Heads of Important Offices 2011

INDIA
Dr. Manmohan Singh: Chairman, Planning Commission. Ms. Meira Kumar: Speaker, Lok Sabha. Mohammad Hamid Ansari: Chairman, Rajya Sabha. Mr. K. Rahman Khan: Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha. Mr. Gopinath Munde: Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha. Mrs. Sushma Swaraj : Leader of Opposition (Lok Sabha). Mr. Arun Jaitley: Leader of Opposition (Rajya Sabha). Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia: Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission. Dr. S. Y. Quraishi: Chief Election Commissioner Mr. V. S. Sampath : Election Commissioner. Mr. H.S.Brahma : Election Commissioner.

Mr. Vinod Rai : Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. Mr. K. M. Chandrasekhar: Cabinet Secretary. Mr. T. K. A. Nair : Principal Secretary to Prime Minister. Mr. Justice S. Ratnavel Pandian: Chairman, National Commission for Backward Classes. Ms. Shanta Sinha: Chairperson, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Dr. Buta Singh: Chairman, National Commission for Scheduled Castes Mr. Kunwar Singh: Chairman, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. Prof. D. P. Agrawal: Chairman, UPSC. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan : Chairman, National Commission on Farmers. Mr. Shiv Shankar Menon: National Security Adviser and Special Adviser to PM (Internal Security). Mr. R.V. Raju : Director-General, National Investigation Agency (NIA). Mr. S. S. Khurana: Chairman, Railway Board.

 Mr. Vivek Kumar Agnihotri: Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha Mr. P. D. T. Achary : Secretary-General, Lok Sabha. Mr. Rajiv Mathur: Director, IB. Mr. Ashwani Kumar: Director, CBI. Mr. K. C. Verma: Director, Research and Analysis Wing. Mr. N .P. S. Aulakh: Director-General, NSG. Mr. A. S. Gill : Director-General, CRPF. Mr. M. L. Kumawat : Director-General, Border Security Force (BSF). Mr. Niraj Ranjan Das : Director-General, Central Industrial Security Force (CISF). Mr. Ranjit Sinha: Director-General, Railway Protection Force. Mr. Vikram Srivastava: Director-General, Indo-Tibetan Border Police. Mr. Gopal Sharma: Director-General, Sashastra Seema Bal. Vice-Admiral Anil Chopra: Director-General, Coast Guard. Lt. Gen. Avtar Singh: Director-General, Defence Intelligence Agency. Mr. Sukhadeo Thorat : Chairman, UGC. Mr. M. Natarajan : Scientific Adviser to Defence Minister and Secretary, Defence Research & Development Organisation. Dr. R. Chidambaram : Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government. Mr. K. Radhakrishnan: Chairman, Space Commission and ISRO. Mr. Srikumar Banerjee : Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission and Secretary, Dept. of Atomic Energy. Mr. N. K. Raghupathy : Chairman, SSC. Mr. Justice (Retd.) B. N. Kirpal: Chairman, National Forest Commission. Dr. Amrita Patel: Chairperson, National Dairy Development Board (NDDB). Lt. Gen. M. C. Badhani : Director-General, Border Roads Organisation. Dr. Vishwa Mohan Katoch : Director-General, Indian Council of Medical Research. Mr. D. K. Sikri : Registrar-General of India and Census Commissioner. Mr. A. R. Lakshmanan: Chairman, Law Commission.

 Mr. Duvvuri Subbarao : Governor, RBI. Mr. Justice G. N. Ray: Chairman, Press Council of India. Mr. Subroto Chattopadhyay : Chairman, Audit Bureau of Circulations (ABC). Mr. N. B. Singh: Chairperson, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). Mr. A. K. Singh: Chairman, Central Board of Excise & Customs. Justice Arijit Pasayat : Chairperson, Competition Appellate Tribunal Mr. S. K. Garg : CMD, NHPC. Mr. R. S. Sharma: CMD, ONGC. Mr. U. D. Choubey : CMD, GAIL. Mr. S. Behuria : Chairman, IOC. Mr. N. M. Borah: CMD, Oil India Ltd. Mr. Ashok Ganguly: Chairman, CBSE. Mr. C. B. Bhave: Chairman, Securities & Exchange Board of India. Mr. U. C. Sarangi: Chairman, NABARD. Mr. O. P. Bhat : Chairman, SBI. Mr. V. P. Shetty : Chairman, IDBI. Mr. S. Balasubramanian : Chairman, Company Law Board. Mr. Hardeep Singh Puri : India's Permanent Representative to UN. Mr. T. S. Vijayan : Chairman, LIC Mr. A. K. Bajaj : Chairman, Central Water Commission. Ms. Girija Vyas : Chairperson, National Commission for Women. Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar: Chairman, 13th Finance Commission. Prof. Suresh D. Tendulkar : Chairman, National Statistical Commission. Ms. Shafmila Tagore : Chairperson, Central Board of Film Certification. Ms. Anshu Vaish : Director-General, Archaeological Survey of India. Mr. Harsh Pati Singhania : President, FICCI. Mr. J. S. Sarma: Chairman, TRAI Mr. R. N. Das : Director, Enforcement Directorate. Mr. D. Swarup : Chairman, Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority. Mr. Pratyush Sinha: Central Vigilance Commissioner. Mr. S. Banerjee: Director, Bhabha Atomic Research Centre. Mr. Wajahat Habibullah : Information Commissioner.

