Saturday, October 16, 2010 BSNL JTO EXAM (20-10-2009) SOLVED PAPER

PART I 1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of (A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar 2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the (A) infrared region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D)x-ray region 3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectricloss should be respectively (A) high and high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low. 4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used suppress (A) odd harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component 5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on (A) mutual inductance between two coils only (B) self inductances of the two coils only (C) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (D) none 6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is (A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor. (B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates. (C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates. (D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plates. 7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to

(A) Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization 8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion (A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony 9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess (A) high thermal conductivity and high melting point (B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point (C) High thermal conductivity and low melting point (D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point. 10. An SCR can only be turned off via its (A) cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none 11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to (A) increase the recombination rate (B) reduce the recombination rate (C) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) make silicon semi-metal 12 With n nodes and b branches a network will have (A) (b+n) links (B) b n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D) b + n + 1 links 13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be (A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45 14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is (A) always positive (B) always negative (C) sometime positive, sometime negative (D) numerically less then its kinetic energy. 15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no (A) channel (B) gate (C) P-N junctions (D) substrate 16. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge cover the wire round strain guage is that (A) it is more sensitive (B) it is more linear (C) it is less temperature dependent (D) its cost is low 17. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by (A) thermally generated electrons and holes (B) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction (C) migration of minority carriers across the junction (D) flow of drift current. 18. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter

(A) recombine with holes in the base (B) recombine in the emitter itself (C) pass through the base to the collector (D) are stopped by the junction barrier 19. The deplition voltage for silicon diode at m0 bias is (A) 0.5 volt (B) 0.3 volt (C) 0.7 volt (D) 1.1 volt 20. A UJT can (A) be triggered by any one of its three terminals (B) not be triggered (C) be triggered by two of its three terminal only (D) be triggered by all of its terminals only. 21. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and inform charge density in vacuum is 22. Maxwells divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by 23. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 1 at frequency f and if its radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then its radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be (A) R/2 O (B) R O (C) 2R O (D) 4R O 24. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include (A) TE111 and TM111 (B) TE011 and TM011 (C) TE022 and TM111 (D) TE111 and TM011 25. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then its efficiency will be nearly (A) 0.19 (B) 0.81 (C) 0.97 (D) 1.19 26.The transformer utilization factor of full wave bridge rectifier is (A) 0.812 (B) 0.286 (C) 0.693 (D) 0.782 27. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in its characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHZ signal then if

d is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then (A) d = 1.5 cm (B) d is less then 1.5 cm (C) d is greater then 1.5 cm (D) d = 3cm 28. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give (A) an output power which is one quarter of the input power (B) an output power which is one-half of the input power (C) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage. (D) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power. 29. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer (A) the terminals are kept shorted (B) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals (C) the terminals are kept open circuited (D) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals. 30. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series arm R1 and shunt arm R2? 1.R1 = 147 O 2. R1 = 153 O 3. R1 = 1.5 O 4. R1= 3750 O (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 31. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294 H/m and capacitance 60pF/m is (A) 49 O (B) 60 O (C) 70 O (D) 140 O 32. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 33. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network 1. Z11 =Z22 2. h12 = h21 3.Y12 = -Y21 4.BC AD = -1 then the network is reciprocal if and only if (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) 4 alone is correct. 34. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are (A) will become half (B) will remain unchanged (C) will become double (D) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known.

35. A iron cored choke is a (A) Linear and active device (B) Non linear and passive device (C) Active device only (D) Linear device only 36. Poynting vector watt-meter is based on (A) Seebeck effect (B) Ferranti effect (C) Induction effect (D) Hall effect 37. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense? (A) Thermocouple (B) Piezoelectric pick-up (C) Photo voltaic cell (D) LCD. 38. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, de to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is (A) Converter system (B) Inverter (C) Chopper (D) Thyristor 39. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent total resistance of 1.5 Watt then the efficiency of the antenna is (A) 0.89159% (B) 8.9159% (C) 89.159% (D) 891.59% 40. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally (A) 5 KHz (B) 15 KHz (C) 75 KHz (D) 200 KHz 41. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is (A)sinusoidal (B) square (C) rectangular (D) triangular 42. Strain gauge is (A) not a transducer (B) an active transducer (C) not an electronic instrument 43. A high Q coil has (A) large band width (B) high losses (C) low losses (D) flat response 44. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3 V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is (A) 1.810% (B) 0.181% (C)12.45% (D) 0.0018% 45. The h parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for

