Solutions to Week 1 Homework problems from Gallian Problems: Chapter 0: 2, 4, 10, 14, 20, 26, 50 0.

2 Given the prime factorizations, to nd the gcd we just nd the primes that are common to both products, and to nd the lcm we include the minimum set of primes that covers both products: gcd(24 32 5 72 , 2 33 7 11) = 2 32 7 lcm(23 32 5, 2 33 7 11) = 23 33 5 7 11 0.4 Find integers s and t such that 1 = 7 s + 11 t. Show that s and t are not unique. 1 = 7 8 + 11 (5) = 7 (3) + 11 2 0.10 Let d =gcd(a, b). If a = da and b = db , show that gcd(a , b ) = 1. Proof: To show that gcd(a , b ) = 1 we need to show that 1 is the biggest integer which divides both a and b . Let c be a divisor of a and b . Then a = ca and b = cb for some integers a and b . Thus, a = da = dca and b = db = dcb . Notice that this implies that dc divides both a and b. But since d is the gcd of a and b by assumption, it must be that dc is no bigger than d. Thus c must be 1.2 0.14 Show that 5n + 3 and 7n + 4 are relatively prime for all n. Proof: We need to show that gcd(5n + 3, 7n + 4) = 1. From Theorem 0.2 (GCD IS a Linear Combination) we know that the gcd(a, b) is the smallest positive integer of the form as + bt. Thus, gcd(5n + 3, 7n + 4) is the smallest positive integer of the form (5n + 3)s + (7n + 4)t where s and t are integers. Notice that if s = 7 and t = 5 we get: (5n + 3)s + (7n + 4)t = (35n + 21) (35n + 20) = 1. Hence gcd(5n + 3, 7n + 4) = 1. 2 0.20 For every positive integer n, prove that 1 + 2 + + n = n(n + 1)/2. Proof: Proceed by induction. Notice that for n = 1, 1 = 1 (1 + 1)/2 so the proposition is true for n = 1. Suppose the proposition is true for any n less than k. Now: 1 + 2 + + k= (1 + + (k 1)) + k = (k 1)(k)/2 + k by the induction hypothesis. But simplifying the right hand side we get: 1 + 2 + + k = (k 2 k + 2k)/2 = (k 2 + k)/2 = k(k + 1)/2 as desired, and the proposition is true for n=k also. 2 0.26 What is the largest bet that cannot be made with chips worth $7 and $9? Verify that your answer is correct with both forms of induction. 1

Proof: As in the book, we start with some exploratory arithmetic. What bets can be made with these chips? Certainly the following can be made (I got these by just adding 7s and 9s together in dierent combinations): $7, $9, $16, $18, $21, $23, $25, $27, $28, $30, $32, $34, $35, $36, $37, $39, $41, $42, $43, $44, $45, $46, $48, $49, $50, $51, $52, $53, $54, $55, $56... so it would appear that $47 is the largest missing value. Using the First Principle of mathematical induction: Notice that 48 = 3 9 + 3 7 so this bet can be made with the available chips. Let n be greater than 48 and suppose n has the form n = 7s + 9t for some positive integers s and t. Notice that either s > 4 or t > 2 for this to be possible. If t > 2 then n + 1 = 7s + 9t + 1 = 7(s + 4) + 9(t 3) so a bet of n + 1 dollars can also be made. If s > 4 then n + 1 = 7(s 5) + 9(t + 4) so in this case too the bet of n + 1 dollars can be made. Thus, any bet of $48 or greater can be made with the available chips, and (by inspection) the largest impossible bid is $47. 2 Using the Second Principle: Notice that $48 to $55 are in the list of possible bids. Now for some n > 55 suppose that $48 to $n-1 are all possible bids. Then $n-7 is in the list of possible bids and hence by adding one $7 chip we nd that $n is also a possible bid.2 0.50 Let S be the set of integers. If a, b S, dene aRb if a+b is even. Prove that R is an equivalence relation and determine the equivalence classes of S. Proof: To prove R is an equivalence relation we need to check three properties: 1. For a S, a + a = 2a is even, hence aRa. Therefore R is reexive. 2. For all (a, b) R, a + b is even, hence b + a is even. This implies that (b, a) R and so R is symmetric. 3. Let (a, b) and (b, c) be elements of R. Then a + b and b + c are both even, and can be written as a + b = 2x and b + c = 2y for some integers x and y. Thus, a+ c = (a+ b) + (b+ c) 2b = 2x+ 2y 2b = 2(x+ y b) and hence a + c is also even so aRc. This shows that R is transitive. 2 Notice that any even integer a is in the same equivalence class as 0 since a + 0 will also be even. Furthermore, any odd integer b is in the same equivalence class as 1 since b + 1 will be even. Thus, there are only two equivalence classes determined by R: the odd integers and the even integers. 2