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Sample Exam Paper 1/2

DEAR FRIENDS, THE DENTAL SADI COUNCIL EXAM WILL CONTAIN AROUND 45- 50 QUESTIONS FROM THESE TWO SAMPLE PAPERS WHICH ARE ACTUALLY A GOOD COLLECTION OF THE PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPERS. CONSIDERING THAT THE ACTUAL EXAM HAS ONLY 70 QUESTIONS OUT OF WHICH YOU NEED 42 CORRECT ANSWERS TO PASS, GOING THROUGH THESE PAPERS IS NOT A BAD IDEA.

NOTE: ALL ANSWERS MARKED CORRECT ARE CORRECT TO THE BEST OF MY KNOWLEDGE, WHICH HAVE BEEN SELECTED AFTER CAREFUL STUDY OVER VARIOUS SOURCES. (Books, journals, internet) HOWEVER CARE SHOULD BE TAKEN TO READ THE QUESTION CAREFULLY AS SOMETIMES THE QUESTION ITSELF CAN GIVE YOU THE ANSWER.
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ALSO BE ON THE LOOKOUT FOR OPTION all of the above WHICH MAY SOMETIMES BE ADDED TO THE ANSWERS OF SOME OF THE ABOVE QUESTIONS. AS ALL OF THE ANSWERS ARE TO BE SELECTED IN A BEST OF THE ABOVE FORMAT IN THIS EXAM, YOU CAN EXPECT TO SEE A FEW QUESTIONS IN WHICH ALL THE ANSWERS SEEM TO BE CORRECT. IN THIS CASE YOU ARE SUPPOSED TO SELECT THE BEST OR NEAREST OF THE AVAILABLE OPTIONS IN CASE all of the above OPTION IS NOT GIVEN.IN THIS KEY , I HAVE MARKED SUCH ANSWERS CORRECT WITH THEIR ORDER OF PREFERENCE( ex: the best option will be marked CORRECT 1 , and the next one as CORRECT 2 , and so forth. FINALLY, THE QUESTIONS WHICH I AM NOT SURE ABOUT ARE MARKED PROBABLE. PLEASE VERIFY THEM. ONE MORE THING I WOULD LIKE AT IS, PLEASE DO NOT JUST MEMORIZE THE ABOVE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS AS THE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS CAN BE REPHRASED AND IN THAT CASE YOU WOULD END UP MARKING THE WRONG ANSWER. HENCE I WOULD ADVISE YOU TO READ THE TOPICS THE ABOVE QUESTIONS RELATE TO. BEST OF LUCK. DR. SUHAIB KHUSRO Sample Exam Paper 1 1. The following chemically bond to the tooth a) Composite resin b) Dental sealants c) Glass ionomer cement CORRECT d) All of the above 2. Compomer restorative materials are a) Glass ionomer with polymer components
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b) Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses CORRECT c) Composite restorations for cervical restorations only 3. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from a) Improper cavity preparation b) Faulty manipulation c) Both of the above CORRECT d) None of the above 4. A glossy finish is best retained on a a) Micro filled composite resin restoration CORRECT b) Macro filled resin restoration c) Hybrid composite resin restoration d) Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration 5. A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a a) No. 330 tungsten carbide bur b) Mounted stone c) 12 - fluted carbide bur CORRECT d) Coarse diamond point (stone) 6. The functions of cement bases are a) To act like a barrier against acids or thermal shocks b) The minimal thickness, which is required , is 0.5 mm of base Choose the appropriate answer a) 1 and 2 b) 1 only CORRECT c) 2 only d) None 7. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics a) Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam b) It is the least technique sensitive of all current direct restorations c) High dimensional changes Choose the appropriate answer a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
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c) 1 and 2 CORRECT d) 2 only 8. When polishing the amalgam restoration a) Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste b) Wait for 24 hours Select the appropriate answer 1. a and b CORRECT 2. a only 3. b only 9. Silicate cement i. First tooth colored restoration ii. It can be used as permanent filling iii. It contains 15% fluoride Select the appropriate combination a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 CORRECT 10. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is a) Failure to extend the crown preparation into the gingival sulcus CORRECT! b) Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth c) Lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts d) Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci, and marginal ridges 11. Polyether impression materials a) Are less stable dimensionally than polysulfide rubber b) Are less stiff than polysulfide rubber c) Can absorb water and swell if stored in water CORRECT 12. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when a) Abutment teeth are carious b) An abutment tooth is inclined but is otherwise sound c) There is considerable depth of the residual ridge d) Crowns of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession CORRECT! 13. The most accurate impression material for making the