(A) High frequency, large signal operation (B) High frequency, small signal operation (C) Low frequency, large signal operation. 46. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on (A) Values of input in the past and in the future (B) Values of input at that time and in the past (C) Values of input at that time and in the future (D) none 47. Form the hot metal surface electrons escape because (A) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat. (B) of change of state from gas to metal (C) the energy supplied is greater than the work function (D) the energy is greater than Fermi level 48. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is (A) amplifier (B) triode (C) diode (D) transistor 49. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is (A) cathode (B) anode (C) The central tap on the high voltage secondary (D) plate. 50. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will (A) Amplify the noise as much as the signal (B) Reduce the noise (C) Increase the noise (D) Not effect the noise PART II 51. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode (A) SCR (B) PCR (C) VCR (D) DCR 52. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a (A) constant voltage source (B)constant current source (C) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source. (D) resistance 53. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of (A) electrons only (B) electrons or holes (C) electrons and holes (D) holes only 54. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ration from primary to secondary

are respectively (A) ferrite : 20 : 1 (B) laminated iron : 1 :1 (C) ferrite : 1 : 1 (D) powered iron : 1: 1 55. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse mode is a (A) 1 phase full converter (B) 3 phase half wave converter (C) 3 phase semi converter (D) 3 phase full converter. 56. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is (A) square wave (B) triangular wave (C) step function (D) pulsed wave 57. a single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is (A) 100V (B)141.4V (C)200V (D)282.8V 58. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying (A) T keeping Ton constant (B) Ton keeping T constant (C) Toff keeping T constant (D) None of the above 59.An ideal power supply consist of (A) Very small output resistance (B) Zero Internal resistance (C) Very large input resistance (D) Very large output resistance 60. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by (A) ? (B) gamma (C) ? (D) e 61. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as (A) 1111101 (B) 0001 0010 0101 (C) 7D (D) None of the bove 62. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures A) Current series feedback (B) Current shunt feedback (C) Voltage series feedback (D) Voltage shunt feedback 63. Class A amplifier is used when (A) No phase inversion is required (B) Highest voltage gain is required

(C) dc voltages are to be amplified (D) Minimum distortion is desired. 64. Identity the correct match for the given transister (A) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET (B) Depletion type N channel MOSFET (C) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET (D) Depletion type P channel MOSFET 65. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter, the constructed signal will be (A) Distortion-less (B) Small in amplitude (C) Having higher frequencies suppressed (D) Distorted 66. IC which has quad 2 input AND gates (A) 7411 (B) 7404 (C)7400 (D) 7408 67. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as (A) left shift register (B) right shift register (C) shift registers (D) none of the above 68. The expression ABC can be simplified to 69. Read the following (i) Routh Herwitzs criterion is in time domain (ii) Root locus plot is in time domain (iii) Bode plot is in frequency domain (iv) Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain. (A) 2,3 and 4 are correct (B) 1,2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) all four are correct 70. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both (A) count pulses (B) store binary operation (C) shift operation (C) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip. 71. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits

required is (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 200 72. On different unit impulse function results in (A) Unit parabolic function (B) Unit triplet (C) Unit doublet (D) Unit ramp function 73. watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite (A) 100 (B) 500 (C) 2000 (D) 1000 74. The ripple factor in an LC filter. (A) Increases with the load current (B) Increases with the load resistance (C) Remains constant with the load current (D) Has the lowest value 75. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their (A) Language digits (B) Access digits (C) Area codes (D) Central office codes 76. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because (A) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems (B) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power (C) its use avoids receiver complexity (D) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity. 77. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function. (A) 15o (B) 45o (C) 30o (D) 60o 78. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is (A) Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain (B) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action (C) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback (D) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action, 79. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function.

A -80 dB/dec to -60 dB/dec B 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec C 20 dB/dec to -40 dB/dec D 40 dB/dec to -20 dB/dec 80. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by K Number of asymptotes of its root loci is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 81. In a closed loop transfer function A. j228 B. j2.28 C. j1.14 D. j114 82. Considering the following statement : In a magic tee 1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other 2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm 3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm 4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. Of these statements (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 1 and 4 are correct (D) 2 and 3 are correct. 83. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called (A) ANIK (B) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat 1) (C) WESTAR (D)MOLNIYA 84. When A = 0., B = 0, C = 1 then in two input logic gate we get gate (A) XOR gate (B) AND gate (C) NAND gate (D) NOR gate 85. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier (A) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency (B) amplifies the output of local oscillator (C) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency (D) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies

86. A duplexer is used to (A) Couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference (B) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator (C) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver (D) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference. 87. Boolean algebra is based on (A) numbers (B) logic (C) truth (D) symbols 88. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be (A) linear amplifier (B) harmonic generators (C) class C power amplifiers (D) class untuned amplifiers 89. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on (A) maximum power of the transmitter (B) pulse repetition frequency (C) width of the transmitted pulse (D) sensitivity of the radar receiver. 90. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to (A) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace (B) help vertical synchronization (D) simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse 91. The frequency range 30MHz 300MHz is (A) medium frequency (B) very high frequency (C) super high frequency (D) Infrared frequency 92. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide (A) TE (B) TM (C) TEM (D) HE 93.Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at (A) upto 18 kms from earth (B) from 18 to 70 km (C) 70 to 500 km (D) above 500km 94. A two cavity klystron tube is a (A) velocity modulated tube (B) frequency modulated tube (C) Amplitude modulated tube (D) simple triode 95. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get. (A) doubled (B) quadruped (C) unchanged (D) halved.

