FILE NO.

156/18(25-10-
2008)
CODE DURGA

NARAYANA
I I T A C A D E M Y
Common Practice Test 07
Two Year Classroom Program [XI Studying 810 Batches]
Test Date: 27
t h
October 2008.
Time: 3 hours Maximum marks: 246
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 69 questions.
The booklet has 20 pages.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top
corner of this booklet.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators,
cellular phones, pagers, and electronic gadgets in any form are
not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
4. The answer sheet, a machinereadable Objective Response
Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE
BOOKLET.
B. Filling the ORS
6. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1,
your Registration No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box
L3. Do not write these anywhere else.
7. Write your Registration No. in ink, in the box L4 provided in the
lower part of the ORS and darken the appropriate bubble
UNDER each digit of your Registration No. with a good quality
HB pencil.
8. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts.
9. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this
booklet and put your signature in ink in box L5 on the ORS
affirming that you have verified this.
10. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF
THE BOOKLET.
C. Question paper format:
11. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Mathematics,
Part II: Physics, Part III: Chemistry). Each part has 4
sections.
12. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is
correct.
13. Section II contains 4 multiple correct answer type questions.
Each questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
one or more answers are correct.
14. Section III contains 4 Reasoning type questions. Each question
contains STATEMENT1 AND STATEMENT2.
Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT
2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT1.
Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT
2 is NOT the correct explanation of STATEMENT1.
Bubble (C) if STATEMENT1 is TRUE and STATEMENT2 is
FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT1 is FALSE and STATEMENT2 is
TRUE.
15. Section IV contains 3 sets of LinkedComprehension type
question. Each set consists of a paragraph followed by 3
questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out which only one is correct.
D. Marking Scheme:
16. For each questions in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks
if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
17. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if
you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark for all other cases. If may be
noted that there is no negative marking for wrong answer.
18. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks
if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other
cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
19. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks
if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other
cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
Name of the Student Roll Number
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by
them
..
Signature of the Candidate
I have verified all the information filled in by
the Candidate
..
Signature of the Invigilator
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I
Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices a), b), c) and d),
out of which only one is correct. For each question in Section I , you will be awarded 3
marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and
zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) will be awarded
1. The value of such that the point P(4, 7) has maximum perpendicular distance from the line
(2+ )x+(1 )y+(2+3 ) = 0 is
a)
1
2

b) 1 c) 1 d)
3
2
2. If all the chords of the curve 3x
2
y
2
2x+4y = 0 which subtend a right angle at the origin pass
through a fixed point, then the co-ordinate of the fixed point is
a) (1, 1) b) (2, 1) c) (2, 1) d) (1, 2)
3. The value of
1 1
sin (cos8) cos (sin8)

+
a) 0 b)
2

c) 16 5 d) 5 16
4. If
1 2
1 3
( ) sin 1
2 2
f x x x

_
+

,
,
1
1
2
x
, then
( ) f x
is equal to
a)
1
sin
3
x

+
b)
1
sin
6
x

+
c)
1
2
sin
3
x

d)
1
sin
3
x

5. Tangents are drawn to the circle x

2
+y
2
= 12 at the point where it is met by the circle
x
2
+y
2
5x+3y2 = 0 the point of intersection of these tangents is
a)
18
, 6
5
_

,
b)
18
6,
5
_

,
c) (4, 5) d) (5, 3)
6. AA1, BB1, CC1 are the medians of triangle ABC whose centroid is G. If the points A, C1, G and
B1 are concyclic, then
a) 2b
2
= a
2
+c
2
b) 2c
2
= a
2
+b
2
c) 2a
2
= b
2
+c
2
d) none of these
SECTION-II
Section II contains 4 multiple correct answer type questions. Each question has 4 choices 1), 2), 3) and
4), out of which one or more answers are correct. For each question in Section II , you will be
awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, no negative marking for wrong
answer.
7. Which are the following is/ are true
a) tan 1 > tan
1
1 b)
1
1 1
sin sin
2 2

<
c)
1 1
cos cos 4 cos cos3

> d)
1
tan2 tan 2

>
8. The straight lines which touches both the circles
2 2
2 6 9 0 x y x y + +
and
2 2
6 2 1 0 x y x y + + +

are
a)
0 x
b)
4 y
c)
3 4 10 0 x y +
d)
4 3 0 x y
9.
1
1
tan
2

= ________
a)
1
1 3
cos
2 5

b)
1
5
sec
2

c)
1
1 4
cos
4 2 5

d)
1
cot ( 2)