 Mr. Suresh Kalmadi : President, Indian Olympic Association. Prof. Krishan Kumar: Director, NCERT. Mr. Venu Srinivasan: President, CII. Mr. Sam Pitroda : Chairman, National Knowledge Commission. Ms. Mrinal Pande : Chairman, Prasar Bharti Board. Mr. Ratan Tata : Chairman, Investment Commission. Mr. Ganesh Natarajan : Chairman, NASSCOM. Mr. Swati Piramal: President, ASSOCHAM. Mr. Om Puri : Chairman, National Film Development Corporation. Mr. Ravindra Kumar: Chairman, United News of India. Mr. N. Ravi : Chairman, PTI. Mr. Hormusji N. Cama: President, Indian Newspaper Society.

World
Ban Ki-moon : Secretary-General, United Nations Organisation. Ms. Asha-Rose Migiro : First Deputy Secretary-General, UN. Robert Zoellick : President, World Bank. Dominic Strauss-Kahn: Managing Director, International Monetary Fund (IMF). Irina Bokova: Director-General-UNESCO. Dr. Margaret Chan: Director-General, WHO. Jacques Diouf: Director-General, Food and Agricultural Organisation. Juan Somavia : Director-General, International Labour Organisation. Ann M. Veneman: Executive Director, United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF). Antonio Guterres : UN High Commissioner for Refugees. Dr. Supachai Panitchpakdi : Secretary-General, United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). Angel Gurria : Secretary-General, Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD). Ms. Rosalyn Higgins: President, International Court of Justice. Haruhiko Kuroda: President, Asian Development Bank.

 Donald Kaberuka : President, African Development Bank. Jacques Rogge: President, International Olympic Committee. Kamalesh Sharma: Secretary-General, Commonwealth. . Muammar Qaddafi : Chairman, African Union. Pascal Lamy : Director-General, WTO. Ms. Navanethan Pillay : High Commissioner, UN High Commission for Human Rights. Jerzy Buzek : President, European Union David Morgan: President, International Cricket Council. Raul Castro: Secretary-General, Non-Aligned Movement. Jose Manuel Durao Barroso: President, European Commission. Kandeh K. Yumkella : Director-General, UNIDO. Abdul-Rahman bin Hamad Al-Attiyah: Secretary-General, Gulf Cooperation Council. Ekmeleddin Ihsanoglu : Secretary-General, Organisation of Islamic Conference. Abdallah Salem el-Badri: Secretary-General, Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). Jose Miguel Insulza Salinas: Secretary-General, Organisation of American States. Hifikepunye Pohamba : President, South-West African People's Organisation (SWAPO). Mr. Yukiya Amano : Director- General, International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Jaap de Hoop Scheffer: Secretary-General, North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO). Dr. Abdul Waheed Khan: Director, Commonwealth of Learning. Hashim Abdul Halim : Chairman, Commonwealth Parliamentary Association. Ms. Thoraya Ahmed Obaid : Executive Director, UNFPA. Dr. Surin Pitsuwan : Secretary-General, ASEAN. Q. A. M. A. Rahim : Secretary-General, SAARC Lamine Diack : President, International Amateur Athletic Federation (IAAF). Michael Griffin : Chief of NASA (USA). Ms. Irene Zubaida Khan: Secretary-General, Amnesty International

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008

(Held on 7-1-2009)

Commerce : Solved Paper

1. The minimum paid-up share capital for a public company shall be (A) Rs. 1 lakh (B) Rs. 2 lakhs (C) Rs. 3 lakhs (D) Rs. 5 lakhs Ans : (D) 2. Internal activity of a company is going to be performed according to established regulations. This assumption is provided as a right by (A) Doctrine of Indoor Management (B) Doctrine of Constructive Notice (C) Doctrine of Ultravires (D) Doctrine of Intravires Ans : (A) 3. A public company can start its business operations after getting (A) Certificate of Incorporation (B) Minimum Subscription

(C) Certificate of Commencement of Business (D) Permission of the Controller of Capital Issue Ans : (C) 4. Under Section 275 of the Companies Act, 1956 a person can become director in public company of not more than (A) 5 companies (B) 10 companies (C) 15 companies (D) 20 companies Ans : (C) 5. Articles of Association can be altered by passing (A) An ordinary resolution in Annual General Meeting (B) A special resolution in Annual General Meeting (C) A resolution with special notice (D) Without any resolution Ans : (B)

6. In case of Board Meetings the Quorum must be present (A) At the commencement of the meeting (B) At the termination of the meeting (C) Throughout the meeting (D) At the commencement and termination both Ans : (A) 7. In a public company the minimum number for having a Quorum in a meeting is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7 Ans : (C) 8. The capital issues of public limited companies are subject to guidelines issued by

