreign vessels while found within Philippine territorial boundaries, that is, when the crimes committed on board a foreign vessel found within the territorial waters and parts of the Philippines do not affect the tranquility, peace and security of such State, or when its safety is not endangered, these offenses are triables in the courts of the country represented by the flag of such foreign vessel. a. Nationality theory (French Rule) b. Theory of Territoriality (English Rule) c. American Military Bases Agreement theory d. All of the foregoing 8. Under this theory crimes committed on board a foreign merchant vessel while in a foreign port, save incases covered by treaty agreements, are subject to the jurisdiction of the local courts unless they affect only the vessel or those belonging to her and do not involve the dignity of host country or the tranquility of the latter s port. a. Nationality Theory (French Rule) b. Theory of Territoriality (English Rule) c. American Military Bases Agreement d. All of the foregoing 9. Are those crimes committed against the society which produce direct damage or prejudice common to all its members. a. Private crimes c. Felony b. Public crimes d. Infractions

10. Are those crimes committed against individuals, particularly against their chastity, but which do not produce danger or prejudice common other members of society. a. Private crimes c. Felony b. Public crimes d. Infractions 11. Are those offenses of such serious character in their effect on society as to call for the practically unanimous condemnation of its members. a. Mala prohibita c. Public crimes b. Mala per se d. private crimes 12. Are those infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of society. a. Mala prohibita c. Piracy b. Mala per se d.Felonies 13. It is a crime committed not against the particular country but against mankind, consequently, jurisdiction over this particular offense recognizes no territorial limits. a. Felonies c. Justifying circumstances b. Piracy d. Exempting circumstances 14. Are those acts and omissions committed not only by means of deceit, but also by means of fault and are punishable by law. a. Justifying circumstances c. Exempting circumstances b. Felonies d. Attempted felony 15. Is committed whenever the offender commences the commission of a crime directly by overt acts but not performs all the acts but does not performs all the acts of execution which should produce the felony as a consequence by reason of some cause or accident rather than his own spontaneous desistance. a. Frustrated felony c. Consummated felony b. Attempted felony d. All of the foregoing 16. In this respect, the offender performs all the acts of execution which would produce the felony as a consequence but which, nevertheless, do not produce it by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator. a. Frustrated felony c. Consummated felony b. Attempted felony d. Justifying circumstances 17. In this instance, the offenders performs all the acts of execution from which the intended crime actually results. a. Consummated felony c. Justifying circumstances b. Attempted felony d. Exempting circumstances 18. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law and, hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability. a. Justifying circumstances c. Mitigating circumstances b. Exempting circumstances d. Aggravating circumstances e. Alternative circumstances 19. Those wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an act voluntary and, hence, although there is no criminal liability, there is civil liability a. Justifying circumstances c. Aggravating circumstances b. Exempting circumstances d. Mitigating circumstances e. Alternative circumstances 20. Circumstances where those that have the effect of reducing the penalty because there is diminution of any of the elements of dolo or culpa, which make the act voluntary or because of the lesser perversity of the offender a. Mitigating circumstances c. Alternative circumstances b. Aggravating circumstances d. Justifying circumstances 21. Those, which are either aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and effects of the crime and other, condition attending its commission a. Alternative circumstances c. Justifying circumstances b. Aggravating circumstances d. Mitigating circumstances

22. Circumstances which serve to increase the penalty without exceeding the maximum provided by law because of the greater perversity of the offender as shown by the motivating power of the commission of the crime, the time and place of its commission, the means employed or the personal circumstances of the offender a. Mitigating circumstances c. Alternative circumstances b. Aggravating circumstances d. Instigation 23. This situation takes place when the peace officer induces a person to commit a crime; without the inducement, the crime would not be committed a. Entrapment c. Voluntary surrender b. Instigation d. Recidivism 24. This signifies the ways and means devised by a peace officer to apprehend a person who has committed a crime; with or without the said devise or means and devise, the crime has already been committed a. Entrapment c. Voluntary surrender b. Instigation d. Recidivism 25. To be appreciated as mitigating, it must be made to a person in authority or his agent; it may be present if made after the issuance of the warrant of arrest, but before actual arrest is made a. Voluntary surrender c. Habituality of reiteration b. Recidivism d. Treachery 26. This means at least two convictions and hence, it is a form of plurality of crimes like reiteration, habitual delinquency; that the first conviction must be final judgement and must take place prior to the second conviction, and the subsequent conviction should be for an offense committed before the commission of the offense is the prior conviction a. Recidivism c. Treachery b. Habituality of reiteration d. Principals 27. In this kind of aggravating circumstances, it is essential that the offender be previously punished, that is, he has served the sentence for an offense in which the law attaches, or provides for an equal or greater penalty than that attached by law to the second offense, or for two or more offenses , in which the law attaches a lighter penalty a. Recidivism c. Principals b. Habituality of reiteration d. Treachery 28. This kind aggravating circumstances is present when a person commits any of the crimes against person, employing such means, methods of forms in the execution thereof which tend directly and specifically to ensure its execution, without risk to himself arising from the defense which the offended party might make a. Treachery c. Accomplices b. Principals d. Accessories 29. Those person who are criminally liable, or those who take direct part in the execution of the act; who directly force or induce another to commit it; and those who cooperate in the commission of the offense by another act without which it would not have been accomplished a. Principals c. Accessories b. Accomplices d. All of the foregoing 30. They are those, who not being principals, cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts a. Accessories c. Principals b. Accomplices d. All of the foregoing 31. Are criminally liable whenever, having knowledge of the commission of the crime, without having participated therein, takes part subsequent to its commission, either in profiting themselves are assisting to offenders to profit by the effects of the crime; by concealing or destroying the body of the crime, or assisting the escape of the principal, etc a. Accessories c. Principals b. Accomplices d. None of the above 32. In its juridical sphere, it means by the suffering undergone, because of the action of society, by one who commits a crime, hence, it can only be imposed after conviction in a criminal action a. Penalty c. Amnesty b. Pardon d. All of the foregoing

33. Is a kind of Executive clemency that wipes away the guilt of the convicted person, subject to the three limitations to be executed by the President a. Penalty c. Amnesty b. Pardon d. Reprieve 34. Is a kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended a. Pardon c. Amnesty b. Reprieve d. Commutation of sentence 35. The penalty imposed by the court upon an offender is reduced to a lighter one. a. Commutation of sentence c. Amnesty b. Reprieve d. Civil interdiction 36. It is an accessory penalty provided by law when the principal penalty imposed upon the offender for the commission of a crime is more than twelve years imprisonment. a. Amnesty c. Capital offense b. Civil interdiction d. None of the foregoing 37. It is one which, under the law existing at the time of its commission and at the time of the application to be admitted to bail, may be punished by death, although a lower penalty than death may be imposed after conviction. a. Capital offense c. Complex crime b. Civil interdiction d. Continuous offense 38. It is one for which the law imposes a single punishment for various offenses. It is committed in either of two ways; when a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave offenses; or when an offense is necessary means for committing another. a. Continuous offense c. Capital offense b. Complex crime d. impossible crime 39. Is a kind of crime which is committed by a person who performs an act which would be an offense against persons or property, where it is not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment or on account of the employment of inadequate or ineffectual means. a. Complex crime c. Prescription of crime b. Impossible crime d. Prescription of penalty 40. It may be defined as the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law. a. Impossible crime c. Prescription of penalty b. Prescription of crime d. Conditional pardon 41. It is the loss of forfeiture of the right of the government to the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law. a. Prescription of penalty c. Conditional pardon b. Prescription of crime d. Good conduct allowance 42. It means the mercy extended by the Chief Executive to a person sentenced for an offense whereby the personal effects of the penalty are suspended subject to the conditions, if accepted by the person sentenced , produces the effect of freeing him from imprisonment if he is derived of liberty, or from preventing him from changing his residence as he pleases, if he is sentenced to exile. a. Conditional pardon c. Deduction for loyalty b. Good conduct allowance d. Indemnification 43. This allowance is given, that is, 5 days for each month of good behavior for first two years; 8 days for each month, third to 5th year; 10 days for each moth, following years to the 10th year; and 15 days for each month in the 11th year and successive years, in consideration of the good conduct of the prisoner while serving the sentence. a. Deduction for loyalty c. Amnesty b. Good conduct allowance d. Conditional pardon 44. It is the deduction of one- fifth (1/5) of the period of the sentence of a prisoner if he, having evaded the service of sentence because of calamity or any disorder under Art. 158, gives himself up to the authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation regarding the passing away of the calamity. a. Deduction for loyalty c. Amnesty b. Good conduct allowance d. Conditional pardon