10. In a triangle with sides a, b and c; a semi circle touching the sides AC and CB is inscribed
whose diameter lies on AB, then the radius of the semi circle is
a)
2
a
b)
s

c)
2
a b

+
d)
2
.cos .cos .cos
( ) 2 2 2
abc A B C
s a b +
2
NARAYANA DWARKA CENTRE
201-A, Dimension Durga Tower, Plot No. 10, Sector 4 Market, Dwarka New Delhi 110075, Ph : 45621724 / 25
CODE: DWARKA -CPT-07 810 BATCH Type-I (XI STU.)
VIJ-IONS/CPT-7/27-10-08 DURGA
SECTION-III
Section III contains 4 Reasoning type questions. Each question contains STATEMENT1 and
STATEMENT2.
Bubble A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1
Bubble B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is NOT the correct explanation of
STATEMENT- 1
Bubble C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.
For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (-1) will be awarded
11. Let
1 1 1
1
( ) sin cot tan f x x x
x

+
Statement 1: Range of
( ) f x
is { }
, 0
2 2
1

1
]
Statement 2:
1
1
1
cot , 0
1
1
cot , 0
tan
x
x
x
x
x

>

+ <

'

12. If A (3, 6) and B (4, 5) are any two points in the plane and x+5y-20=0 be a line.
Statement 1:
35 37
,
11 11
P
_

,
be a point on the given line such that PA + PB is least
Statement 2: If two points (R, S) lie on opposite sides of a line and P lie on the line
then PR+PS is minimum is R,P,S are collinear.
13. Tangents are drawn from the point (17, 7) to the circle x
2
+y
2
= 169.
Statement 1 : The tangents are mutually perpendicular.
Statement 2 : The locus of the points from which mutually perpendicular tangents can
be drawn to the given circle is x
2
+y
2
= 338.
14. Statement 1 : Let ABC be a triangle with centroid G and incentre I. If GI is parallel to
the side CA, then a, b, c are in A.P.
Statement 2 : In a triangle the internal bisector of an angle divides the opposite side in
the ratio of the sides containing the angles.
SECTION-IV
Section IV contains 3 sets of Linked Comprehension type questions. Each set consists of a paragraph
followed by 3 questions. Each question has 4 choices A), B), C) and D), out of which only one is correct.
For each question in Section IV , you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other
cases, minus one (-1) will be awarded
Paragraph for Question Nos.15 to 17
PASSAGE 1:
Let two algebric operators are difined as D(A, B) = |x1x2| + |y1y2|.
A

= (x1+y1, 0).
Where A (x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) are any two points in coordinate plane.
Let O(0, 0) be the origin and P(x, y) a moving point in the plane.
15. The locus of P such that D(P, O) = D(P

, O) is
a) straight line b) pair of straight line
c) 1
st
and 3
rd
quadrants d) 2
nd
and 4
th
quadrants
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA
VIJ-IONS/CPT-7/27-10-08 DURGA
16. The locus of P such that D(P, O) > D(P

, O) is
a) straight line b) pair of straight line
c) 1
st
and 3
rd
quadrants d) 2
nd
and 4
th
quadrants
17. The area of locus of P such that D(P, O) P(A, B) where A and B are (2, 1) and (1, 2)
respectively
a) 4 b) 8 c) 0 d) data insufficient
Paragraph for Question Nos.18 to 20
PASSAGE 2:
Let S1 = x
2
+y
2
= r1
2
, S2 = (x3)
2
+y
2
= r2
2
are circles of radius r1 = 1 and r2 = 2,
Let lines L1 = 0 and L2= 0 are their direct common tangents. If circle S3 is drawn of
radius r3 which touches the circles S2, lines L1 & L2. Similarly circle S4 is drawn of radius
r4 which touches the circles S3, lines L1 & L2, and so on circle Sn of radius rn touches the
circle Sn1 and the line L1 & L2. Answer the following.
18. The combined equation of pair of lines L1 = 0 & L2 = 0 is
a) x
2
3y
2
+2
3
x+3 = 0 b) x
2
y
2
+6x+9 = 0
c) x
2
8y
2
+6x+9 = 0 d) 3x
2
y
2
+18x+27 = 0
19. Which of the following is correct
a) r1, r2, r3.rn are in A.P. b) r1, r2, r3.rn are in G.P.
c) r1, r2, r3rn are in AGP d) rn =
2
2
n
20. Coordinate of centre of circle S7 is
a) (189, 0) b) (253, 0) c) (48, 0) d) (127, 0)
Paragraph for Question Nos.21 to 23
PASSAGE 3:
In ABC, three circles of radii x, y, z are drawn touching the sides (AB, AC), (BC, BA),
(CA, CB) respectively and inscribed circle of the ABC. If r is the radius of inscribed
circle, then
21.
r y
r y