96.Which one is a cross field tube (A) Klystron (B) Reflex Klystron (C) Magnetron (D) TWT 97. The degree of coupling depends (A) size of hole (B) location of holes (C) size and location of holes (D) not depend on size or location of hole 98. The thermal noise depends on (A) direct current through device (B) resistive component of resistance (C) reactive component of impedance (D) load to connected. 99. The charge on a hole is (A) 1.6 x 10-9 (B) 1.6 x 10-19 (C) 1.6 x 101 (D) 1.6 x 1020 100. Intels 8085 microprocessor chip contains (A) seven 8 bit registers (B) 8 seven bits registers (C) seven 7 bit registers (D) eight 8 bit registers. PART III 101. The words Satyameva Jayathe have been taken from (A) Vedas (B) Bhagavad Gita (C) Mundaka Upanishada (D) Mahabharatha (E) None of these 102. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb? (A) USA (B) USSR (C) China (D) Pakistan 103. Kathakali dance is connected with (A) Kerala (B) Rajastan (C) Uttar pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu 104. The term Ashes is associated with (A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Soccer (D) None of these. 105. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of (A) Gupta architecture (B) Rashtrakutlas architecture (C) Chalukya architecture (D) Chola architecture 106. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by (A) Joint sitting of the two Houses

(B) President of India (C) Prime Minister of India (D) BY a special committee for the purpose 107. Which of the following is not work of kalidasa? (A) Meghdood (B) Reghuvansha (C) Sariputra Prakarma (D) Ritushamhara 108. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of (A) Akbar the Grest (B) Mahmud Ghaznvi (C) Snah Jahan (D) Alauddin Khilji 109. With the beginings of space travel, we entered a new (A) Era of great history (B) List (C) Book (D) Year 110. An though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad. (A) Funny poem (B) Newspaper article (C) Othodox talk (D) Elegy 111. If stare is glance so gulp is (A) Sip (B) Tell (C) Salk (D) Admire 112. He hardly works means (A) The work is hard (B) He is hard (C) The work is easy (D) He work very little. 113. Give the opposite word for pulchritude (A) antipathy (B) unsightliness (C) inexperience (D) languor 114. Nanometre is . part of metre (A) MIllionth (B) Ten Millionth (C) Billionth (D) Ten billionth 115. Malaria affects (A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Intestine (D) Lungs 116. Sindhu Rakshak is a /an A) Aircraft carrier (B) Submarine (C) Multiple purpose fighter (D) Anti-aircraft gun 117. With which subject is Dada Saheb Phalke Award associated. (A) Best film director (B) Best musician

(C) Best documentary (D) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film industry 118. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus? (A) Arybhatta (B) Newton (C) Einstein (D) Archimedes 119. In which state in Kanha Part situated? (A) M.P (B) U.P (C) Assam (D) W.Bengal 120. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day? (A) 24th October (B) 4th July (C) 8th Auguest (D) 10th December ANSWERS: 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5.(C) 6. (C) 7.(B) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10.(B) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13.(B) 14. (B) 15.(C) 16. (A) 17.(C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22.(B) 23. (D) 24.(D) 25. (B) 26.(B) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (A) 31.(C) 32. (B) 33.(D) 34. (C) 35.(B) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40.(C) 41. (A) 42.(B) 43. (C) 44.(C) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49.(C) 50. (B) 51.(A) 52. (B) 53.(C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (D) 58.(A) 59. (B) 60.(D) 61. (A) 62.(A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67.(C) 68. (D) 69.(D) 70. (D) 71.(B) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74 (D) 75. (C) 76.(C) 77. (C) 78.(D) 79. (A) 80.(D) 81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (C) 85.(C) 86. (C) 87.(B) 88. (C) 89.(B) 90. (C) 91. (B) 92. (C) 93. (C) 94.(A) 95. (C) 96.(C) 97. (B) 98.(B) 99. (B) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103.(A) 104. (B) 105.(D) 106. (C) 107.(D) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (D) 111. (A) 112. (D) 113.(B) 114. (B) 115.(B) 116. (D) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119.(B) 120. (A).

BSNL JTO Previous Question Paper 2008 1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is a. Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor. b. Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the pointing vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates. c. The pointing vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates. d. The pointing vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates. 2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to a. Polarization b. Conductivity

c. Structural homogeneties d. Ionization 3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon a. Boron b. Indium c. Germanium d. Antimony 4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess a. High thermal conductivity and high melting point b. Low thermal conductivity and low melting point c. High thermal conductivity and low melting point d. Low thermal conductivity and high melting point 5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the a. infrared region b. ultraviolet region c. visible region d. x-ray region 6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively a. high and high b. low and high c. high and low d. low and low 7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress a. odd harmonics b. even harmonics c. fundamental component

d. dc component 8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on a. mutual inductance between two coils only b. self inductances of the two coils only c. mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils d. none 9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of a. paper b. rubber c. ceramic d. Mylar 10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is a. always positive b. always negative c. sometime positive, sometime negative d. numerically less than its kinetic energy 11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no a. channel b. gate c. P-N junctions d. substrate 12. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that a. it is more sensitive b. it is more linear c. it is less temperature dependent d. it's cost is low

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by a. thermally generated electrons and holes b. diffusion of majority carriers across the junction c. migration of minority carriers across the junction d. flow of drift current 14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter a. recombine with holes in the base b. recombine in the emitter itself c. pass through the base to the collector d. are stopped by the junction barrier 15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is a. 0.5 b. 0 c. 1.0 d. 0.8 16. A UJT can a. be triggered by any one of it's three terminals b. not be triggered c. be triggered by two of its three terminal only d. be triggered by all of its terminals only 17. An SCR can only be turned off via it's a. cathode b. anode c. gates d. none 18. Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to

a. increase the recombination rate b. reduce the recombination rate c. make silicon a direct gap semiconductor d. make silicon semi-metal 19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have a. (b + n) links b. b - n + 1 links c. b - n - 1 links d. b + n + 1 links 20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be a. 7 b. 9 c. 10 d. 45 21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give a. an output power which is one - quarter of the input power b. an output power which is one - half of the input power c. an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage d. an output power which is 0.707 of the input power 22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer a. the terminals are kept shorted b. critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals c. the terminals are kept open circuited d. it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals 23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2?