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impression of an inlay cavity a) Impression compound b) Condensation type silicone c) Polyvinyl siloxane CORRECT d) Polysulfides 14. To enhance strength properties of ceramic-metal restorations , it is important to a) Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal substructure b) Build up thick layer of porcelain c) Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal substructure d) Compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and the metal substructure Select the appropriate answer 1. a and b are correct 2. a and c are correct CORRECT 3. b and c are correct 4. b and d are correct 15. Orthognathic ridge relationship (Class II) presents several problems, which should be taken into consideration when constructing a complete denture prosthesis. These include all except: a) Requires minimum interocclusal distance CORRECT b) Have great range of jaw movement in function c) Require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated 16. Nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter. It may result from a) Thick posterior border b) Denture under extended c) Denture slightly overextended ( note: nausea doesnt occur if slightly over extended) d) a & b both are correct CORRECT 17. Planning centric occlusion for complete denture. It is advisable to have a) 1 2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of upper and
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lower anterior teeth with no contact CORRECT b) Definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to facilitate occlusion c) The use of anterior teeth for incision 18. The distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by the a) Tuberosity b) Fovea palatinae c) Maxillary tori d) Vibrating line CORRECT e) Posterior palatal seal 19. To a great extent , forces occurring through a removable partial denture can be widely distributed and minimized by the following methods a) Proper location of occlusal rests b) Selection of lingual bar major connector c) Developing balanced occlusion d) All of the above CORRECT! 20. An examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged patient who has worn maxillary complete dentures for many years against six mandibular anterior teeth would probably show a) Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve b) Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch CORRECT c) Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch d) Insufficient inter occlusal distance 21. The posterior seal in upper complete denture serves the following functions a) It reduces the patient discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and the posterior end of the denture base b) Retention of the maxillary denture c) It compensates for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture base during processing ( actually compensates for polymerization shrinkage ) d) a & b both are correct CORRECT 2 e) all of the above CORRECT 1
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**22. Dentures in a patient with highly inflamed tissues with trauma. a) Should be started immediately in order to prevent further deterioration b) The occlusion of the existing denture is adjusted and tissue conditioning material is applied and periodically replaced until the tissue are recovered then making impression takes place. CORRECT c) The patient is cautioned against removing the denture out at night d) Both a & b are correct e) All of the above are correct 23. Balanced occlusion refers to a) The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric occlusion only b) The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and eccentric jaw positions CORRECT c) A type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth 24. Indications for the use of linguoplate include a) For the purpose of retention b) When the lingual frenum is high or when there is shallow lingual sulcus c) To prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth d) All of the above CORRECT 25. In registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous patient, the physiological rest dimension a) Equals the vertical dimension of occlusion b) May be exceeded if the appearance of the patient is enhanced c) Is of little importance as it is subject to variations d) Must always be greater than vertical dimension of occlusion CORRECT 26. Three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distance extension mandibular removable partial denture, a patient complains of a sensitive abutment tooth. Clinical examination reveals sensitivity to percussion of the tooth.
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The most likely cause is a) Defective occlusion b) Exposed dentin at the bottom of the occlusal rest seat CORRECT! c) Galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration in opposing occlusion

27. In recent years there has been evidence that the prevalence and intensity of the caries attack has been diminished in the more economically developed countries mainly because of the widespread use of a) Artificial water fluoridation b) Fluoride toothpaste c) Dental health education programs d) Individualized oral hygiene instruction e) a & c CORRECT 28. In countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for community based preventive programs would be greater for a) Dental caries CORRECT b) Periodontal disease c) Dentofacial anomalies d) Dental fluorosis 29. Dental caries is endemic disease means that the disease a) Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy b) Is habitually present in human populations CORRECT c) Affects a large number of countries simultaneously d) Exhibits a seasonal pattern 30. Reliability of the measurements reflects that property of the measurements which a) Measures what is intended to be measured b) Produces repeatedly the same result under a variety of conditions CORRECT c) Detects reasonably small shifts, in either directions, in group condition d) All of the above