+
a) tan
2
B
b) cos
2
A
c) sin
2
A
d) sin
2
B
22.
x
r

a) tan
2

2
A
b) tan
2

2
A
c) tan
2

4
A
d) tan
2

4
A
23. The radius of the inscribed circle of ABC is
a) xyz b) xy yz zx + + c) x y z + + d)
3
xyz
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA
VIJ-IONS/CPT-7/27-10-08 DURGA
PHYSICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. A section of a particular device looks as shown in the figure.
The figure shown has two thin hoops and two thin rods made
up of a material of uniform linear mass density . The plane of
smaller hoop is parallel to XZ plane while the larger hoop is
parallel to XY plane. The smaller rod is parallel to Y axis and in
XOY plane, while the larger rod is parallel to Z axis and in XOZ
plane. Their dimensions are shown in the figure. The moment
of inertia of the structure shown about Z axis shown is:
(a)
3
37 119
3 4
a

_
+

,
(b)
3
38 119
3 4
a

_
+

,
(c)
3
37 73
3 2
a

_
+

,
(d)
3
38 73
3 4
a

_
+

,
25. A rod of length L is held vertically on a smooth horizontal
surface. The top end of the rod is given a gentle push. At a certain instant of time, when the rod
makes an angle with horizontal the velocity of COM of the rod is vo. The velocity of the end of the
rod in contact with the table at that instant is:
(a) zero (b) vocos (c) vosin (d) votan
26. A small moon of mass m and radius a orbits a planet of mass M (>> m) while keeping the same
face towards the planet. Find how close the moon can approach the planet so that the loose rocks
lying on the surface of the moon will be lifted off.
(a)
1/ 2
3M
a
m
_

,
(b)
1/ 3
3M
a
m
_

,
(c)
1/ 2
2M
a
m
_

,
(d)
1/ 3
2M
a
m
_

,
27. A heavy disk with radius R is rolling down hanging on two inextensible
light strings wound around the disk. The free ends of the strings are
attached to the disk. The strings are always tense during the motion. At
some instant, the angular velocity of the disk is , and the angle between
the strings is . The velocity of COM of the disk at this moment is:
(a) R/cos( /2) (b) R/cos
(c) R/sin( /2) (d) R/sin
28. A particle constrained to move on a smooth fixed spherical surface
of radius R is projected horizontally (and tangent to the spherical surface
at that point) from a point at the level of the center so that its angular
velocity relative to the axis is . Find approximately the maximum depth
z below the level of the center that the ball goes. Take
2
R g ? .
(a)
2
2
g

(b)
2
g

(c)
2
2g

(d)
2
4g

29. A uniform bar AB of mass m and a ball of the same

mass are released from rest from the same horizontal
position. The bar is hinged at end A. There is gravity.
Which point on the rod from point B has the same
acceleration as the ball, immediately after release?
(a) 2L/3 (b) L/3 (c) L/2 (d) 3L/4
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA

R
g
m

R
g
m
L
m
C
m
L
m
C
m
3
a
/2
a
2a
2a
a
3
a
/2
a
2a
2a
a
3
a
/2
a
2a
2a
a
3
a
/2
a
2a
2a
a
VIJ-IONS/CPT-7/27-10-08 DURGA
SECTION II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
30. Consider a fixed hollow sphere of radius R having uniform mass
density in the earths gravitational field (assumed to be uniform). From the
point A on the horizontal diameter you throw a little steel ball, aiming to
get to the opposite point B. Its required that the steel ball reaches the
point B without colliding anywhere in the sphere. The initial speed of the
ball is vo and can be varied.
(a) There exists more than one solution for this question.
(b) There is no solution if 2
o
v gR < .
(c) For 2
o
v gR , only one solution exists.
(d) For 2
o
v gR > , more than one solution exists.
31. A light rigid rod AB of length 3l has a point mass m at end A and a point mass
2m at end B. It is kept on a smooth horizontal surface. Point C is the center of
mass of the system. Initially the system is at rest. The mass 2m is suddenly given
velocity vo. Take Z axis to be perpendicular to the plane of the paper. [Points C is
center of mass].
(a) The minimum moment of inertia (about Z axiz), Izz of the system is
2
6ml but
doesnt occur at point C.
(b) The magnitude of tension in the rod in subsequent motion is
2
2 / 9
o
mv l
(c) The ratio of moment of inertia about Z axis at points A and B, / 2
A B
ZZ ZZ
I I
(d) Herein two options are correct.
32. A crooked pulley with mass M, made of a uniform disk with
radius R, is mis-manufactured to have its hinge off of its center by a
distance h (shown exaggerated in the figure). The system is
released from rest in the position shown. Assume that slipping
doesnt take place anywhere, and there is no friction at the hinge.
The dimensions of the system are shown. Initially the center of mass
C of the pulley is at the same horizontal level as X-axis.
(a) Magnitude of initial acceleration of block A is
(2 )
(0.5 2 )
m M gh
M m R
+
+
(b) Magnitude of initial acceleration of block B is
(2 )
(0.5 2 )
m M gh
M m R
+
+
(c) Magnitude of initial acceleration of pulley is
2
2
(2 )
(0.5 2 )
m M gh
M m R
+
+
(d) Magnitude of initial angular acceleration of pulley is
2
(2 )
(0.5 2 )
m M gh
M m R
+
+
33. A massless spool of inner radius r, outer radius R is placed against
vertical wall and tilted split floor as shown. A light inextensible thread is
tightly wound around the spool through which a mass m is hanging. There
exists no friction at point A, while the coefficient of friction between spool
and point B is . The angle between two surfaces is .
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA
A
B
v
o
g
R

A
B
v
o
g
R

g
C
r
R

m
M
A
B
O
g
C
r
R

m
M
A
B
O
VIJ-IONS/CPT-7/27-10-08 DURGA
(a) the magnitude of force on the spool at B in order to maintain equilibrium is
2 2
2
1
1
tan
r r
mg
R R
_ _
+

, ,
(b) the magnitude of force on the spool at B in order to maintain equilibrium is
1
1
tan
r
mg
R
_

,
(c) the minimum value of for the system to remain in equilibrium is
tan
( / ) 1 R r

(d) the maximum value of for the system to remain in equilibrium is

tan
( / ) 1 R r

SECTION III
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) STATEMENT1 is True, STATEMENT2 is True; STATEMENT2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT1
(B) STATEMENT1 is True, STATEMENT2 is True; STATEMENT2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT1
(C) STATEMENT1 is True, STATEMENT2 is False
(D) STATEMENT1 is False, STATEMENT2 is True
34. Statement I : Torque equation for any system can be written about any axis.
Statement II : If the net force acting on a body in planar motion is not zero, torque equation
can be written only about COM.
Answer question number 35 considering two translating billiard balls of same radius (the COM of each
balls is not at their respective centers) moving towards each other along the same straight line.
35. Statement I: When the balls collide, the impact is central.
Statement II: The collision is not head-on.
Answer question number 36 based on diagram shown. The diagram shows a
spherical ball placed at some location on a curved frictionless surface whose
shape is part of a circular arc. The long flat surface has some friction. Gravity is
assumed to be vertically downwards.
36. Statement I: Since the body is sliding down the curved path we should
not call it as translation.
Statement II: The body will ultimately roll on the flat surface.
37. Statement I: According to Keplers II law, the angular momentum of any planet in the solar
system is conserved about the center of the sun.
Statement II: Keplers second law states that a line that connects the planet to the sun sweeps
out equal area in plane of planets orbit in equal time interval.
SECTION IV
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Consider an L shaped rod of uniform mass density, hinged at
point O is held at rest initially. The mass of the rod is m. The
earths gravitational field is assumed to be uniform and directed
downwards. The rod is now released. Find
38. The maximum magnitude of velocity of center of mass of the rod.
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA
= 0
0
= 0
0
VIJ-IONS/CPT-7/27-10-08 DURGA
(a)
12
5
gL
(b)
3
2
gL
(c) 2g L (d)
7
5
gL
39. The magnitude of initial angular acceleration of the rod.
(a)
9
5
g
L
(b)
4
5
g
L
(c)
6
5
g
L
(d)
g
L
40. The magnitude of reaction force at the hinge O at the initial moment of time.
(a)
3
2
10
mg
_