1. R1 = 147W 2. R1 = 153W 3. R2 = 1.5W 4. R2 = 3750W a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4 24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is a. 49w b. 60w c. 70w d. 140w 25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network 1. Z11 = Z22 2. h12 = h21 3. Y12 = -Y21 4. BC - AD = -1 then the network is reciprocal if and only if a. 1 and 2 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. 3 and 4 are correct d. 4 alone is correct 27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are

doubled then the values of the node voltages are a. will become half b. will remain high c. will become double d. cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known 28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density d in vacuum isAns. 5.4x109xQ2/r where Q=4/3(pie.r3d 29. Maxwell's divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by Ans. y 30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it's radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it's radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be a. R/2 ohms b. R ohms c. 2R ohms d. 4R ohms 31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include a. TE111 and TM111 b. TE011 and TM011 c. TE022 and TM111 d. TE111 and TM011 32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it's efficiency will be nearly a. 0.19 b. 0.81 c. 0.97

d. 1.19 33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be a. Zero b. IF c. 4pF d. OF 34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it's characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if 'd' is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then a. d = 1.5 cm b. d is less then 1.5 cm c. d is greater than 1.5 cm d. d = 3cm 35. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is a. 0.89159 % b. 8.9159 % c. 89.159 % d. 891.59 % 36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally a. 5 KHz b. 15 KHz c. 75 KHz d. 200 KHz 37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is a. sinusoidal

b. square c. rectangular d. triangular 38. Strain gauge is a. not a transducer b. an active transducer c. not an electronic instrument d. none 39. A high Q coil has a. large band width b. high losses c. low losses d. flat response 40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is a. 1.810% b. 0.181% c. 18.10% d. 0.0018% 41. The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for a. High frequency, large signal operation b. High frequency, small signal operation c. Low frequency, small signal operation d. Low frequency, large signal operation 42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on a. Values of input in the past and in the future

b. Values of input at that time and in the past c. Values of input at that time and in the future d. None 43. A iron cored choke is a a. Linear and active device b. Non linear and passive device c. Active device only d. Linear device only 44. Pointing vector wattmeter uses a. Seebeck effect b. Ferranti effect c. Induction effect d. Hall effect 45. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ? a. Thermocouple b. Piezoelectric pick - up c. Photo voltaic cell d. LCD 46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is a. Converter system b. Inverter c. Chopper d. Thyristor 47. It is a unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode a. SCR b. PCR

c. VCR d. DCR 48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a a. constant voltage source b. constant current source c. constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source d. resistance 49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of a. electrons only b. electrons or holes c. electrons and holes d. holes only 50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively a. ferrite: 20: 1 b. laminated iron: 1: 1 c. ferrite: 1: 1 d. powdered iron: 1: 1 51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a a. 1 phase full converter b. 3 phase half wave converter c. 3 phase semi converter d. 3 phase full converter 52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is a. square wave

b. triangular wave c. step function d. pulsed wave 53. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with center tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is a. 100V b. 141.4V c. 200V d. 282.8V 54. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying a. T keeping Ton constant b. Ton keeping T constant c. Toff keeping T constant d. None of the above 55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because a. of change of state from metal to gas due to heat. b. of change of stats from gas to metal. c. the energy supplied is greater than the work function d. the energy is greater than Fermi level. 56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is a. amplifier b. triode c. diode d. transistor 57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is a. Either cathode

b. Either anode c. The central tap on the high voltage secondary d. Either plate 58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will a. Amplify the noise as much as the signal b. Reduce the noise c. Increase the noise d. Not effect the noise 59. Match the given feedback circuit with it's proper nomenclatures a. Current series feedback b. Current shunt feedback c. Voltage series feedback d. Voltage shunt feedback 60. Class A amplifier is used when a. No phase inversion is required b. Highest voltage gain is required c. dc voltages are to be amplified d. Minimum distortion is desired 61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor a. Enhancement type P channel MOSFET b. Depletion type N channel MOSFET c. Enhancement type N channel MOSFET d. Depletion type P channel MOSFET 62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be a. Distortion less b. Small in amplitude

c. Having higher frequencies suppressed d. Distorted 63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is a. 7411 b. 7404 c. 7400 d. 7408 64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as a. left shift register b. right shift register c. shift registers d. none of the above 65. The expression ABC can be simplified to Ans. A + B + C 66. An ideal power supply consist of a. Very small output resistance b. Zero internal resistance c. Very large input resistance d. Very large output resistance 67. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by 68. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both a. count pulses b. store binary operation c. shift registers d. made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip 69. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as