(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Central Government (C) Central Bank of India (D) Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Ans : (D) 9. Disinvestment of shares means (A) To sale the shares of private company to public (B) To sale the shares of public company to the public (C) To sale the shares of Government company to the public (D) To sale of shares by holding company to its subsidiary company Ans : (B) 10. When the existing companies raise additional funds by issue of shares to the existing shareholders in proportion to their existing shareholdings, it is called (A) Buyback of shares (B) Issue of shares at premium (C) Issue of shares at discount (D) Right shares issue Ans : (D) 11. Bombay Stock Exchange Sensex consists of script as on 31st March, 2005. (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40 Ans : (C) 12. The basic aim of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is to (A) Develop an effective and efficient monitoring and control system for the Indian Capital Market (B) To help Bombay Stock Exchange only (C) To help National Stock Exchange of India Ltd. only (D) To help OTC Exchange of India only

Ans : (A) 13. Who is Father of Scientific Management ? (A) Henry Fayol (B) Elton Mayo (C) Chester Bernard (D) F. W. Taylor Ans : (D) 14. Principle of Unity of Command means (A) Unity of directions (B) To receive orders from one officer only (C) A fixed place for every person (D) Proper delegation to subordinates Ans : (B) 15. Managerial Planning is a (A) Middle Level Function (B) Lower Level Function (C) Top Level Function (D) All Level Function Ans : (D) 16. Organisation is the foundation of management. This statement is given by (A) Henry Ford (B) Haney (C) Keeling (D) Lansberry Fish Ans : (A) 17. The number of subordinates a superior can effectively handle is called (A) Cooperation (B) Coordination (C) Supervision (D) Span of control

Ans : (D) 18. In Need Hierarchy Theory of Abraham H. Maslow, Self Actualisation needs are at level (A) Lower level needs (B) Middle level needs (C) Higher level needs (D) Highest level needs Ans : (A) 19. Motivation - Hygiene Theory was propounded by (A) Abraham H. Maslow (B) Fredrick Herzberg (C) Peter F. Druker (D) Argyris Chris Ans : (B) 20. Carrot and Stick principle is given in Theory (A) McGregor Theory X (B) McGregor Theory Y (C) William Ouchi Theory Z (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 21. Organisation is a Management Process by which people, functions and physical factors are brought together to form a controllable unit. This definition is given by (A) Haney (B) Kelling B. Lewis (C) Oliver Sheldon (D) Cornell Ans : (C) 22. Out of the following forms, which form of organisation is the oldest one ? (A) Line and staff organisation (B) Functional organisation

(C) Committee organisation (D) Line organisation Ans : (D) 23. A body of persons elected or appointed to meet on an organised basis for the discussion and dealing of matters brought before it. It is called (A) Functional organisation (B) Formal organisation (C) Committee organisation (D) Informal organisation Ans : (C) 24. Due to coordination (A) There is a unity of order (B) There is a unity of direction (C) There is a leadership (D) Employees are motivated Ans : (A) 25. In Direction who is given importance ? (A) To machines (B) To paper work (C) To man (D) To production Ans : (C) 26. The Essence of Control is (A) To take decision (B) To take corrective action (C) To make enquiry (D) To motivate Ans : (B) 27. An annual general meeting may be called after giving shorter notice instead of 21 clear days, if consent is accorded by (A) All the directors of company

(B) All the members entitled to vote there at (C) Majority of members entitled to vote there all (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 28. The position of a Company Secretary is like that of a hub in a bicycle wheel. This statement shows the (A) Importance of Company Secretary (B) Rights of Company Secretary (C) Duties of Company Secretary (D) Liabilities of Company Secretary Ans : (A) 29. The first Secretary of the company is appointed by (A) Shareholders (B) Promoters (C) Government (D) Directors Ans : (B) 30. Appointment of full time Company Secretary is compulsory in all those companies, whose paidup share capital is (A) Rs. 50 lakhs or more (B) Rs. 1 crore or more (C) Rs. 2 crores or more (D) Rs. 3 crores of more Ans : (C) 31. A meeting of the shareholders held only once during the life time of the company is known as (A) Meeting of the Directors (B) Meeting of the Creditors (C) Extraordinary General Meeting (D) Statutory Meeting Ans : (D) 32. For calling the Extraordinary General Meeting a clear notice of

 days must be given to all the members. (A) 7 (B) 15 (C) 21 (D) 30 Ans : (C) 33. Appointment of a person who is a Director, as a Secretary in the Company would require approval of the company by (A) Special Resolution (B) Ordinary Resolution (C) Resolution by circulation (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 34. The first Stock Exchange in India was established in (A) Calcutta (B) Delhi (C) Bombay (D) Madras Ans : (C) 35. Blue Chips Shares mean (A) Those shares which are listed in Stock Exchange (B) Those shares whose guarantee is given by Government (C) Those shares on whom dividend is paid at higher rate regularly (D) Those shares which are issued at first time Ans : (C) 36. FEMA stands for (A) Foreign Exchange Management Act (B) Funds Exchange Management Act (C) Finance Enhancement Monetary Act (D) Future Exchange Management Act Ans : (A) 37. What of the following is false about W.T.O. ?