,
(b)
11
10
mg
(c)
12
5.5
10
mg (d)
3
2
10
mg +
A board of mass M whose upper surface is rough under surface is smooth, rests on a smooth
horizontal plane. A sphere of mass m is placed on the board and the sphere is suddenly given a
velocity v in the horizontal direction. The coefficient of friction between the board and the
sphere is .
41. The velocity of the platform when the sphere begins pure rolling.
(a)
1 3.5 /
v
M m +
(b)
/ 3.5
v
m M +
(c)
1 3.5 /
v
m M +
(d)
1 2.5 /
1 3.5 /
M m
v
M m
+
+
42. The velocity sphere when it begins pure rolling.
(a)
1 3.5 /
v
M m +
(b)
/ 3.5
v
m M +
(c)
1 3.5 /
v
m M +
(d)
1 2.5 /
1 3.5 /
M m
v
M m
+
+
43. The time after which the sphere begins pure rolling is
(a)
(1 3.5 / )
v
M m g +
(b)
( ) / 3.5
v
m M g +
(c)
( ) 1 3.5 /
v
m M g +
(d)
( )
1 2.5 /
1 3.5 /
M m v
M m g
+
+
A fixed infinite cylindrical mass of radius
5 1
4
a l

has surface mass

density
4
m
al

. It is kept along the +Y axis. Also, a uniform spherical

shell of radius a and mass m is placed at (l, 0, 0). From the co-
ordinate [(l a), 0, 0], a point mass mo is projected along negative X-axis
with velocity vo.
44. The potential difference VA VB between the points A(l, l, l) & B(a, a,
a) is:
(a)
2 4 2 2 1 1
ln
5 1 5 1
31 5
Gm Gm
l l
1
_
+ 1


, 1

]
(b)
4 2 2 1 1
ln
5 1 5 1
31 5
Gm Gm
l l
1
_
+ 1


, 1

]
(c)
2 4 2 2 5 1
ln
5 1 5 1
31 5
Gm Gm
l l
1
_
+ 1


, 1

]
(d)
4 2 2 5 1
ln
5 1 5 1
31 5
Gm Gm
l l
1
_
+ 1


, 1

]
45. The least value of vo for which the particle of mass mo will strike the hollow cylinder is:
(a)
2 2 5
ln
5 1 5 1
Gm
l
1

1

]
(b)
2 2 5
ln
5 5 5 1
Gm
l
1

1

]
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA
l
m

a
a
X
Y
l
m

a
a
X
Y
VIJ-IONS/CPT-7/27-10-08 DURGA
(c)
2 2 5
ln
5 5 5 1
Gm
l
1

1

]
(d)
2 5
ln
5 5 5 1
Gm
l
1

1

]
46. The kinetic energy with which the mass mo will strike the cylinder is:
(a)
( )
2 5 2
ln 5 1
5 5
o
Gmm
l
1

]
(b)
( )
3 5 2
ln 5 1
5 1
o
Gmm
l
1

]
(c)
( )
2 5 4
ln 5 1
5 5
o
Gmm
l
1

]
(d)
( )
2 ln 5 1
o
Gmm
l
1

]
CHEMISTRY
Section I [ 47-52]
[This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 54. Each question
has 4 choices (a),(b),(c) and (d),out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question
you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1)
mark will be awarded ]
47. The hybridization of Xe in XeF2 is
a) sp
3
b) sp
3
d c) sp
3
d
2
d) sp
3
d
3
48. A+3B products
Rate of reaction w.r.t A is x. What is the rate of reaction w.r.t. B
a) x b) x/3 c) 3x d) x
3
49. The shape of xy3 (x = central atom, y = monovalent) can never be
a) tetrahedral b) pyramidal c) trigonal planar d) T-shape
50. The conc. Of reactants is increased by 7 times. The rate of reaction increases by 11 times,
order of the reaction is
a) 7 b) 11 c) log711 d) log117
51. Which of the following is non-polar
a) XeF2 b) SF4 c) SnCl2 d) SO2
52.
120
60
. A B