a. 1111101 b. 0001 0010 0101 c. 7D d. None of the above 70. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 200 71. On differentiation unit impulse function results in a. Unit parabolic function. b. Unit triplet. c. Unit doublet. d. Unit ramp function. 72. Read the following; i. Routh Hermitz's criterion is in time domain. ii. Root locus plot is in time domain. iii. Bode plot is in frequency domain. iv. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain. a. 2, 3, and 4 are correct b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct c. 3 and 4 are correct d. All four are correct. 73. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function. a. 150

b. 450 c. 300 d. 600 74. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is a. Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain. b. Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action. c. Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback. d. Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action. 75. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function a. -40dB/dec to -20dB/dec b. 40dB/dec to 20dB/dec c. -20dB/dec to -40dB/dec d. 40dB/dec to -20dB/dec 76. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by Number of asymptotes of its root loci is a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 77. In a closed - loop transfer function the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be 78. Considering the following statement: In a magic tee 1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other 2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm

3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm 4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. Of these statements a. 1 and 2 are correct b. 1 and 3 are correct c. 1 and 4 are correct d. 2 and 3 are correct 79. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called a. ANIK b. EARLY BIRD (Intel sat -1) c. WESTAR d. MOLNIYA 80. --- watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite a. 100 b. 500 c. 2000 d. 1000 81. The ripple factor in an LC filter a. Increases with the load current b. Increases with the load resistance c. Remains constant with the load current d. Has the lowest value 82. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their a. Language digits b. Access digits c. Area codes

d. Central office codes 83. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because a. it is move noise immune than other modulation systems b. compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power c. its use avoids receiver complexity d. no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity 84. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be a. linear amplifier b. harmonic generators c. class C power amplifiers d. class B untuned amplifiers 85. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on a. maximum power of the transmitter b. pulse repetition frequency c. width of the transmitted pulse d. sensitivity of the radar receiver 86. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to a. equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace. b. help vertical synchronization c. help horizontal synchronization. d. simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse 87. The frequency range 30MHz - 300MHz is a. medium frequency b. very high frequency c. super high frequency d. Infrared frequency

88. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide a. TE b. TM c. TEM d. HE 89. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at a. upto 18kms from earth b. from 18 to 70 km c. 70 to 500 km d. above 500 km 90. A two cavity klystron tube is a a. velocity modulated tube b. frequency modulated tube c. Amplitude modulated tube d. simple triode 91. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get a. doubled b. quadrupted c. unchanged d. halved 92. Which one is a cross field tube a. Klystron b. Reflex Klystron c. Magnetron d. TWT 93. The degree of coupling depends on

a. size of hole b. location of holes c. size and location of holes d. not depend on size or location of hole 94. The thermal noise depends on a. direct current through device b. resistive component of resistance c. reactive component of impedance d. load to connected 95. The charge on a hole is Ans. 1.6x10-19 96. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier a. is tuned above the stations incoming frequency b. amplifies the output of local oscillator c. is fixed tuned to one particular frequency d. can be tuned to various isolate frequencies 97. A duplexer is used to 1) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference 2) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator 3) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver 4) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference 98. Intel's 8085 microprocessor chip contains a. seven 8 bit registers b. 8 seven bits registers c. seven 7 d. eight 8

99. Boolean algebra is based on a. numbers b. logic c. truth d. symbols 100. When A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 then in 2 input logic gate we get - - gate a. XOR b. AND c. NAND d. NOR 101. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new - a. Era of great history b. List c. Book d. Year 102. An - - though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad. a. Funny poem b. Newspaper article c. Orthodox talk d. Elegy 103. If stare is glance so gulp is a. Sip b. Tell c. Salk d. Admire 104. He hardly works means

a. The work is hard b. He is hard c. The work is easy d. He works very little 105. Give the opposite word for pulchritude a. antipathy b. unsightliness c. inexperience d. languor 106. Nanometre is - - - - part of a metre. a. Millionth b. Ten millionth c. Billionth d. Ten billionth 107. Malaria affects a. Liver b. Spleen c. Intestine d. Lungs 108. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an a. Aircraft carrier b. Submarine c. Multiple-purpose fighter d. Anti-aircraft gun 109. With which subject is "Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated? a. Best film director

b. Best musician c. Best documentary d. Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry 110. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus? a. Aryabhatta b. Newton c. Einstein d. Archimedes 111. In which state is Kanha Park situated? a. M.P. b. U.P. c. Assam d. W. Bengal 112. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day? a. 24th October b. 4th July c. 8th August d. 10th December 113. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of a. Gupta architecture b. Rashtrakuta architecture c. Chalukya architecture d. Chola architecture 114. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by a. Joint sitting of the two Houses b. President of India

c. Prime Minister of India d. By a special committee for the purpose 115. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa? a. Meghdoot b. Raghuvansha c. Sariputra Prakarma d. Ritushamhara 116.Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of a. Akbar the Great b. Mahmud Ghaznvi c. Shah Jahan d. Alauddin Khilji 117. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' have been taken from a. Vedas b. Bhagwad Gita c. Mundaka Upanishada d. Mahabharata e. None of these 118. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb? a. USA b. USSR c. China d. Pakistan 119. "Kathakali" dance is connected with a. Kerala b. Rajasthan

c. Uttar Pradesh d. Tamil Nadu 120. The term "Ashes" is associated with a. Hockey b. Cricket c. Soccer d. none of these