(A) It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement (B) It is global in its membership (C) It has far wider scope than GATT (D) Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member Ans : (D) 38. Convertibility of the rupee implies (A) Being able to convert rupees notes into gold (B) Allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by marketforces (C) Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa (D) Developing an international market for currencies in India Ans : (C) 39. has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade. (A) ISRD (B) ADS (C) WTO (D) DIMF Ans : (C) 40. Which of the following statement is correct ? (A) The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India (B) Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India (C) Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 41. The present World Economic Depression first of all, started from which country ? (A) U.S.A.

(B) U.K. (C) France (D) India Ans : (A) 42. Which, institution is known as the Soft Loan Window of World Bank ? (A) I.F.C. (International Financial Corporation) (B) I.D.A. (International Development Association) (C) I.M.F. (International Monetary Fund) (D) Indian Development Forum Ans : (B) 43. Which is not a insurable risk ? (A) Accident Risk (B) Loss of Crops Risk (C) The Risk of Trading in New Market (D) The Risk of Sinking of a Ship Ans : (C) 44. The Life Insurance in India was nationalised in the year (A) 1870 (B) 1956 (C) 1960 (D) 1966 Ans : (B) 45. Fire Insurance is based on the principle of (A) Utmost Good faith (B) Insurable Interest (C) Indemnity (D) Cooperation Ans : (C) 46. In order to reduce the risk of heavy insurance the insurer passes on some business to the other company, it is called (A) Reinsurance

(B) Double Insurance (C) Joint Insurance Policy (D) Separate Insurance Ans : (A) 47. Contents of Marine Insurance include (A) Insurance of Cargo only (B) Insurance of Freight only (C) Insurance of Hull only (D) Insurance of Cargo, Freight & Hull Ans : (D) 48. The object of Agenda is to inform (A) About the profitability and activity (B) About the progress of company (C) About the matter in sequence to be discussed in the meeting (D) About the routine matters Ans : (C) 49. The Branch of Accounting which is concerned with the processing and presenting data for decision making is known as (A) Common Dollar Accounting (B) Social Accounting (C) Cost Accounting (D) Management Accounting Ans : (D) 50. Final accounts prepared in narrative style are in (A) Horizontal form (B) Accounts form (C) Vertical form (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 51. According to Balance Sheet equation concept, the capital will be (A) Capital = Liabilities Assets

(B) Capital = Fixed Assets Current Assests (C) Capital = Assets Liabilities (D) Capital = Assets + Liabilities Ans : (C) 52. In common size Balance Sheet analysis we evaluate (A) Increase or decrease over two years is analysed (B) Only increase over two years is analysed (C) Only decrease over two years is analysed (D) All assets and liabilities are expressed in terms of percentage of total Ans : (D) 53. Increase in fixed asset due to purchase is (A) Source of fund (B) Fund from operation (C) Use of fund (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 54. For the purpose of preparation of fund flow statement, fund means (A) Total resources (B) Cash/bank balances (C) Current Assets (D) Working capital Ans : (D) 55. The following data, relates to manufacturing company for the year 2006-07 Net Profit as per P & L A/cRs. 2,40,000; DepreciationRs. 80,000; Goodwill written-offRs. 40,000, Profit on Sale of Fixed AssetsRs. 16,000, Proposed DividendRs. 96,000. The fund from operation would be (A) Rs. 4,40,000 (B) Rs. 4,00,000

(C) Rs. 6,40,000 (D) None of the above Ans : (D) 56. Total sales is Rs. 7,60,000, cash sales Rs. 30,000 collection period is 25 days, debtors at Balance Sheet date will be (A) Rs. 80,000 (B) Rs. 70,000 (C) Rs. 60,000 (D) Rs. 50,000 Ans : (D) 57. Price earning ratio is 8333% and E.P.S. is Rs. 30. The market price of equity share will be (A) Rs. 3333 (B) Rs. 6667 (C) Rs. 20 (D) Rs. 25 Ans : (D) 58. If the current ratio is 2, current assests are worth Rs. 1,600, if current ratio is not allowed to fall below 15, how much additional can be borrowed by the company on the short term basis ? (A) Rs. 400 (B) Rs. 600 (C) Rs. 2,733 (D) Rs. 800 Ans : (A) 59. Rate of Gross Profit on cost is 25%. Total sales is Rs. 1,00,000 and Average Stock is Rs. 1,60,000. Stock Turnover Ratio will be (A) 05 times (B) 08 times (C) 010 times (D) 04 times Ans : (A)

60. Average stock of firm is Rs. 80,000, the opening stock is Rs. 10,000 less than closing stock. Find opening stock. (A) Rs. 95,000 (B) Rs. 85,000 (C) Rs. 90,000 (D) Rs. 75,000 Ans : (D) 61. Current Ratio is 375, Acid Test Ratio is 125 Stock Rs. 3,75,000, calculate working capital. (A) Rs. 3,00,000 (B) Rs. 4,00,000 (C) Rs. 4,12,500 (D) Rs. 4,25,000 Ans : (C) 62. From the information given below, calculate Debt service coverage Ratio Net profit after interest and Tax Rs. 40,000, Depreciation Rs. 5,000, Rate of Income Tax 50%, 10% Mortgage Debentures Rs. 60,000. Fixed Interest Charges Rs. 6,000, Debenture Redemption Fund Appropriation of Outstanding Debentures 10%. (A) 406 times (B) 506 times (C) 606 times (D) 706 times Ans : (A) 63. Share premium account can be used for (A) Paying tax liability (B) Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures (C) Paying Dividend on shares (D) Meeting the loss on sale of old asset Ans : (B) 64. Ploughing-back of profits means (A) Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders

(B) Non-declaration of dividend in any year (C) Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business (D) Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme Ans : (D) 65. As per Schedule VI of the Companies Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be (A) Added to paid up capital (B) Deducted from called up capital (C) Added to capital reserve (D) Shown as a revenue reserve Ans : (B) 66. A company invited application for subscription of 5,000 shares. The application were received for 6,000 shares. The shares were allotted on pro-rata basis. If X has applied for 180 shares how many shares would be allotted to him ? (A) 180 shares (B) 200 shares (C) 150 shares (D) 175 shares Ans : (C) 67. Consider the following information pertaining to K Ltd. on September 4, 2005, the company issued 12,000 7% debentures having a face value of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 25%. On September 12, the company issued 25,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each. On September 29, the company redeemed 30,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 5% together with one month dividend @ 6% p.a. thereon. Bank balance on August 31, 2005 was Rs. 30,00,000. After effecting the above transaction, the Bank Balance as on September 30, 2005 will be (A) Rs. 35,15,000 (B) Rs. 33,80,000 (C) Rs. 33,45,000 (D) Rs. 35,05,000

Ans : (A) 68. The balance appearing in the books of a company at the end of year were CRR A/c Rs. 50,000, Security Premium Rs. 5,000, Revaluation Reserve Rs. 20,000, P & L A/c (Dr) Rs. 10,000. Maximum amount available for distribution of Bonus Share will be (A) Rs. 50,000 (B) Rs. 55,000 (C) Rs. 45,000 (D) Rs. 57,000 Ans : (B) 69. R. G. Ltd. purchased machinery from K.G. Company for a book value of Rs. 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10%. Debenture of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. The debenture account will be credited by (A) Rs. 4,00,000 (B) Rs. 5,00,000 (C) Rs. 3,20,000 (D) Rs. 4,80,000 Ans : (A) 70. Depletion method of depreciation is used in case of (A) Cattle, Loose Tools, etc. (B) Mines, Quarries, etc. (C) Machinery, Building, etc. (D) Books Ans : (B) 71. V. V. Bros. purchased a machine on 1st October, 2003 at cost Rs. 2,70,000 and spent Rs. 30,000 on its installation. The firm written off depreciation 10% per annum on original cost every year. The books are closed on 31st March every year. The machine is sold on 30 September, 2006 for Rs. 1,90,000. How much amount will be transferred to P & L A/c as loss on sale of machinery ? (A) Rs. 10,000 (B) Rs. 20,000

(C) Rs. 30,000 (D) Rs. 40,000 Ans : (B) 72. Accounting for Intangible Assets are related to (A) AS - 10 (B) AS - 12 (C) AS - 24 (D) AS - 26 Ans : (D) 73. Indian Accounting Standard 28 is related to (A) Accounting for taxes on income (B) Financial Reporting of Interests in Joint Venture (C) Impairment of Assets (D) Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets Ans : (C) 74. Recording of capital contributed by the owner as liability ensures the adherence of principle of (A) Consistency (B) Going concern (C) Separate entity (D) Materiality Ans : (C) 75. A company made the purchases of an item during its financial year. January 2007 200 @ Rs. 50 each May 2007 400 @ Rs. 60 each August 2007 600 @ Rs. 70 each Novem- 2007 300 @ Rs. 80 each ber Closing inventories were 500 articles. Find out the value of closing stock as per Weighted Average Method (A) 33,33333 (B) 16,66666 (C) 66,66667

(D) 96,66666 Ans : (A) 76. A fire occurred in the premises of M Ltd. on 30th September, 2007. The stock was destroyed except to the extent of Rs. 10,000. From the information given below, calculate the value of stock burnt by fire on 30th September, 2007. Stock on 1st April 2006, Rs. 90,000, Purchases less returns during 2006-0710,00,000, Sales less returns during 2006-07, 15,00,000; Stock on 31st March, 2007 1,80,000, Purchases less returns from 1st April 2007 to 30th September 2007, 7,00,000. Sales less returns from 1st April, 2007 to 30th September 2007, 10,00,000. It was the practice of the company to value stock less 10% (A) 3,00,000 (B) 2,90,000 (C) 1,90,000 (D) 2,80,000 Ans : (B) 77. Social Accounting means (A) Accounting for social benefits and social costs (B) Accounting for Government Revenue & Govt. Cost (C) Accounting for private revenue and private cost (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 78. It is given that cost of stock is Rs. 100. However, its market price is Rs. 98 (buying) and Rs. 140 (selling). If the market price is interpreted as the replacement cost, then the stock should be valued at (A) Rs. 98 (B) Rs. 100 (C) Rs. 140 (D) Rs. 40 Ans : (A) 79. If the goods purchased are in transit, then the Journal Entry at the