31. In terms of caries prevention the most effective and the most cost effective method is a) Community based programs CORRECT b) Privately based programs c) Individually based programs rook water fluoridation 32. Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate a) Proximity of the roots to adjacent anatomical structures b) Shape of the roots c) Associated pathology d) b & c e) all of the above CORRECT 33. The post operative complication after removal of third molar impaction a) Secondary hemorrhage b) Swelling c) Pain d) Alveolar osteitis e) All of the above CORRECT

34. Patients on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical procedure because a) The patient is more susceptible to infection CORRECT b) Antibiotics are synergistic to steroids c) Antibiotics inhibit Herksheimer reactions d) Antibiotics protect the patient from steroid depletion 35. The periodontal tissues compromise which of the following tissues a) Gingiva and PDL b) Gingiva , PDL and alveolar bone c) Gingiva, PDL , alveolar bone and cementum CORRECT d) Gingiva, PDL , alveolar bone , cementum and enamel 36. Which of the following may cause gingival enlargement a) Phenytoin (Dilantin) CORRECT 1 b) Cyclosporine CORRECT 3
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c) Nifedipine (Calcium channel blocker) CORRECT 2 d) Aspirin e) None of the above 37. The function of periodontal ligament includes a) Mechanical function b) Formative function c) Nutritive function d) Sensory function e) All of the above CORRECT 38. Periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to a) Remove the attached plaque and calculus b) Remove necrotic cementum c) Change the root surface to become biocompatible d) All of the above CORRECT e) a and b are correct 39. A 16 year old patient presents complaining of pain, bad breath, and bleeding gingivae. This began over the weekend while studying for the final examination the patient may have which of the following conditions a) ANUG CORRECT b) Rapidly progressive periodontitis c) Desquamative gingivitis d) Acute periodontal cyst 40. Pit & fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and fissures of which of the following a) Primary teeth b) Permanent teeth c) a & b CORRECT

41. Teeth that have lost pit & fissure sealants show a) The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed b) Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth c) Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth CORRECT d) The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant

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42. What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2? a) 2% copper b) 4% copper c) 10% copper d) 13% copper CORRECT 43. What is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam restoration a) 30 degree b) 60 degree c) 90 degree CORRECT d) 130 degree 44. When do you do amalgam finishing a) Immediately b) 24 hour later 45. What is the best instrument used for removing unsupported enamel at the gingival wall of Class II a) Chisel b) Hatchet c) Gingival marginal trimmer CORRECT 46. Acute periapical abscess associated with a) Swelling CORRECT b) Widening of PDL c) Pus discharge 47. Epidemiology can be defined as a) A study of special areas of the skin b) The study of the distribution and determinants of disease in man CORRECT c) Study of biological animals d) Study of disease in research laboratory 48. The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it relates to the concentration are a) Greater b) Lesser c) Same PROBABLE 49. Dental caries
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a) Is transmissible disease b) Is worldwide in distribution but uneven in intensity c) Can be prevented d) All of the above CORRECT e) None of the above 50. A glossy finish is best retained on a a) Microfilled composite resin restoration CORRECT b) Macrofilled composite resin restoration c) Hybrid composite resin restoration d) Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration 51. The most accurate impression material for making impression of an oral cavity is a) Impression compound b) Condensation type silicones c) Polyvinyl siloxanes CORRECT d) Polysulfides 52. One of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the ulcers are confined to the attached gingiva and hard palate a) True CORRECT! b) False 53. The functions of cement bases are a) To act like barrier against acids or thermal shocks b) The minimal thickness which is required is 0.5 mm of the base Select the appropriate answer 1. a & b 2. a only CORRECT 3. b only 4. none of the above 54. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics 1. Microleakage decreases with aging of the amalgam restoration 2. It is the least technique sensitive of all current dental restoration 3. High dimensional changes Select the appropriate
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1. 1, 2 & 3 2. 1 & 3 3. 1 & 2 CORRECT 4. 2 only 55. When polishing the amalgam restoration a) Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste b) Wait 24 hours Select the appropriate 1. a & b CORRECT 2. a only 3. b only