45. It may defined as a disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence, is released subject to the conditions imposed by the Court and to the supervision of a probation officer a. Indemnification c. Reparation b. Probation d. Treason 46. It is determined not only by the extent of the damages sustained by the injured party himself, but also those suffered by his family or by third persons, and is generally granted to cases of crimes against persons a. Indemnification c. prejudicial question b. Reparation d. Treason 47. It is granted in connection with crimes against property, and is limited to prejudice that the injured party suffered a. Indemnification c. prejudicial question b. Reparation d. Treason 48. This case may arise where the criminal action is suspended instead until the termination of a civil or administrative preceding; that it must be determinative of the case before the court; and jurisdiction to try the case must be lodged in another tribunal a. Prejudicial question c. Treason b. Reparation d. Levying war 49. This is a breach of the allegiance, which is the obligation of the fidelity and obedience one owes to the government, or sovereign under which he lives, in return for the protection he receives a. Levying war c. Adherence to the enemy b. Treason d. Aid and comfort 50. As a model of committing treason, it means an actual assemblage of persons for the purpose of executing a treasonable design. a. Levying war c. Aid and comfort b. Adherence to the enemy d. Misprision of treason 51. Means an act which strengthens or tends to strengthen the enemy of the government in the conduct of war against the government, or an act which weakens or tends to weaken the power of the government or the country or to resist or to attack the enemies of the government or of the country. a. Levying war c. Aid and comfort b. Adherence to the country d. Misprision of treason 52. Means that a citizen intellectually or emotionally favors the enemy and harbors sympathies or connections disloyal to his country s policy or interest. a. Levying war c. Aid and comfort b. Adherence to the country d. Misprision of treason 53. This requirement imports the degree of proof necessary to convict an accused of the crime of treason consisting of the testimony of two witnesses to the same overt act. a. Dangerous tendency rule c. All of the foregoing b. Two- witness rule d. None of the foregoing 54. It is a felony by omission committed by an accused owing allegiance to the government of the Republic of the Philippines, who, without being a foreigner, and having knowledge of any conspiracy against her, conceals, or does not disclosed and make known, the same as soon as possible to the proper authorities concerned. Such offender would be considered as an accessory subject to the penalty imposed law upon such accessory to the crime of treason. a. Two witness rule c. Espionage b. Misprision of treason d. None of the foregoing 55. It is committed by any person who, without authority therefore enters a warship, fort, or naval or military establishment or reservation, to obtain any information, plans, photographs, or other data of a confidential nature of relative to the defense of the Philippine Archipelago; etc. a. Rebellion c. Sedition b. Espionage d. War crime 56. It is defined as the deprivation by a public officer of the liberty of a person without any legal ground. If the offender is a private person, illegal detention is committed. a. Illegal detention c. Violation of domicile b. Arbitrary detention d. Expulsion

57. It is committed by a public officer or employee who, not being authorized by any judicial authority or order shall enter any dwelling against the will of the owner thereof, having entered the dwelling not against the will of the owner, shall search paper of their effects found therein without the previous consent of the owner, or having surreptitiously entered the dwelling and when being required to leave shall refuse to do so. a. Trespass to dwelling c. Expulsion b. Violation of domicile d. Probable cause 58. It is the unauthorized act of a public officer or employee of expelling a person from the Philippines, or of compelling him to change his residence. a. Probable cause c. Rebellion b. Expulsion d. Sedition 59. This crime is committed by rising publicly with arms against the government for the purpose of removing from allegiance to said government or its laws, the territory of the Philippines or any part thereof, of any body of land, naval or other armed forces, or depriving the Chief Executive or the Legislative, wholly or partially, of any of their powers or prerogatives. a. Treason c. Sedition b. Rebellion d. direct assault 60. There is a public and tumultuous uprising in order to attain by force, intimidation, or any other means, like the prevention of execution of laws or the holding of an election. a. Sedition c. direct assault b. Rebellion d. indirect assault 61. This crime is committed by attacking, employing force, seriously intimidating or seriously resisting any person in authority or his agent, while engaged in the performance of official duties or on the occasion of said performance. a. Direct assault c. Indirect assault b. Rebellion d. Resistance 62. This crime is committed upon a private person who comes to the aid of an agent of a person in authority on the occasion of direct assault committed against the latter. a. Indirect assault c. Resistance b. Direct assault d. All of the foregoing 63. A coin said to be, when it is made of metal, whether inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin, and is given the appearance of one legal tender. a. False or counterfeit coin c. Forged b. Mutilation of coin d. Falsified 64. It is the act of diminishing, by ingenious means, the metal in the coin. a. False or counterfeit coin c. Forgery b. Mutilation of coin d. Falsification 65. This crime is committed whenever the offender makes or imitates a treasury or bank notes or certificates, of giving it the appearance of one that is genuine. a. Falsification of document c. Intercalation b. Forgery d. Rubric 66. This crime is committed by: counterfeiting or imitating any handwriting, signature or rubric; causing it to appear that persons have participated in any act or proceeding when they did not in fact so participate; etc. a. Falsification of document c. Intercalation b. Forgery d. Copying 67. Those directly vested with the jurisdiction, whether as individuals or as members of some court or government corporations, board or commission, are. a. Public officer c. Agents of person in authority b. Persons in authority d. Employee 68. Are those who by direct provision of law or by appointment of competent authority are charged with the maintenance of public order and the protection and security of life and property. a. Agents of persons in authority c. Persons in authority b. Public officer d. All of them