end of the period will be (A) Goods in Transit A/c Dr. To Suppliers A/c (B) Goods in transit A/c Dr. To Purchases A/c (C) Stock A/c Dr. To Goods in Transit A/c (D) Suppliers A/c Dr. To Goods in Transit Ans : (B) 80. Calculate Return on Investment/ Return on Proprietors fund. Gross profit of a firm is Rs. 3,20,000, Operating expenses Rs. 1,00,000, Taxes Rs. 20,000, Owners fund Rs. 5,00,000, Debenture Interest Rs. 50,000 (A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 50% Ans : (B) 81. The following figures are presented to you Year Sales Profit/Loss 1999 Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 10,000 (Loss) 2000 Rs. 2,50,000 Rs. 20,000 (Profit) Calculate Profit Volume Ratio. (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20% Ans : (D) 82. The following particulars relate to manufacturing factory for the month of March 2008. Variable cost per unit Rs. 11; Fixed factory overhead Rs. 5,40,000; Fixed selling overhead Rs. 2,52,000; Variable selling cost Rs. 3; Sales Price per unit Rs. 20. Find out the BreakEven Point in rupees (A) Rs. 26,40,000 (B) Rs. 30,80,000 (C) Rs. 25,20,000 (D) Rs. 27,40,000

Ans : (C) 83. The following information is obtained from the records of K Co. Ltd. Sales (1,00,000 units) Rs. 1,00,000 Variable cost Rs. 40,000 Fixed cost Rs. 30,000 Find out margin of safety. (A) Rs. 20,000 (B) Rs. 25,000 (C) Rs. 30,000 (D) Rs. 50,000 Ans : (D) 84. A manufacturer is operating at 50% of its capacity, due to competition. The following are the details. Raw materials Rs. 6 per unit, Direct Labour Rs. 4 per unit. variable overhead - Rs. 3 per unit, fixed overhead - Rs. 2 per unit, output 15,000 units, total cost Rs. 2,25,000, sales value Rs. 2,10,000, loss Rs. 15,000. A foreign customer wants to buy 6,000 units at Rs. 1350 per unit and the company does not know whether to accept or not as it is suffering losses at the current level. Advise what he should do ? (A) Accept the offer (B) Reject the offer (C) Remains indifferent (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 85. I took the order for 5,000 units at Rs. 50 each because I got more than the cost incurred to produce them, said the Works Manager, and produced the following figures
Particulars Variable costs Fixed costs Total costs Cost/unit Before accepting the order Rs. 2,50,000 7,50,000 10,00,000 40 After accepting the order Rs. 4,00,000 8,51,000 12,51,000 4170

Analyse the above figures and the decision taken. Acceptance of this offer has (A) Lowered his profit by Rs. 500 (B) Lowered his profit by Rs. 1,000 (C) Lowered his profit by Rs. 1,500 (D) Lowered his profit by Rs. 2,000 Ans : (C) 86. The following data are provided to you. Fixed cost - Rs. 20,000; Selling price per unit - Rs. 25, Variable cost per unit - Rs. 20. Find out selling price per unit if B.E.P. is brought down to 2,000 units. (A) Rs. 30 (B) Rs. 40 (C) Rs. 50 (D) Rs. 60 Ans : (C) 87. Among the following which is not an error of commission ? (A) Wrong totalling (B) Recording with wrong amount (C) Wrong posting (D) Escape from posting Ans : (D) 88. Internal check means (A) Checking of accounts by cashier (B) Checking of accounts by the Internal Auditor (C) Checking the work of one person by another automatically (D) Managerial control internally over the subordinates Ans : (C) 89. Verification includes (A) Valuation (B) Existence (C) Ownership & Title (D) All of the above

Ans : (D) 90. By whom from the following, auditor can be reappointed ? (A) Directors (B) Shareholders (C) Central Government (D) All of the above Ans : (D) 91. Auditor shall be punished with imprisonment for a maximum period of under Section 539 for falsification in the books of accounts. (A) 3 years (B) 5 years (C) 7 years (D) 9 years Ans : (C) 92. Auditor is not an insurer. In which of the following cases, the decision has been given ? (A) The Kingston Cotton Mills Co. Ltd. (1986) (B) London & General Bank (1895) (C) Allen Craig & Co. Ltd. (1934) (D) Irish Woollen Co. Ltd. Ans : (B) 93. The Section 80A of the Companies Act is related with the redemption of (A) Debentures (B) Redeemable preference shares (C) Irredeemable preference shares (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 94. Company Auditor is responsible (A) For directors (B) For shareholders

(C) For public (D) For creditors Ans : (B) 95. In Balance Sheet, Audit Accounts are audited (A) Monthly (B) Bi-monthly (C) Annually or half yearly (D) Quarterly Ans : (C) 96. Audit adopted by banking company is (A) Continuous Audit (B) Periodical Audit (C) Internal Audit (D) Balance Sheet Audit Ans : (A) 97. Which of the following have lien of Company Auditor ? (A) Books of Accounts of the Company (B) Vouchers of the Company (C) Auditors working paper (D) All of the above Ans : (C) 98. To appoint new auditor in place of retiring auditor, to adopt the procedure, which section of Companies Act, 1956 is applicable ? (A) 223 (B) 224 (C) 225 (D) 226 Ans : (B) 99. A company has a separate legal existence from its members. This principle was first laid down in case of (A) Saloman Vs. Saloman & Co. Ltd. (1897) (B) Daimler Co. Ltd. Vs. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. (1916)