56. Silicate cements a) First tooth colored restoration b) It can be used as permanent restoration c) It contains 15% fluoride Select the appropriate 1. a , b and c 2. a & b 3. a & c CORRECT 4. a only 57. Permeability of dentin a) Bacterial products go through it CORRECT 2 b) Decrease by formation of smear layer CORRECT 1 c) Bacteria can go inside it CORRECT 2 58. How can you prevent dentinal hypersensitivity? a) Restoration by adhesion CORRECT b) Controlled by alcohol c) Put sedative medication 59. Best way to select retainer for rubber dam a) Contact all surface of the tooth
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b) Four points of contact two buccally and two lingually with out rocking CORRECT c) Contact above the height of contour 60. Treatment of gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene is mainly a) To advice the patients to change their faulty habits immediately CORRECT b) Reassure the patient that it will disappear by itself c) To buy a new tooth brush *61. Which of the following statement is true regarding calculus a) It is composed entirely of inorganic material b) It is dense in nature and has a rough surface c) It is mineralized dental plaque d) All of the above e) b & c CORRECT f) none of the above

62. Overhanging restoration margin should be removed because a) It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation b) It tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment level c) Stimulates inflammatory reaction directly d) Its removal permits more effective plaque control e) a & d CORRECT ---63. Chronic suppurative periodontitis a) Patient complains of moderate pain b) Fistula with pus discharge CORRECT c) Pulp polyp in open caries ---64. Acute periodontal abscess a) Fistula present b) Swelling and enlargement in the site of the tooth CORRECT 2 c) Variable degree of pain d) None of the above e) Establish incision and drainage CORRECT 1
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65. Main use of dental floss a) Remove calculus b) Remove overhangs c) Remove bacterial plaque CORRECT 1 d) Remove food debris CORRECT 2 66. Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radioopaque areas in the canine premolar area region of the mandible is a) Hematoma b) Remaining roots c) Torus mandibularis CORRECT d) Internal oblique ridge e) Genial tubercle 67. Which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular radiolucency a) Lateral periodontal cyst b) Squamous cell carcinoma of the jaw bones c) Primordial cyst d) Ameloblastoma CORRECT e) Osteomyelitis of the mandible 68. Early Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity presents as a) Vesicle b) A sessile mass c) Red plaque d) Ulcer CORRECT e) White cauliflower like lesion 69. The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope a) Hypoglycemia b) Mild hyperglycemia c) Anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agents d) Anti depressant therapy Select the appropriate combination 1. only a is correct 2. a and b are correct 3. b,c and d are correct 4. a,b,c and d are correct CORRECT

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70. Firm, fixed neck nodes are most to be detected in association with a) An ameloblastoma b) A basal cell carcinoma c) An odontogenic fibroma d) Squamous cell carcinoma CORRECT 71. Diagnosis prior to RCT should always be based on a) Good medical and dental history b) Proper clinical examination c) Result of pulp vitality test d) Periapical radiographs e) All of the above CORRECT 72. In ankylosis a) There is no PDL b) Caused by trauma c) Extracted surgically d) All of the above CORRECT 73. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points? a) Boiling b) Autoclave c) Chemical solutions CORRECT d) Dry heat sterilization --- 74. Distinguish periapical and periodontal abscess we use a) X-ray examination b) Clinical examination c) Vitality of the pulp CORRECT 75. The radiographic criteria used for evaluating the success of endodontic therapy is a) Reduction of the size of the periapical lesion CORRECT b) No response to percussion and palpation test c) Extension of the sealer cement through lateral canal d) None of the above 76. The access opening for a maxillary premolar is most frequently a) Oval CORRECT b) Square
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c) Triangular d) None of the above

---77. What is the basis for the current endodontic therapy of periapical lesion a) Due to reach collateral circulation system the periapical areas usually heal despite the condition of the root canal b) If the source of the periapical irritation is removed, the potential for periapical healing is good CORRECT c) Strong intracanal medications are required to sterilize the canal and the periapical area to promote healing d) Periapical lesions, especially apical cyst must be treated by surgical intervention