69. Is one who, by direct provision of law, popular election or appointment by competent authority, takes part in the performance of public functions in the government of the Republic of the Philippines, or performs in said government or in any of its branches public duties as an employee, agent official, or any rank or class. a. Public officer c. Persons in authority b. Agents of persons in authority d. All of the foregoing 70. This crime is committed by any person without any distinction, by performing under pretense of official position any act pertaining to such person. a. Usurpation of authority c. Estafa b. Usurpation of real property d. All of the foregoing 71. Is the willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation, administered by authority on a material matter. a. Perjury c. Fraud b. False testimony d. None of the foregoing 72. This kind of falsification of document, for the act to be punishable, it must be shown that some prejudice or damage to a third party must have been caused or intended to be caused. a. Falsification of public document b. Falsification of private document c. Falsification of official document d. Falsification of commercial document 73. This kind of falsification of document, damage is immaterial, for what is important is the violation of the public faith and the destruction of the truth, and the change must affect the integrity of the document. a. Falsification of public document b. Falsification of private document c. Falsification of official document d. Falsification of commercial document 74. This is given in the course of judicial or quasi- judicial proceeding, contemplates and actual trial where judgment of conviction or acquittal is rendered and not a merely preliminary investigation, and whether it is for or against the defendant- criminal or civil, both forms are equally repugnant to the orderly administration of justice, and serves to be rigorously repressed. a. Perjury c. Fraud b. False testimony d. All of the foregoing 75. It is the act of person who knowingly offers in evidences a false witness or testimony in any judicial or official proceeding. a. Perjury c. false testimony b. Subordination of perjury d. All of the foregoing 76. This felony is punishable under the law relating to a person who has no visible means of supports and lives without lawful employment ; or who keeps a house of public gambling or gaming; or prostitution; or acts as pimp or procurer; or who is a common gambler or prostitute; or who, for the most part, maintains himself by gambling or begging; or habitually loiters in any inhabited or uninhabited place belonging to another without any lawful or justifiable purpose, or who are women and for money or profit, habitually indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct. a. Prostitute c. Vandalism b. Vagrancy d. All of the foregoing 77. This crime is committed by a public officer who agrees to commit a criminal offense in connection with the exercise of the power of his office in consideration of a price, reward, promise, or gift. a. Moonlighting c. indirect bribery b. Direct bribery d. Estafa 78. This crime is committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of the gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his duties. a. Moonlighting c. indirect bribery b. Direct bribery d. Estafa

79. This crime is committed whenever a public officer does not account for what he collects and he misappropriates the fees collected. a. Illegal exaction c. Malversation b. Estafa d. Corruption of public officials 80. The crime committed by collecting different or larger sums, failing to issue a receipt or receiving different objects, the officer accounts for the money collected, but subsequently misappropriates it, said officer committed the crime of. a. Illegal exaction c. Malversation b. Estafa d. Corruption of public official 81. The crime is committed by any officer who embezzles or makes personal use of any government fund or property for which he is accountable, or abstract or misappropriates the same, or through his fault or negligence permits any other person to abstract, misappropriate, or make personal use thereof. a. Malversation c. Corruption of public official b. Estafa d. Illegal exaction 82. This is committed by a person who gives gift of makes the offer of promise in the direct or indirect bribery. a. Estafa c. Illegal exaction b. Corruption of public official d. Malversation 83. This crime is committed whenever a public officer who has under his custody or charge a prisoner serving a sentence by final judgment or detention prisoner and he connives with or consents to the escape of such prisoner. a. Evasion of service of sentence c. Jail break b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner d. All of the foregoing 84. This is a crime committed by a public officer who does not misappropriate public funds but appropriate them for purpose other than authorized by law. A. Realignment c. Malversation b. Technical Malversation d. Moonlighting 85. This crime, it is the convict who evades service of sentence by escaping during his term of imprisonment, and who is subject to punishment. a. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner c. Jail break b. Evasion of service of sentence d. Escape 86. Takes place whenever some person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained a. Homicide c. Infanticide b. Tumultuous affray d. Abortion 87. This not a crime before society; before God, it is enormous offense; who is punished is the one who assists in self- destruction a. Tumultuous affray c. Infanticide b. Suicide d. Abortion 88. This is the willful conscious killing of any child less than three days old. a. Abortion c. Maltreatment of prisoner b. Infanticide d. Kidnapping 89. This crime is committed whenever a public officer or employee who has under his charge, a prisoner or detention prisoner and he overdoes himself in the correction or handling of such prisoner by imposing punishment not authorized by regulation, or inflicting such punishment in a cruel and humiliating manner. a. Police brutality c. Coercion b. Maltreatment of prisoner d. Unjust Vexation 90. It is the destruction, or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death. a. Infanticide c. Parricide b. Abortion d. Murder 91. A Presidential Degree which provides for the Granting Immunity from prosecution to Givers of Bribes and other Gifts to their Accomplices in Bribery and other Graft Cases against public Officers. a. PD 603 c. PD 765 b. PD 749 d. PD 968

92. If the person not yet confined in jail and he is maltreated by a public officer to make him confess his guilt, the crime committed is. a. Police brutality c. Physical injuries b. Coercion d. All of the foregoing 93. If the person maltreated by a public officer has already been arrested but is not yet booked in the office of the police and put in jail, the crime committed is. a. Physical injuries c. Coercion b. Police brutality d. All of the foregoing 94. This crime is committed by a public officer, whenever there is pending before him a matter in which a woman is interested or with respect thereto, he is required to submit a report to or consult with a superior, and he solicits or makes an incident or immoral advances upon said woman. a. Acts of lasciviousness c. Coercion b. Abuses against chastity d. Unjust Vexation 95. It is the intentional deprivation of any body organ necessary for reproduction. a. Abortion c. Physical injuries b. Castration d. All of the foregoing 96. This crime is committed whenever a person is killed who is the father, mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or a legitimate ascendant or descendant, or legitimate spouse of the accused. a. Homicide c. murder b. Parricide d. Death under exceptional circumstances 97. This is crime committed by a person who is legally married, who surprises his spouse in the act of committing sexual intercourse with another person; he kills or serious physical injuries are inflicted on any of them or both of them; and he does so during the act of intercourse or immediately thereafter. a. Parricide b. Death or physical injuries inflicted under exceptional circumstances c. Murder d. All of the foregoing 98. This is a crime against liberty and the violent taking of another person is not motivated by lewd designs. a. Forcible abduction c. Acts of lasciviousness b. Kidnapping d. Seduction 99. This is a crime against chastity, and the violent taking of a woman is motivated by lewd designs. a. Forcible abduction c. Acts of lasciviousness b. Kidnapping d. Seduction 100. It is an act of a private person of entering the dwelling of another effected against the latter s will. a. Violation of domicile c. Threat b. Trespass to dwelling d. Grave coercion 101. It is an act of a public officer or employee who enters the dwelling of another effected against the latter s will. a. Violation of domicile c. Threat b. Trespass to dwelling d. Grave coercion 102. It is an international declaration made by a person orally, in writing or through the mediation of another, to inflict upon the person of another, his character of his property or upon that of his family, of some wrong which may not be a crime. a. Grave coercion c. unjust vexation b. Threat d. Violation of privacy 103. This crime is committed by a person who prevents another from doing something not prohibited by law or compels him to do something against his will be it right or wrong; that the prevention or compulsion is affected by violation, either by material force or such display as would produce intimidation and control the will of the offended party; that the offender had no right to restrain the will and liberty of the offended party under any law or in the exercise of a lawful right. a. Grave coercion c. unjust vexation b. Threat d. Violation of privacy