BSNL Telecom Technical Assistant (TTA) 2008 Paper 1. If the matrix A = is singular, then ? = a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5 2. A = is symmetric, then x = a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5 3. If A is a 3 x 3 matrix and det(3 A) = k det(A) then k = a) 9 b) 6 c) 1 d) 27 4. If A = , then A-1 = a) b) c) d) 5. If A = then A2 is equal to a) A b) A c) Null Matrix d) I 6. is a a) rectangular matrix b) singular matrix b) non-singular matrix d) skew-symmetric matrix 7. The slope of the straight line whose inclination with negative x-axis is 120 is a) b) c) 1 d) infinity 8. If two lines whose slopes are m1 and m2 are perpendicular iff a) m1 = m2 b) m1m2 = 0 c) m1m2 = -1 d) m1 + m2 = -1 9. The rate of increase of the radius of a circle is 1 cm/sec, the rate of increase of its area is 4? cm2/sec at a

particular instant. The radius at that instant is a) 2 cm b) 3 cm c) 4 cm d) 6 cm 10.If the side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.02 cm/min, the rate at which its area is increasing at the instant when the length of the side is 5 cm is a) 0.2 cm 2/min b) 0.4 cm 2/min c) 0.1 cm 2/min d) 0.6 cm 2/min 11.A particle is moving on a plane according to the distance-time relationship is given by s = t3 + 6t2 + 8t 4. When its acceleration is 8 m/sec2, its velocity is a) 8 m/sec b) 11 m/sec c) 23 m/sec d) -1 m/sec 12.A stone moves vertically upwards according to the distance-time equation s = 16t 2t2.The greatest height reached by the stone is a) 4 b) 64 c) 32 d) 96 13.The distance moved by a particle traveling in a straight line in t seconds is given by s = 45t + 11t2 t3. The time taken by the particle to come to rest is a) 9 sec b) 5 sec c) 3 sec d) 2 sec 14.The distance s described by a particle in time t is given by the relation s = aet + be-t. The acceleration is equal to a) velocity b) the distance traveled c) twice the distance traveled d) the square of the distance traveled 15.The slope of the normal to the curve y = at the point is a) 9 b) -9 c) d) 17.The normal to the curve y = f(x) will be parallel to x-axis if a) b) c) d) 18.The maximum point of the function 23 92 + 12x is a) x = 0 b) x = 5 c) x = 1 d) x = 2 19.The minimum value of 23 92 + 12x 4 is a) 1 b) 3 c) 0 d) -2 20.The point of inflection of the function x3 32 + 3x is

a) (1,0) b) (1,1) c) (6,126) d) (-1,-7) 21.Velocity of sound is greatest in a) Solids b) Liquids c) Gases d) None of these 22.If the phase difference between the two waves is 2? during superimposition, then the resultant amplitude is a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Half of maximum d) None of these 23.If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude on superimposition produce a resultant disturbance of the same amplitude, the wave differ in phase by a) b) c) d) 24.The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 2sin?(0.5x 200t) where x and y are expressed in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is a) 400 cm/sec b) 300 cm/sec c) 200 cm/sec d) 100 cm/sec 25.Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 0.2 cos ?(0.04t + 0.02x 1/6). The distance is expressed in cm and time in sec. The minimum distance between two particles separated by phase difference ?/2 is radian is a) 25 cm b) 12.5 cm c) 8 cm d) 4 cm 26.Ultrasonic waves are those waves which a) Human being can hear b) Human being cannot hear c) Have high velocity d) Have large amplitude 27.It is possible to distinguish between the transverse and longitudinal waves by studying the property of a) Interference b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection 28.The following phenomenon cannot be observed for sound waves a) Refraction b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection 29.Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upon a) Frequency of the wave produced b) Velocity of the source c) Velocity of the listener/observer d) Distance between source and listener 30.A source of sound of frequency 450 cycles/second is moving towards a stationary observer with 34 m/s speed. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s then the apparent frequency will be

a) 410 cps b) 550 cps c) 500 cps d) 450 cps 31.An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound of frequency n. The apparent frequency heard by him is 2n. If the velocity of sound in air is 332 m/s, then the velocity of observer is a) 166 m/s b) 664 m/s c) 332 m/s d) 1328 m/s 32.The equation of a wave traveling in a string can be written as y = 3 cos ?(100t x).Its wavelength is a) 100 cm b) 5 cm c) 3 cm d) 2 cm 33.Sound velocity is maximum in a) O2 b) H2 c) He d) N2 34.Phon is the unit of a) Pitch b) Quality c) Timbre d) Loudness 35.Loudness of sound L and corresponding intensity of sound I are related as a) L = KI2 b) L = KI c) L = K d) L = K log I 36.The index of refraction of a medium is 1.5. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m/s, then its speed in the medium will be a) 2 x 108 m/s b) 1.2 x 108 m/s c) 4 x 108 m/s d) 3.2 x 108 m/s 37.The ratio of intensities of the two waves is given by 4:1. The ratio of amplitudes of two waves is a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 4:1 d) 1:4 38.Two source of waves are called coherent if a) Both have the same amplitude by vibrations b) Both produce waves of different wavelength having constant phase difference c) Both produce waves of same wavelength having constant phase difference d) Both produce waves having the same velocity 39.Which of the following does not support the wave nature of light? a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Polarization d) Photoelectric effect 40.Velocity of light will be minimum in a) Vacuum b) Air c) Water d) Glass