(C) State of U. P. Vs. Renu Sagar Power Co. (1991) (D) Santunu Roy Vs. Union of India (1989) Ans : (A) 100. According to ownership, Government Company means share. (A) Whose paid-up share capitals 48%, shares are owned by Government (B) Whose paid-up share capitals 49% shares are owned by Government (C) Whose paid-up share capitals 50% shares are owned by Government (D) Whose paid-up share capitals 51% shares are owned by Government Ans : (D

Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2011

(Held on 16-1-2011)

English Language : Solved Paper

Directions(Q. 1 to 5) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them (1) What is waste of my tax money, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay. (2) Speak to her, he said, She's into books. (3) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticing her. (4) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a Gallo drinking appreciation event. (5) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him. 1. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 Ans : (C) 2. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 Ans : (D) 3. Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 Ans : (B)

4. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 Ans : (A) 5. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 Ans : (E) Directions(Q. 6 to15) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (6) effect in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (7) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (8) well-intentioned ideas into (9) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admissions under the RTE prohibit schools

from conducting any sort of student profiling. The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that schools will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (10) will only incentives manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE. The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (11) we have the infrastructure in place first. Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (12) way around. In that sense, legislators' assessment of ground realities is (13) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of lowcost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (14) on private schools for failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the existing government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much-needed supplydemand (15) in the education sector. 6. (A) with (B) for (C) on (D) into (E) in Ans : (D) 7. (A) around (B) near (C) into (D) about (E) reaching Ans : (A) 8. (A) forming (B) translating

(C) having (D) taking (E) framing Ans : (B) 9. (A) affect (B) ideas (C) practice (D) concept (E) procedure Ans : (C) 10. (A) benefit (B) merit (C) chance (D) basis (E) method Ans : (C) 11. (A) unless (B) until (C) executed (D) provided (E) exercised Ans : (D) 12. (A) other (B) any (C) two (D) differ (E) after Ans : (A) 13. (A) on (B) of (C) often (D) taken

(E) off Ans : (E) 14. (A) soft (B) more (C) less (D) only (E) hard Ans : (D) 15. (A) need (B) equilibrium (C) expectation (D) attempt (E) aspects Ans : (B) Directions(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 16. The President has denied (A) / that the economy is in recession (B) / or was go into one (C) / despite a spate of downcast reports. (D) No error (E) Ans : (C) 17. The angry at being (A) / left out of the bonanza (B) / is palpable among (C) / employees of the organization. (D) No error (E) Ans : (E) 18. His comments came after (A) / the research group said that its (B) / consumer confidence index were (C) / slumped to its lowest level. (D) No error (E) Ans : (C)

19. If all goes well, (A) / the examination scheduled for next month (B) / is all set to be completely free (C) / from annoying power cuts and disruptions. (D) No error (E) Ans : (A) 20. There are just too few trains (A) / for the ever-grow (B) / number of passengers (C) / in the city. (D) No error (E) Ans : (B) 21. The buzz at the party was (A) / that a famous (B) / filmstar and politician, would (C) / probable drop by for a while. (D) No error (E) Ans : (D) 22. The Opposition disrupted proceedings (A) / in both Houses of Parliament (B) / for the second consecutive day (C) / above the plight of farmers in the country. (D) No error (E) Ans : (D) 23. In response to the growing crisis, (A) / the agency is urgently asking for (B) / more contributions, to make up for (C) / its sharp decline in purchasing power. (D) No error (E) Ans : (E) 24. The tennis player easy through (A) / the opening set before her opponent, (B) / rallied to take the final two sets (C) / for the biggest victory of her young career. (D) No error (E) Ans : (A) 25. Aggression in some teenage boys (A) / may be linkage to overly (B) / large glands in their brains, (C) / a new study has found. (D) No error (E) Ans : (B) Directions(Q. 26 to 35) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Centre for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided. This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century, said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper's lead author, But, if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change, he added." Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantlycarbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases. To examine the impact of such cuts on the world's climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with the NCAR - based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast, emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team's results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2.2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 450 ppm would have

other impacts, according to the climate modelling study. Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimetres (about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimetres (8.7 inches). also, Arctic ice in the summertime wouldshrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least three-quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half. 26. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions ? (A) As global warming is not an issue of concern (B) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change (C) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts (D) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide (E) None of these Ans : (B) 27. What would not be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ? (A) Temperatures will stop soaring (B) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace (C) The rise in sea level would be lesser (D) All of the above would be the impact (E) None of these Ans : (D) 28. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions ? (A) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius (B) The sea-level would rise by about 5.5 inches (C) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100 (D) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth

(E) None of these Ans : (A) 29. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage ? (A) A study of the rise in water level (B) A study of rise in temperatures (C) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions (D) A study of the Arctic region (E) A study of change in seasons Ans : (C) 30. Which of the following statements is true in context of the passage ? (A) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm (B) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked (C) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during the preindustrial era (D) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked (E) None of these Ans : (B) 31. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says we could stabilize the threat of climate change ? (A) Climate change can be stopped completely (B) Climate change can be regularized (C) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively (D) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized (E) None of these Ans : (D) 32. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies ? (A) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about 1 degree (B) So that they could stabilize the climate change