104. In this crime against property, violation or intimidation employed upon the person of the offended party or force upon the thing itself, and it is necessary that the unlawful taking is against the will of the owner. a. Theft c. Highway robbery b. Robbery d. Estafa 105. This kind of crimes against property, no violence, or intimidation is employed by the offender, and it is enough that consent of the owner of the property taken is lacking. a. Theft c. Estafa b. Robbery d. Bribery 106. This crime is committed by means of ingenuity or cunning for the purpose of depriving the victim of his property and owner s consent is present. a. Theft c. Estafa b. Robbery d. Bribery 107. They are a band of robbers composed of more than three armed person for the purpose of committing by means of force and violence, robbery in the highways, or kidnapping persons for the purpose of extorting or to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to be attained by means of force or violence. a. Criminal gangs c. Extortionist b. Brigands d. Bandits 108. It is that crime committed and punished under the Revised Penal Code, by a person who, by means of violence or intimidation of persons, shall take possession of any real property belonging to another. a. PD 772- Anti- Squatting Law b. Usurpation of real property or rights in property c. Land grabbing d. All of the foregoing 109. In its simple character, means the deliberate damaging or the property of another inspired by hate, resentment, desire for revenge of another evil motive. a. Vandalism c. Loitering b. Adultery d. Vagrancy 110. It is an offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriages be latter declared void. a. Concubinage c. Immortality b. Adultery d. All of the foregoing 111. It is an offense committed by a husband who keeps a mistress in the conjugal dwelling, or shall have sexual intercourse, under scandalous circumstances, with a woman who is not his wife, or shall cohabit in any place. a. Concubinage c. Immortality b. Adultery d. All of the foregoing 112. They are those of acts of lewdness committed upon person of either sex not amounting to rape by using force or intimidation, or while the offended party is deprived of reason or is unconscious, or if he or she 12 years of age. a. Seduction c. Coercion b. Acts of lasciviousness d. unjust vexation 113. It is the act of a person of marrying for the second time, before the former marriage has been legally dissolved or before the absent spouse has been judicially declared presumptively dead. a. Polygamy c. Immortality b. Bigamy d. All of the foregoing 114. It is a public and malicious imputation of a crime, or of a vice or defect, real or imaginary, or any act, omission, condition, status, or circumstance tending to cause the dishonor, discredit, or contempt of a natural or judicial person, or to blacken the memory of one who is dead. a. Black mail c. Violation of privacy b. Libel d. Innuendo 115. It is a clause in a declaration, indictment, or other pleading containing an averment which is explanatory of some preceding word or statement. a. Libel c. Innuendo b. Violation of privacy d. Privileged communication

116. It is one containing matters which would, under the law, be considered defamatory and therefore actionable but for the occasion and circumstances under which they are made. a. Libel c. Privileged communication b. Innuendo d. Black mail 117. It is an unlawful extortion of money by appeal to the fears of the victim; especially, extortion of money through threats of accusation or exposure. a. Blackmail c. Privileged communication b. Slander or oral defamation d. Incriminatory machinations 118. Is or may be defined as the speaking of defamatory words or the performance of acts, actuated by malice, which tend to cause dishonor, discredit or contempt of natural or judicial person to the prejudice of the latter s reputation, office, business or trade. a. Slander or oral defamation c. Privileged communication b. Incriminatory machinations d. Blackmail 119. These acts punishable by law which are either intended to directly impute to an innocent person the commission of crime, or which are calculated to blemish the honor or reputation of a person by means of intrigue. a. Incriminatory machinations c. Blackmail b. Slander or oral defamation d. All of the foregoing 120. One, which is any act committed without violence but which unjustifiably, annoys an innocent person. As it is a punishable act, it include any human conduct, which although not productive of some physical or material harm would however unjustifiably annoy an innocent person. a. Grave Coercion c. Forcible abduction b. Unjust vexation d. Maltreatment of prisoners

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION 1 .Tool of criminal investigationa. crime management c. criminal propaganda b. instrumentation d. modus operandi 2. State herein below the beginning of custodial investigationa. interrogation b. invitation to the police office c. place in police custody d. signing of sworn statement 3. State who among the following are/is member s of immediate family of the persons detained, arrested or under custodial investigation. a. fiance c. paramour b. guardian d. a and b only 4. The interrogation of the suspect to be constitutional must adhere to what doctrine? a. Escobido doctrine c. Marcos doctrine b. Aquino doctrine d. Miranda doctrine 5. Which of the evidence is not admissible in Court? a. evidence in plane view b. gun in murder case c. fruit of poisonous tree d. panty in a crime 6. The place where the case is being hearda. courtroom c. sala b. chamber d. kitchen 7. A document filed in court to initiate criminal actiona. complaint c. motion b. judgment d. order 8. Order by the Court issued to particular person to appear and testify before the courta. summons b. subpoena de primera c. subpoena duces tecum d. subpoena testificandum 9. Basic narration of facts discovered during the course of investigationa. police blotter c. investigation report b. police report d. memorandum 10. Essentials narrative in preparing a police reporta. setting c. character b. action d. all of them 11. Mala fides meansa. In God we trust c. Good faith b. Bad faith d. I believe 12. In toto denoted that the document was copied a. perfectly c. without blank b. completely d. in full 13. Detect the error in the sentenceThe jury has been unable to reach a decision. a. b. c. d. 14. State what sentence is this- Jump. a. simple c. interrogative b. imperative d. run on sentence 15. The right to proceed ahead of other vehiclesa. emergency c. right of way b. hit in run d. suicide truck

16. The elements of the traffic unita. pedestrian c. vehicle b. road d. a and c only 17. Noted as the Golden Triangle where opium s are planteda. Tjailand-Laos-Myanmar b. Iran-Pakistan-Afganistan c.Philippine-Singapore-Vietnam d. U.S.-Russia-China 18. Willful and malicious burning of a building a. murder c. arson b. fire crime d. none of the above 19. Usually a motive in arson isa. revenge c. economic gain b. pyromania d. prankter s act 20. Jose is the perennial enemy of Pedro. He saw Pedro alone in a nipa hut. He thought of the perfect opportunity to kill Pedro. He poured a can of gasoline around the house of Pedro who at that time was soundly asleep. The nipa hut was gutted by fire and so Pedro. What is the crime committed? a. arson c. murder b. homicide d. none of the above 21. Systematic search for facts admissible in court to establish the truth of criminal case is donea. crime scene c. modus operandi b. sketch d. none of the above 22. Pertinent information taken down during the conduct of investigationa. criminal investigation b. criminal interview c. criminal interrogation d. none of the above 23. Movement people, goods, herded or ridden animals, vehicles and other conveyancesa. pedestrian c. exodus b. traffic d. none of the above 24. Summary of the habits, techniques and peculiarities of behavior characterizing the operational procedure employed by certain criminalsa. criminal tactics c. modus operandi b. planning d. none of the above 25. Person whose guilt is being considered on reasonable grounds to be a practical possibilitya. criminal c. suspect b. accused d. none of the above 26. Self- incriminatory statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilta. confession c. admission b. acceptance d. none of the above 27. Direct acknowledgement of guilta. confession c. admission b. convection d. none of the above 28. Vitiation of free will by threats and other methods of instilling feara. duress c. intimidation b. coercion d. none of the above 29. Imposition of restriction of physical behaviora. duress c. coercion b. intimidation d. none of the above 30. A planned coordinated legal search by component law enforcer to locate physical evidence or witnesses to a crime investigationa. surveillance c. infiltration b. investigation d. crime scene search