The mass number of B is

a) 60 b) 120 c) 180 d) cant say
SECTION-II [53-56]
Section II contains 4 multiple correct answer type questions. Each question has 4 choices 1), 2), 3) and
4), out of which one or more answers are correct. For each question in Section II , you will be
awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, no negative marking for wrong
answer.
53. Which of the following is/are square planar
a) XeF4 b) ICl4

c) SF4 d) XeF6
54. When is emitted
a) atomic number changes b) mass number changes
c) binding energy per nucleon changes d) the position in the periodic table changes
55. For a given reaction the rate const. depends on
a) pressure b) volume c) temperature d) nature of reactions
56. Which of the following are true
a) at equilibrium the concentration of reactants and products are equal
b) Kp = Kc ( )
n
RT
c) The position of the equilibrium changes with catalyst
d) High pressure at equilibrium favours association
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA
VIJ-IONS/CPT-7/27-10-08 DURGA
Section III (57 60)
[This section contains 4 question numbered 57 to 60 Each question contains
STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2( Reason) Each question has 4 choices (a),
(b), c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question you will be awarded 3
marks if you have marked only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero
mark if no bubble is darkend. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.]
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true , R is false
d)A is false R is true
ASSERTION & REASON
57. Statement I : 2A products. The order of the reaction need not be 2.
Statement II : Order can be predicted from rate equation (or) from elementary reaction.
58. Statement I : XY3 has a lone pair on the central atom. The molecule is polar.
Statement II : The molecule is not symmetrical.
59. Statement I : The B-F bond order in BF3 is 1.
Statement II : Flourine donates a pair of electrons to central atom boron thus rendering a
double bond character.
60. Statement I :
114
50
Sn is more stable than
114
49
In .
Statement II : Sn-50 has magic no. of protons.
Section IV
Linked Comprehension Type
[The section contains 3 paragraphs
61 63
P

,
63 66
P

and
66 69
P

. Based upon each
paragraph, 3 multiple-choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct For each question you will
be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be
awarded.]
PASSAGE-I
A + B Products
Concentrations of A, B (in mole.lt
1
) are given. Rate of reaction in (mole.lt
1
.sec
1
) is given for
different concentrations of A & B.
[A] [B] Rate
1. 10 10 20
2. 20 10 40
3. 10 20 80
Now answer the following questions.
61. The order with respect to A is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
62. The concentration of B only is doubled. The rate of the reaction increases by ______
a) 1/2 times b) 6 times c) 8 times d) 4 times
63. Concentration of A is doubled and concentration of B is halved. The rate of the reaction
a) increases by 2 times b) decreases by 2 times
c) increases by 4 times d) decreases by 4 times
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA
VIJ-IONS/CPT-7/27-10-08 DURGA
PASSAGE-II
When -particles are emitted the position of he new element in the periodic table
moves two groups to the left and when -particles are emitted, the position moves one group
to the right (next group). Elements with atomic numbers 89 to 103 belong to III B of the periodic
table.
64.
210
84
Po belongs to VI A of the periodic table when it emits an -particle the resulting nuclide
belongs to
a) IV A b) VII A c) V A d) zero
65.
222
86
Rn is a noble gas. When it emits a -particle the resulting nuclide is a
a) noble gas b) halogen c) alkali metal d) alkaline earth metal
66.
238
92
U belongs to III B of the periodic table. When it emits 2 and 6 the position of the
resulting nuclide will be in __________
a) I B b) V B c) VII B d) III B
PASSAGE-III
Energy profile diagram
67. Threshold energy is
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 600
68. Energy of activation of forward reaction
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 600
69. Normal energy of the products is
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 600
PAPER SETTERS : VIJIONS (9912343924)
MATHEMATICS NITIN SOHANE 9440829030
PHYSICS AJIT AGARWAL 9849643257
CHEMISTRY R.SATYANARAYANA 9397101004
NARAYANA IIT (JEE) ACADEMY
MOGHULRAJPURAM, VIJAYAWADA
300
0
200
100
Products
Reactant
s