41.Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz is a) 2 x 106 m/s b) 3 x 106 m/s c) 4 x 106 m/s d) 5 x 106 m/s 42.A rocket is going away from earth at a speed of 106 m/s. If the wavelength of the light wave emitted by it be 5700 , its Dopplers shift will be a) 200 b) 19 c) 20 d) 0.2 43.Colour of light is known by its a) Velocity b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Polarization 44.A rocket is going away from the earth at a speed 0.2c where c = Speed of light. It emits a signal of frequency 4 x 107 Hz. The frequency observed by an observer on the earth will be a) 4 x 106 Hz b) 3.3 x 106 Hz c) 3 x 106 Hz d) 5 x 107 Hz 45.A light wave has a frequency of 4 x 1014 Hz and a wavelength of 5 x 10-7 m in a medium. The refractive index of the medium is a) 1.5 b) 1.33 c) 1.0 d) 0.66 46.Stars are twinkling due to optical phenomenon of a) Refraction b) Scattering c) Reflection d) Diffraction 47.The splitting of white light into several colours on passing through a glass prism is due to a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Interference d) Diffraction 48.In Bohrs model, if the atomic radius of the first orbit is ro, then the radius of the fourth orbit is a) 16 ro b) ro c) 4 ro d) ro/16 49.The average binding energy per nucleon in the nucleus of an atom is approximately a) 8 eV b) 8 MeV c) 8 KeV d) 8 Volt 50.The mass equivalent of 931 MeV energy is a) 1.66 x 10-20 kg b) 1.66 x 10-27 kg c) 6.02 x 10-24 kg d) 6.02 x 10-27 kg 51.The energy equivalent to 1 a.m.u. is a) 931 MeV b) 931 eV c) 931 KeV d) 9.31 MeV

52.The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is a) + 2 b) 1 c) + 1 d) 2 53.The size of an atom is of the order of a) 1 b) 1 fermi c) 1 nm b) 1 micron 54.The mass defect per nucleon is called a) Packing fraction b) Binding Energy c) Ionization Energy d) Excitation Energy 55.Nuclear Binding Energy is equal to a) Mass of Nucleus b) Mass defect of Nucleus c) Mass of Proton d) Mass of Neutron 56.The Pfund series of Hydrogen spectrum lies in the region\ a) Infrared b) Visible c) Ultraviolet d) X-Ray 57.The number of neutrons in 92U238 is a) 92 b) 238 c) 330 d) 146 58.The energy required to remove an electron in a hydrogen atom from n = 10 state is a) 136.0 eV b) 13.60 eV c) 1.36 eV d) 0.136 eV 59.The angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is given by a) b) c) d) 60.The rest energy of an electron is a) 510 MeV b) 51 MeV c) 931 MeV d) 93.1 MeV 61.In the lowest energy level of hydrogen atom, the electron has the angular momentum a) ?/h b) h/? c) h/2? d) 2?/h 62.Laser is working in the principle of a) Stimulated emission of radiation b) Spontaneous emission of radiation c) Population inversion d) Normal population 63.The output beam of Ruby Laser has the wavelength of

a) 6943 b) 6328 c) 6300 d) 5500 64.In the He-Ne Laser , the He-Ne in the mixture of a) 10:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 5:1 65.The full form of LIDAR is a) Light Amplitude and Ranging b) Light Detection and Ranging c) Light Defect and Ranging d) Laser Detection and Ranging 66.Which one of the following is solid state laser? a) Nd:YAG Laser b) He-Ne Laser c) CO2 Laser d) GaAs Laser 67.Populaton Inversion is achieved by means of a) Optical pumping b) Gas pumping c) Mechanical pumping d) Solid pumping 68.GRASERS are a) Galium Arsenide Lasers b) Gamma Ray Lasers c) General Ranging Lasers d) Gallium Radium Lasers 69.LASER Beam is a) Highly monochromatic b) Highly Intense c) Highly Coherent d) All of the above 70.Which one of the following cannot be used as a pulsed device? a) CFA b) BWO c) TWT d) Magnetron 71.Klystron works in the principle of a) Velocity Modulation b) Amplitude Modulation c) Frequency Modulation d) Phase Modulation 72.Strapping in Magnetron is used to a) prevent mode jumping b) ensure bunching