31. Anything having physical or material quality, a tangible article or matter however large or microscopic, which tend to prove or disprove a point under investigationa. corpus delicti c. physical evidence b. corpus cristi d. body of the crime 32. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti isa. the fact the crime was committed b. anything of value c. the property taken d. none of the above 33. The means of recording crimea. by photographs c. by notes b. by sketches d. all of the above 34. The causes of alteration of physical evidence such as contamination, alteration of shape, damage or lossa. unproper packaging b. corruption of investigation c. non- maintenance of chain custody d. a and c are true 35. The factors to be considered in the introduction of physical evidencea. Relevancy c. competency b. legally obtained d. all of the above 36. The systematic procedure of verbal description of a person after a short period of visual observation is termeda. portrait parle c. rogue s gallery b. portrait of criminals d. fortratures 37. Description of police characters wherein witness may refer and which is kept by police unit for purposes of referencea. rogue s gallery c. portrait parle b. line d. observation 38. Tagging of physical evidence aside from the marking should be madea. at the crime scene upon collection b. before receipt by the evidence custodian c. immediately after receipt by the evidence custodian d. any of the above 39. The marking or labeling of physical evidence should be madea. after tagging the evidence b. at the crime scene upon collection c. during trial in court d. any of the above 40. Criminal investigation is an___ which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedingsa. Science d. policy b. System e. technique c. art f. none of the above 41. The purpose of search in the crime scene is to determine the presence of physical evidence such asa. corpus delicti c. associative evidence b. tracing evidence d. all of the above 42. Phases in criminal investigationa. the criminal is identified b. facts proving his guilt are gathered for court presentation c. criminal is traced and located d. none of the above e. all of the above

43. Ways of identifying criminalsa. by confession b. by associative evidence c. by eyewitness testimony d. by circumstantial evidence e. all of the above 44. The three Is of investigation are, excepta. Information b. Identification c. Interview/interrogation d. Instrumentation e. all of the above 45. What is the effect if the evidence through interrogation has of the legal requirements? a. evidence is admissible c. evidence is invalid b. evidence is inadmissible d. evidence is good 46. That famous U.S Supreme Court decision wherein a confession made without counsel to assist him as accused did not request for one, is not admissible in evidencea. Crooker vs. California b. Willis vs. State of Texas c. Miranda vs. State of Arizona d. Escobido vs. Illinois 47. Mere invitation of a suspect is already considereda. beginning of arrest b. beginning of detention c. beginning of custody d. beginning of informing him his rights 48. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinance has just been unearthed or discovered and the suspect and witness are still emotionally affected , upset or shocka. hot case c. cold case b. freezing case d. none of the above 49. Case wherein it is considered dormant where the witness and suspect have ample time to mull over the ramification of the case and to put up their respective alibis or defenses, or otherwise form subjective impression of the casea. freezing case c. cold case b. hot case d. none of the above 50. In what case must an investigator investigate at once and shall not wait for tomorrow? a. hot case c. cold case b. freezing case d. dormant case 51. The golden rule of interrogation isa. interrogator should jot down briefly what is related by the suspect b. write or type briefly suspect s statement even if it is only a few words c. better still, suspect should write his statement d. affix suspect s signature in the writing e. all of the above 52. The principal psychological factor contributing to a successful interrogation isa. Privacy c. in theatre b. in public d. in a hotel 53. In interrogating hostile witness, it is necessary to choose a placea. like the home of the subject b. office of the father of the suspect c. inside a restaurant d. inside a police headquarters

54. The questioning techniques that should be adopted in interrogationa. Chronological c. going backward b. general to specific d. all of the above 55. What is the law defining certain rights of person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation as well as the duties of the arresting, detaining and investigating officer? a. RA 7438 c. RA 7638 b. RA 7783 d. RA 7386 56. The investigator is liable criminally if he investigated a subject (suspect) without an assistance of counsel a. Yes b. No 57. Assisting lawyer to the subject must bea. competent lawyer of the subject s choice b. choice of the investigator c. lawyer from the Public Assistance office (PAO) d. lawyer from the DOJ 58. Custodial investigation shall include the practice of issuing an invitation to a person who is investigated in connection with the offense he is suspected to have committed. So, the investigator must inform the subject of his constitutional rights toa. remain silent c. counsel of his own b. right to bail d. all of the above 59. If supposing the suspect does not want to give statement, what will happen to the case? a. The case shall proceed with available evidence on hand b. Case will be held in abeyance until substantial evidences are gathered c. Evidence are not only gathered from the mouth of the suspect d. All of the above 60. The tool of investigation wherein instruments or equipments are to be used in order to process evidence that were found in the crime scenea. state-of-the-art c. instrumentation b. 5 W s and H d. all of the above 61. The golden rule of homicide investigationa. never touch, alter and change the position of anything b. until identified, measured and photographed c. if article has been moved, it can never be restored again to its original position d. all of the above 62. The temperature at which a flammable liquid forms a vapor-air mixture that ignites a. flash point c. temperature b. vapor pressure d. boiling point 63. The lowest temperature of a liquid in an open container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous combustion a. fire point c. flash point b. ignition temperature d. vapor pressure 64. The minimum temperature at which the substance in the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause selfcontained combustion without the addition of heat from outside sources a. ignition temperature c. kindling temperature b. boiling point d. a and c are true 65. The constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to atmospheric pressure a. boiling point c. flash point b. vapor pressure d. fire point 66. The measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules, which can be measured by Celsius or centigrade, Fahrenheit and Kelvin or absolute a. temperature c. pressure b. boiling point d. flash pint

67. It is the ratio of the weight of a solid or liquid substances to the weight of an equal volume of water. In general, the higher the specific gravity of a substance, the greater amount of heat is necessary to decompose it a. specific gravity c. vapor density b. temperature d. pressure 68. It is the incandescent gas. In order to be sustained, it should maintain high temperature and a concentration of short-lived intermediate chemical reactants between fuel and oxidizer. a. Flame c. oxidation b. flash point d. pressure 69. A chemical change that is exothermic. In connection with fire technology, it is simply defined as a chemical change in which combustible material (fuel) and an oxidizing agent like oxygen reacts. a. oxidation c. flash point b. flame d. ignition point 70. Those that release or give off energy (heat) is absorbed or is added before the reaction takes place. This means that the substances formed by the change contain more energy than the reacting materials a. endothermic reaction c. exothermic reaction b. flash point d. ignition point 71. One of the kinds of oxidation which is the same as actual burning it is the rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light. a. combustion c. boiling point b. flames d. flash point 72. When the heat generated by combustion becomes sufficient or cause the material being oxidized to take fire, the material has reached its burning a. ignition point c. flash point b. flames d. boiling point 73. Actually, combustion is very complex and is subject of much research. A condensed-phase combustion is usually referred to asa. glowing combustion c. explosion b. detonation d. ignition 74. A gas- phased combustion is known asa. flame c. ignition b. explosion d. detonation 75. If the process is confined, it is known asa. explosion c. detonation b. flame d. ignition 76. If the combustion waves propagate at supersonic speed, a shock front develops ahead of it to produce a. detonation c. explosion b. flame d. ignition 77. The combustion is observed as occurring in what mode a. flaming type (including explosion) b. flameless surface type (including glow and deep seated glowing embers) c. explosion type d. a and b are true 78. The temperature of the flame is determined by a. heat-energy released b. weight-time rate c. specific hat of affluent d. all of them 79. Defined as the chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat a. pyrolysis c. heat energy b. incandescent d. ignition 80. Heat is measured by itsa. temperature c. ignition b. heat wave d. flash point