78. To enhance strength properties of ceramometal restoration, it is important to 1. avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal substructure 2. build up thick layer of porcelain 3. porcelain should be uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the metal structure 4. compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and the metal substructure Select the most appropriate a) 1 & 2 are correct b) 1 & 3 are correct CORRECT c) 2 & 4 are correct ---79. Cleft lip is resulted from incomplete union of a) 2 maxillary arches b) Maxillary arches and nasal arch CORRECT
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rooka:failure of union of the medial and nasal prominences with maxillary prominence;

80. Reparative dentin a) Same like secondary dentin b) Happen at site of irritation CORRECT 81. Enamel rods a) In dentin b) In enamel CORRECT --- 82. When you take final impression for crown polysulfide rubber base, you should pour it a) Within one hour CORRECT b) 24 hour c) One week Advisable 1 hour,,,, odour taste, staining http://books.google.com.eg/books?id=r3E1SujL9IC&pg=PA591&lpg=PA591&dq=polysulfide+rubber+ +pour+hour&source=bl&ots=eyUom5l9jS&sig=ADva8BKD cZnALZtu9UI1RpPHhBk&hl=ar&ei=7zFS9HaD4OknQOS_q3PDg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=re sult&resnum=4&ved=0CBkQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=poly sulfide%20rubber%20%20pour%20hour&f=false 83. Mandibular foramen in children a) Above the occlusal plane b) Below the occlusal plane CORRECT c) At the same level 84. When you give an inferior dental block for pedo the angulations for the needle a) 7mm below the occlusal plane b) 5mm below the occlusal plane PROBABLE c) 7mm above the occlusal plane d) At the occlusal plane --- 85. The maximum dose of an x-ray exposure dose for radiographic technique
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a) 100 mini roentgen per week CORRECT b) 10 roentgen per week c) 100 roentgen per week d) 300 roentgen per week 86. The choice of LA depends on a) Diameter of nerve b) Structure of bone c) Number of branches d) Type of LA agent chemistry CORRECT 87. A U Shaped radio opaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is a) The zygomatic process CORRECT b) Maxillary sinus wall c) Coronoid process of mandible 88. Loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of tongue is related to paralysis of a) Lingual nerve b) Hypoglossal nerve c) Chorda tympani nerve d) Facial nerve ---89. Periapical abscess is a) Cavity lined by epithelium b) Cavity containing blood cells c) Cavity containing pus cells CORRECT d) Cavity containing serous e) None of the above --- 90. Acute periapical abscess is characterized by a) Varying degree of pain b) Varying degree of swelling c) Some times not shown on the radiograph d) All of the above CORRECT 91. Long bones formed by endochondral ossification while flat bone by membranous calcification and many bones by both mechanism a) True CORRECT b) False

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92. The material which release fluoride to be taken by enamel and cementum for a long time a) Composite b) GIC CORRECT c) Amalgam d) Cast alloy 93. Epithelial tumor a) Keratoacanthosis CORRECT b) Giant cell tumor c) Rhabdomyoma ??? 94. Patient with sub-acute endocarditis develop a) Bacteremia b) Septecemia c) Fibril vibration d) Mitral stenosis May be. Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mitral_stenosis 95. The finish line of the core should be a) At the finish line of final restoration b) At contra bevel c) At gingival level d) Tapered with prepared tooth shape 96. For ceramo metal restoration type of finish line a) Chamfer CORRECT b) Beveled shoulder
Chamfer margins and shoulder with bevel

http://www.nature.com/bdj/journal/v192/n10/full/4801428a.html 97. Adjustment of occlusal contact point a) Pencil b) Shim stock CORRECT c) Silicon spray indicator d)Dental floss e) None of the above (if adjustment of proximal contact, then correct answer is d) Dental floss)

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98. Benefits of opaque layer a) Bonding to metal substrate b) Initiating the color c) a and b CORRECT 99. Smear layer composed of a) Dentin debris b) Inorganic particles c) Bacteria d) All of the above CORRECT

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