c) improve the phase focusing effect d) prevent cathode back heating 73.Which is not a TWT slow wave structure a) Coupled cavity b) helix c) ring bars d) periodic permanent magnet 74.30 to 300 MHz frequency range is categorized as a) MF b) VHF c) UHF d) SHF 75.Find the centre of the circle whose two extremities of diameter are (2,3) & (4,-1) is a) (3,1) b) (6,8) c) (3,-2) d) (-6,8) 76.The centre and radius of the circle x2+y2+4x6y+2=0 are a) (-2,3) & 5 b) (-2,3) & 5 c) (2,-3) & 5 d) (2,-3) & 2 77.The angle between the straight lines x + 2y -3 = 0 & 2x + 4y -4 = 0 is a) ? = 90 b) ? = 60 c) ? = 0 d) ? = 45 78.The condition for the pair of straight lines ax2+2xy+by2+2x+2y+3=0 to be perpendicular is a) h2ab = 0 b) ab = 2 c) a+b = 0 d) a-b = 0 79.The particular integral of +3 + 2y = 2e-x is a) 2xe-x b) 2e-x c) x2e-x d) xe-x 80.The particular integral of +4 + 4y = 3sin2x is a) cos2x b) cos2x c) sin2x d) 3xcos2x 81.The complementary function of (D2+3)y = e-x is a) Ae x + Be x b) (A+Bx) e x c) A cos3x + B sin3x d) A cos x + B sin x 82.The solution of (D2-2D-15)y = 0 is a) y = Ae3x + Be5x b) y = Ae-3x + Be-5x c) y = Ae5x + Be-3x d) y = Ae-5x + Be3x 83.The particular integral of + y = 3 is a) 3 b) x/3 c) 3/y d) -3 84.The area bounded by x2 = 2y, the x-axis and the lines x = 1 and x = 3 is

a) b) c) d) 85.The area of the curve y = sin x bounded by the x-axis from x = 0 to x = 2? is a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0 86.The area enclosed by the curve xy = 8 and x-axis from x = 1 to x = 4 is a) 8 log 2 b) 16 log 2 c) 4 log 2 d) 2 log 4 87.The area bounded by the curve x = 3y2 9 and the lines x = 0, y = 0 and y = 1 is a) 8 b) c) d) 3 88.When the area enclosed by the curve y = and the x-axis from x = 0 and x = 4 is rotated about the x-axis, the volume generated is a) b) c) d) 89.The area included between the curve y = x x2 and the x-axis revolves about the x-axis. The volume generated by the area is a) b) c) d) 90.If the area enclosed between the curve y2 = x3 + 5x and the x-axis from x = 2 to x = 4 is revolved about the xaxis, the volume of the solid generated is a) 45? b) 90? c) 120? d) 60? 91. a) 12 b) 0 c) 6 d) 18 92. = a) sin-1x b) cos-1x c) tan-1x c) cot-1x 93. a) log f(x) b) 2 c) f(x) d) f(x)/2 94. a) sec x b) tan x c) cos x d) cot x 95.The acceleration of a particle at any time t is given by 32 2x + 1, then the velocity of the particle at any time is

a) x3 -2x 2 + x b) x3 -x 2 + x c) x 2 + x d) x 2 + x +1 96.The Laplace transform of f(t) = t2 e-3t is a) b) c) d) 97.The Laplace transform of f(t) = 1 + cos2t is a) b) c) d) 98.The Laplace transform of unit step function is a) b) c) 1 d) 99.The initial value of the function F(S) = a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d) 100.The inverse Laplace transform of is a) e-t b) 1-e-t c) 1- et d) 2(1+ e-t) 101.The inverse Laplace transform of is a) et cos2t b) et sin2t c) e-t cos2t d) e-t sin2t 102.(1+i)3 is equal to a) 3 + 3i b) 1 + 3i c) 3 3i d) 2i 2 103.The value of i13+i14+i15+i16 is a) 0 b) -1 c) i d) i 104. The polar form of complex number -1- i is a) 2(cos + i sin ) b) 2(cos + i sin ) b) 2(cos i sin ) d) 2(cos + i sin ) 105.The modulus of a complex number is a) b) 2 c) 1 d) 106.The value of (3+?+3?2)4 is a) 16 b) 16 ? c) -16 ? d) 0 107.The value of is a) cos 2? + i sin 2? b) cos ? + i sin ?

c) cos ? i sin ? d) cos 26? + i sin 26? 108.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) = cosx defined in (-?, ?) is a) 0 b) 1 c) ? d) -2 ? 109. The value of the fourier coefficient a0 for the half range series for f(x) defined in (0, ?) is a) a0 = b) a0 = c) a0 = d) 0 110.The value of the fourier coefficient an for the function f(x) is odd is a) 0 b) an = c) an= d) a0 = 111.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) is even is a) 0 b) bn = c) bn = d) bn = 112.If u = exy then x a) u b) u logeu c) logeu d) ueu 113.If u = then the value of is a) b) 0 c) x+y d) -1 114.If u = sin-1 , then the value of is a) b) c) d) 115.If u = xy, then is a) y/x b) xyx-1 c) yxy-1 d) xy-1 116. Given = = 6 and . = 18, the angle between and is a) b) c) d) 117.( ) x ( + ) = a) 2 x b) x c) 2 x d) 2 2 118.The volume of the parallelepiped whose three coterminous edges are represented by the vectors + , + , + is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1

119.The value of p such that the vectors -2 + 3 , 4 +3 and 11 +p + 7 are coplanar is a) -7 b) 0 c) -12 d) 12 120.Reverberation of sound means a) existence of sound in a room b) vibration of sound waves c) existence of sound eventhough the source of sound is cutoff d) strong echoes 121.Ultrasonic waves can be produced by a) Piezo-electric effect b) Inverse Piezo-electric effect c) Magnetostriction effect d) Both b & c 122.The Sabines formula for reverberation time is a) T = b) T = c) T = d) T = 0.16 aAS