81. One which is at all normal atmospheric temperature inside its container, exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure a. compressed gas c. liquefied gas b. cryogenic gas d. solid gas 82. One which, at normal atmospheric temperature inside its container, exists partly in liquid state and partly in the gaseous state and under pressure as long as any liquid remain in the container a. liquefied gas c. compressed gas b. cryogenic gas d. solid gas 83. A liquefied gas which exists in its container at temperature far below normal atmospheric temperature, usually slightly above its boiling point and corresponding low to moderate pressure, a. cryogenic gas c. liquefied gas b. solid gas d. compressed gas 84. Gas which is flammable customarily used for burning with air to produce heat which in turn is utilized as power, light, comfort a. fuel gas c. medical gas b. industrial gas d. liquid gas 85. Gas that is used for treatment such as anesthesia a. liquefied gas c. oxygen b. medical gas d. none of them 86. Includes a large number of gases used for industrial purpose as those used in welding and cutting, chemical processing and water treatment. a. industrial gas c. business gas b. commercial gas d. all of them 87. The house is set on fire but only the side is burned, what is the crime committed? a. frustrated arson c. attempted arson b. consummated arson d. malicious mischief 88. If arson committed without intent but just to satisfy one s urge, the possible perpetrator is someone who isa. pyromaniac c. insane person b. alcoholic d. drug addict 89. Indian hemp is also known as a. LSD c. cocaine b. Shabu d. marijuana 90. Raw opium is a. chewed c. sniffed b. smoked d. injected 91. The crude resin extracted from marijuana plant is called a. codeine c. cannabis b. hashish d. morphine 92. Heroin is derived from a. morphine c. cocaine b. opium puppy plant d. codeine 93. Morphine is discovered to cure addicted to heroin and codeine. It is derived from a. opium c. LSD b. shabu d. methamphetamine 94. Codeine occurs naturally in opium, but it is produced from a. cocaine c. opium puppy plant b. heroin morphine 95. Opium and its derivative are classified as a. depressant c. stimulant b. hallucinogens d. intoxicant 96. Cocaine or the so-called Erythrexylon coca is commonly grown in a. cold region c. tropical country b. humid country or region d. very hot country or region

97. Cocaine is used as a. analgesic c. anesthetic drug b. curative drug d. cantharide 98. Demerol and Methadone which are synthetic opiates are classified as a. stimulant c. depressants b. hallucinogens d. curative 99. The most powerful hallucinogen is a. LSD 25 c. opium b. mescaline d. ibogaine 100. LSD means a. lucid social development b. lysergic acid diethylamide c. lysergic secaline methadone d. lysergic susa dequalone

ANSWER KEY IN PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION 1. B 51. E 2. B 52. A 3. D 53. D 4. D 54. D 5. C 55. A 6. C 56. A 7. A 57. A 8. D 58. AB 9. B 59. A 10. D 60. C 11. B 61. D 12. B 62. A 13. B 63. A 14. B 64. D 15. C 65. A 16. D 66. A 17. A 67. A 18. C 68. A 19. C 69. A 20. C 70. A 21. A 71. A 22. A 72. A 23. B 73. A 24. C 74. A 25. C 75. A 26. C 76. A 27. A 77. D 28. A 78. A 29. C 79. A 30. D 80. A 31. D 81. A 32. C 82. A 33. D 83. A 34. D 84. A 35. D 85. B 36. A 86. A

37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. D 42. A 43. E 44. B 45. B 46. C 47. C 48. A 49. C 50. A

87. B 88. A 89. D 90. B 91. B 92. A 93. A 94. D 95. C 96. C 97. C 98. C 99. A 100. B

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION Police Organization and administration 1. During the Pre-Spanish Period, the function of policing was a job of the: a. Guardia Civil c. Sultan b. Barangay Headman d. Guardrilleros 2. Rural Philippines Police organized in each town in 1836 is known as: a. Guardrilleros c. Politia b. Guardia Civil d. Barangay Police 3. Which of the following is not a basic police activity? a. Crime prevention c. Arrest of offender b. Crime repression d. Prosecution of criminal 4. The yardstick of efficiency of the police can be determined by the absence of crime and the welfare of the individual and society as its objective. This described the: a. Traditional concepts b. Police Service Oriented Concepts c. Community Oriented Public Service d. Modern Concept 5. Peace officers are treated as state servants and people have minimal share in their duties or any direct connection with them. This reflected as : a. Old concept c. Continental theory b. New concept d. Home rule theory 6. Policeman depends for their effectiveness in their functions upon express wishes of the community because they are considered as servants of the people. This concept is described as : a. Home rule theory c. Continental theory b. Traditional theory on policing d. Old concept 7. Continuing Police Education and Training for PNP uniformed personnel is a basic responsibility of: a. National Police Commission b. Philippine National Police c. Philippine Public Safety College d. National Police College 8. The organization rule of Unity of Command is done thru: a. Subordinate reports to o0ne supervisor only b. Subordinate reports to one immediate supervisor c. Subordinate reports to the same functional supervisor d. A supervisor is responsible for unified group function

9. The development and use of an effective communication system theoretically gives greatest impetus to which of the following organizational principles. a. Line of command c. Span of control b. Unity of command d. Chain of command 10. Transport Police Services is embraced in the general police function of: a. Line c. Line-staff b. Staff d. Secondary 11. Coordination as an administrative function: a. Requires without question acceptance of authority from above b. Can always be achieved if subordinates are adequately remunerated c. Can generally be achieved without acceptance of control d. Can likely be achieved if policies are clear with capable supervisors following established lines authority. 12. Staff responsibilities differ from those of the line in that; a. Staff has no direct authority, but operates as representatives of a particular b. Line carries out its work under direct supervision by the staff c. Staff officers never give direct orders d. Line carries out its work under direct supervision 13. In record to the police planning function, it may be said that; a. Planning is essentially decision-making in advance of action. b. Planning is essentially order giving c. Policemen must plan carefully than their supervisors. d. The higher the job in the organization, the shorter the time-lag between planning and execution. 14. Recognition and definition of a problem is the first step in planning. Which of the following is not a further step in planning? a. Delegation of responsibility b. Determination of possible solutions c. Collection and analysis of facts 15. The structure of an organization should be such that; a. It can adjust to short- term variations in work load. b. It can adjust as necessary to the capability of the people who man it. c. Its function has resources compatible with its contribution to the whole d. It can weather the years without substantial structural changes 16. With respect to orders and commands, it may be said that; a. Supervisors would do well to explain why, when its issuing orders b. Orders should be personal not impersonal c. Orders should direct, not segregate d. Orders must be complete and detailed 17. Delegation of responsibility to subordinate: a. Cannot be undertaken unless the supervisor is sure his men can do the work b. Seldom proves his men to be an effective motivating factor c. Does not put the subordinate on his own d. Will not succeed unless the subordinate have self confidence in their capabilities 18. The function of control can be divided into three parts. Which of the following is not a part of control? a. Initiation of activities b. Supervision of activities c. Comparison of results with standards 19. The most complex of the factors with which top management must deal with is: a. Men c. Materials b. Money d. Mechanics 20. Police executive s prime responsibility in law enforcement is the welfare and well being of: a. Personnel of the organization b. Client of the organization c. Leader of the mobilized community d. Community, townspeople

21. The staff officer of the Chief of Police is related to the latter as his: a. Alta ego c. Administrative support b. Extension d. Coordinator 22. The 1987 Constitutional mandate on the establishment of a police force is attained thru: a. RA 6975 c. RA 6975 and RA 8551 b. RA 8551 d. RA 4864 23. The 1973 Constitutional mandate on the establishment of an Integrated National Police was attained thru: a. PD 421 c. PD 765 b. PD 448 d. PD 1184 24. Field policeman recommend locating the communications center on the records division under the control of a Records Officer primarily because of: a. The records officers usually has higher rank than communication s officer b. Communications Center usually prepares the original records of complaints received c. Communications should be coordination with records division d. Training for records and communications is similar 25. Provision for police radio is primarily important because it increases the speed of police action and observes it. a. Provides a sense of security to patrolling officers b. Makes possible more effective use of the patrol force c. attracts better men to the police service d. Aids the police in obtaining public acceptance of its crime prevention program 26. The smooth interchange of thoughts, ideals and opinions and the effective communication within an organization requires that all the lines f communication be essentially: a. Upward movement b. Downward-across c. Across-upward d. Upward, downward & across 27.The most basic considerations in locating a police station within a fixed political jurisdiction are: a. Center of community progress b. Convenience to public clientele c. Near working center of police activities d. Consistent within local zoning restrictions 28. Police Organization revolves around____________ to be effective: a. Operations c. Personnel b. Management d. People 29. Refers to the executing arm of the administration of any organization. a. Chain of Command c. Auxiliary services b. Board of directors d. Operation 30. A superior or ranking officer may find it is sometimes more effective to warn his subordinate rather than to punish them, the main reason for such response is that: a. Warnings may generate a more cooperative attitude b. Punishment is always viewed as negative c. Punishment has been proven ineffective as a deterrent d. Warnings are more acceptable than punishment 31. Plans utilized by patrol, traffic, vice and juvenile control. a. Tactical plans c. Policy plan b. Operational plan d. Special operating plan 32. An area assigned for patrol purposes. a. Post c. Sector b. Beat d. Route 33. A medium through which work is accomplished by individuals or groups associated with each other. a. Functional units c. Associations b. Organizations d. All of these

34. One man must be in complete command in every situation. a. Chain of command c. Command responsibility b. Unity of command d. Span of control 35. Intended to be used in all situations of all kinds a. Office procedures b. Field procedures c. Special operating procedures d. Tactical plans 36. Procedures in copying for specific locations at known locations. a. Tactical plans c. Policy plan b. Operational plans d. Special operating plan 37. Operating procedures designed to guide members in routine assignments. a. Tactical plans c. Policy plan b. Operational plans d. Special operating plan 38. Ability of one man to control, direct and coordinate immediate subordinate. a. Chain of command c. Command responsibility b. Unity of command d. Span of control 39. Geographical subdivision of a city for a patrol purposes. a. Bureau c. Division b. Section d. District 40. Sound organization involves delegation of decision- making authority. It should involve: a. Immediate subordinates only b. All line personnel c. All line and staff personnel who have reached supervisory status d. As far down the organization as competence and required information are available 41. What is the Civil Service eligibility equivalent of master of Public Safety Administration under Executive Order 400? a. Career Service Professional Eligibility b. Honor s First Grade Eligibility for PPSC Scholar c. Career Executive Service Officer Eligibility d. Senior Officer Public Safety Eligibility 42. Except for one the following are practical methods of Police Supervisory training: a. Conference method c. Study method b. Lecture method d. Role playing method 43. Of the following, what collegiate educational programs is most related to public training courses? a. Criminology b. Police Administration c. Criminal Justice d. Public Safety Administration 44. It is the training of an individual already proficient in one line to be trained in another, usually allied to what he has specialized. a. Cross-training b. Enhanced specialized training c. Technical specialized training d. Maximized specialized training 45. A kind of training taken by members of the force to prepare them intellectually as temperamentally for supervisory positions. a. Specialized training c. Police basic training b. Management training d. Command training 46. For promotion to P/Inspector, the training required for permanent status is: a. Public Safety Officer Candidate Course b. Public Safety Officer Supervisory Course c. Public Safety Basic Officer s Course d. Public Safety Inspector s Course

47. Permanency is extended to a PNP officer prompted to Chief inspector if he has among others completed successfully the career course on; a. Public Safety Officer Basic Course b. Public Safety Officer Advance Course c. Public Safety Supervisory Advance Course d. Public Inspector s Course 48. What is the highest Police career training given by the PPSC for permanent appointment as Police Superintendent? a. PS Officer Advance Course b. PS Officer Advance Management Course c. PS Officer Senior Executive Course d. PS Officer Senior Supervisor s Course 49. The PPSC thru the PNPA grants a bachelor s degree for permanent appointment as Inspector in the police, fire and jail service. This bachelor s degree is officially described as: a. Bachelor of Science in Police Administration b. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety c. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety Management d. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety Administration 50. What constitutive unit of the PPSC grants Master s degree in Public Safety Administration? a. Philippine National Police Academy b. National Police College c. National Public Safety College d. National Public Safety Academy 51. The Philippine Public Safety College was created as an attached agency to the DILG. The enabling congressional act is: a. RA 6975 c. RA 7610 b. RA 8551 d. RA 6713 52. The Philippine National Police Academy is an educational institution under the direction and supervision of: a. Philippine National Police] b. Philippine Public Safety College c. Office of the Secretary, DILG d. National Public Commission 53. As an External Disciplinary Authority in the PNP the People s Law Enforcement Board is empowered to investigate, decide citizen s complaints against PNP members. These boards are created by what agency in government? a. National Police Commission b. PNP c. City/ Municipal Mayors d. Sangguniang Panglungsod 54. Women s desk in all police stations nation-wide shall be established by the________ to Administer and attend to cases involving crimes against chastity, sexual harassment, abuses against women and children among others. a. PNP b. Local city/ Munici9pal Mayor c. National Police Commission d. Sangguniang Panglungsod 55. The internal affairs services of the PNP created under RA 8551 as part of the reform- reorganization movement in the PNP performs the following, except for one: a. Investigative-prosecutorial functions b. Investigative & monitoring functions c. Adjudicatory functions d. Appellate functions

56. It is the premier educational institution in the national government created to provide continuing education and career training and human resource development of all personnel of the PNP, Fire and Jail Bureaus. a. Philippine Public Safety college b. Philippine National Police c. Police National Training Institute d. Directorate for Human Resource Development 57. The following, except for one educational institution are initial constitutive units of the PPSC on its creation in 1991. a. PNPA b. Jail Service Training Service Center c. Philippine National Training Center d. National Police College 58. What is the entry training for PNP permanent appointment in the initial rank of Police Officer 1? a. On the job training for recruits b. Basic Police training for recruits c. Basic orientation course d. Police recruit candidate course 59. For permanent promotion to Senior Police Officer 1 or SPO2, what is the career police training required? a. Public Safety Officer Supervisor's Course b. Public Safety Junior Leadership Course c. Public Safety Junior Supervisor's Course d. Public Safety Senior Leadership Course 60. The career training required for lateral entry as a professional in the rank of Inspector or Senior Inspector, PNP is: a. Public Safety Officer Candidate Course b. Public Safety Officer Orientation Course c. Public Safety Officer Inspector's Course d. Public Safety Basic Officer Course 61. That level of training that prepares the top that prepare the top administrative personnel of the force maximizes/ enhances decision-making policy deliberating responsibilities. a. Management training b. Total Quality Executive Training c. Advanced Leadership Training 62. Under the police reform and reorganization law, a Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required for permanency of their appointment consisting of 12 months. Basic areas of actual experience and assignment during this period shall be on: a. Patrol, traffic and investigation b. Patrol, investigation and instructional duties c. Patrol, investigation and auxiliary services d. Traffic, investigation and staff duty 63. The increased educational qualifications for appointment ad Director or a Provincial Police Officer are: a. Completion of academic units towards a masters degree in criminology or related master's degree b. Holds a master's degree in public administration, sociology, criminology, criminal justice, law enforcement and related disciplines c. Holds any master's degree needed by the PNP d. Completed at least 24 academic master's units as mentioned above 64. The increased minimum educational qualifications for appointment as Chief of Police of Municipal Police station are following, except for one: a. Finished at least 2nd year Bachelor's of Law's b. Earned at least 12 units in master's degree program in public administration , criminology, criminal justice, law enforcement, national security administration and related programs c. Member of the bar d. Licensed criminologist or PNPA graduates

65. If the military service top officer s corps has their National Defense College of the Philippines for their highest educational program, what has the police service have by way of identical educational program? a. Philippine National Police Academy b. Philippine Public Safety College System c. National Police College d. Police College of the Philippines 66. Largest organic unit within a large department. a. Division c. Section b. Bureau d. Functional units 67. Functional unit necessary for specialization. a. Division c. Section b. Bureau d. Functional units 68. Primary subdivision of a bureau. a. Division c. Functional units b. Section d. None of these 69. Except for one the following are identifiable as administrative service function: a. Police training b. Police personnel management c. Accounting, auditing and budgeting d. Transportation management 70. Patrol, Investigation, vice control is classified as: a. Auxiliary service work b. Line service work c. Administrative service work d. All of these 71. An officer who is in dominion of the department, district or bureau. a. Line officer c. Commanding officer b. Superior officer d. Rank officer 72. Refers to the officer having the highest rank or grade according to their date of appointment to that grade. a. Superior officer c. Commanding officer b. Sworn officer d. Ranking officer 73. Refers to the officer having supervisory responsibilities either temporarily or permanently over officers of lower rank. a. Superior officer c. Commanding officer b. Sworn officer d. Ranking officer 74. A personnel of the police department who possess the power of arrest and has an oath of office. a. Superior officer c. Commanding officer b. Sworn officer d. Ranking officer 75. Refers to those police officers whose ranks ranges from PO1 to SP04. a. Ordinary police units c. Commissioned officers b. Non commissioned officers d. None of these 76. In the Philippine National Police four stars in the delegated insignia of; a. Deputy director General c. Chief Superintendent b. Director d. Director General 77. They constitute police officers from the Director General to police inspectors. a. Commanding officers c. Ranking officers b. Superior officers d. Commissioned officers 78. A police rank of Superintendent is represented by insignia; a. One sun c. Three suns b. Two suns d. One Star 79. Under RA 8551, suppression of insurgency and other serious threats to national security shall be the responsibility of; a. PNP c. DND b. DILG d. AFP

80. Ex-Officio chairman f NAPOLCOM a. DOJ Secretary c. DILG Secretary b. DND Secretary d. President 81. The NAPOLCOM is a collegial body, whose members are appointed by the president, it is composed of a chairperson and four regular commissioners, of whom should be a woman, the___ regular commissioners shall come from the civilian sector. a. Two c. Four b. Three d. None of these 82. Serves as an ex-officio member of the NAPOLCOM. a. DOJ Secretary c. PNP Chief b. DILG Secretary d. AFP Chief 83. They serve as deputized NAPOLCOM representative in their jurisdiction. a. City mayors c. Governors b. Municipal mayors d. All of these 84. Automatic deputation of local executive as NAPOLCOM representatives shall be withdrawn in which of the following cases? a. Frequent unauthorized absences and abuse of authority b. Providing material support to criminal elements c. Engaging in acts inimical to national security or which negate their effectiveness of the peace and order campaign. d. Any of the foregoing 85. Under the law, they may recommend the recall or re-assignment of the chief of police, when the latter has been ineffective in combating crime or maintaining peace and order in the municipality. a. City mayors b. Municipal mayors c. Governors d. Local peace and order council 86. Generally, a city or municipal mayor chooses the chief of police from list of five eligible coming from the; a. Regional director c. NAPOLCOM b. Provincial director d. DILG 87. Shall mean the power to direct, superintend, and oversee the day-to-day functions of police investigation of crime, crime prevention activities, and traffic control in accordance with the rules and regulations. a. Employment b. Deployment c. Operational supervision and control d. All of these 88. Refers to the utilization of units or elements of them PNP for purposes of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminal offenders and bringing the offenders to justice, and ensuring public safety, particularly in the suppression of disorders, riots, lawlessness, violence, rebellious and seditious conspiracy, insurgency, subversion or other related activities. a. Employment b. Deployment c. Operational supervision and control d. All of these 89. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP within the province, city or municipality a. Employment b. Deployment c. Operational supervision and control d. All of these 90. Exercises summary dismissal powers over PNP members. a. Chief PNP c. Regional directors b. Provincial directors d. Both A and C

91. Maximum period wherein a police officer may be suspended from service by the Chief PNP. a. 30 days c. 90 days b. 60 days d. 180 days 92. Supervisors shall have the power to0 impose upon any member the disciplinary punishment of dismissal from the service. He may also impose the administrative punishment of admonition or reprimand; restrictive custody; withholding the privileges; suspension or forfeiture of salary; demotion; or any combination of the foregoing: Provided that, in all cases, the total period shall not exceed sixty (60) days. a. Chief of Police c. Regional directors b. Provincial directors d. NAPLCOM 93. Which has exclusive jurisdiction over citizen s complaint where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period exceeding (30) days; or by dismissal. a. City mayors c. Chief of Police b. Municipal mayor d. PLEB 94. He shall be automatically included in the investigation of the Internal Affairs Service to exclusively determine lapses in administration or supervision in cases where the personnel or unit under inquiry is under his command. a. Commanding officer c. Superior officer b. Ranking officer d. Immediate Superior 95. He is the designated Head if the Internal Affairs Service, who is appointed by the president with the endorsement of the commission on appointment. a. Chief PNP c. Inspector General b. NAPOLCOM Chairman d. Judge Advocate General 96. For purposes of computation of the monthly retirement of a PNP officer, it shall be___ of the base pay. a. 50 % c. 75 % b. 60 % d. 80 % 97. Compulsory retirement age for PNP officers. a. 55 years old c. 60 years old b. 56 years old d. 65 years old 98. Shall decide cases on appeal from decisions rendered by the PNP chief. a. National Appellate Board c. NAPOLCOM B. Regional Appellate Board d. PLEAB 99. Term of office for a regular NAPOLCOM Commissioner a. 3 years b. 4 years c. 6 years d. 6 years without re-appointment or extension 100. The sangguniang panlungsod/ bayan in every city and municipality shall create such number of Peoples Law enforcement Boards (PLEABs) as may be necessary: Provided that there shall be at least one (1) PLEAB for every____ city or municipal police personnel and for each of the legislative districts in a city. a. 500 c. 1000 b. 750 d. 1500