(C) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions (D) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70% (E) None of these Ans : (E) 33. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at end of this century ? (1) Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius. (2) Arctic warming would be reduced by half. (3) Thermal expansion will stop completely. (A) Only (1) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) All the three (1), (2) and (3) (E) None of these Ans : (B) Directions(Q. 34 to 37) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed inbold as used in the passage 34. DRAMATIC (A) unprecedented (B) thrilling (C) spectacular (D) effective (E) feeble Ans : (D) 35. SHRINK (A) contract (B) physician (C) wither (D) shrivel (E) reduce Ans : (E)

36. PREDOMINANTLY (A) clearly (B) aggressively (C) mainly (D) firstly (E) faintly Ans : (C) 37. MASSIVE (A) tall (B) tough (C) total (D) little (E) severe Ans : (C) Directions(Q. 38 to 40) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed inbold as used in the passage. 38. SIGNIFICANT (A) substantial (B) miniscule (C) incoherent (D) unimportant (E) irrelevant Ans : (D) 39. OPPOSED (A) resistant (B) against (C) favouring (D) similar (E) agree Ans : (D)

40. DIMINISHED (A) created (B) rose (C) increased (D) lessen (E) finished Ans : (B) Directions(Q. 41 to 45) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correc tion is required, mark (E) as the answer. 41. Although scared of heights, she gather all her courage and stood a top the 24-storey building to participate in the activities. (A) gathered all her courage (B) gathered all courageous (C) gather all courageous (D) is gathered all courage (E) No correction required Ans : (A) 42. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time for celebration. (A) go so well (B) going so well (C) gone as well (D) going as well (E) No correction required Ans : (B) 43. The ban was imposed by the state's commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie. (A) had threats of burning

(B) had threated to burn (C) had threatened to burn (D) had threatened to burning (E) No correction required Ans : (C) 44. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in school and college, will inauguratethe match tomorrow in Pune. (A) will be inaugurate (B) is inauguration (C) will inaugurating (D) is inaugurate (E) No correction required Ans : (E) 45. At a musical night organized for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang beautifully and made the evening truly memorable. (A) come forward (B) come to the fore (C) came to the forth (D) came to the fore (E) No correction required Ans : (D) Directions(Q. 46 to 50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 46. Behaving in a and serious way, even in a situation, makes people respect you. (A) calm, difficult (B) steady, angry (C) flamboyant, tricky (D) cool, astounding (E) silly, sound

Ans : (A) 47. Alongwith a sharp rise in , a recession would eventually result in more men, women, and children, living in (A) crime, apathy (B) fatalities, poor (C) deaths, slums (D) unemployment, poverty (E) migrations, streets Ans : (D) 48. The government has to provide financial aid to the ones by severe floods in the city. (A) desired, troubled (B) promised, havoc (C) failed, affected (D) wanted, struck (E) decided, ill Ans : (C) 49. An airplane with passengers on board made an unscheduled as the airport to which it was heading was covered with thick fog. (A) irritable, slip (B) faulty, stop (C) variety, halt (D) tons, wait (E) numerous, landing Ans : (C) 50. Deemed universities huge fees, but have not been successful in providing education to our students. (A) collect, maintaining (B) pay, better (C) ask, good (D) charge, quality

(E) demand, quantitative Ans : (D)

Rajasthan Pre-B.Ed. Exam., 2008 Solved Paper

Mental Ability
1. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row ? (A) 26 (B) 32 (C) 24 (D) 35 2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ? (A) 26 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 33 3. Soldier is related to Army in the same way as Pupil is related to . (A) Education (B) Teacher (C) Student (D) Class 4. Kilogram is related to Quintal in the same way as Paisa is related to . (A) Coin (B) Money (C) Cheque (D) Rupee 5. Stammering is to Speech as Deafness is to .

(A) Ear (B) Hearing (C) Noise (D) Commotion 6. Guilt is to Past as Hope is to . (A) Present (B) Future (C) Today (D) Hopeless Directions(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets. 7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left ? (A) N (B) L (C) O (D) None of these 8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ? (A) V (B) T (C) W (D) Y 9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right ? (A) V (B) X (C) W (D) I 10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ? ACE, FGH, ?, PON (A) KKK (B) JKI

(C) HJH (D) IKL 11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ? (A) Script (B) Pen (C) Paper (D) Book 12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ? (A) Furniture (B) Forest (C) Fire (D) Carpenter 13. acme : mace : : alga : ? (A) glaa (B) gaal (C) laga (D) gala 14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ? (A) UTOPTU (B) UOTUPT (C) TUOUTP (D) TUOTUP 15. Medicine is related to Patient in the same way as Education is related to (A) Teacher (B) School (C) Student (D) Tuition 16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series S, V, Y, B, ? (A) C

(B) D (C) E (D) G 17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ? 3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20 (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 9 18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark. AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ? (A) IYZ (B) HWX (C) IWX (D) JWX 19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ? 1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ? (A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 52 (D) 56 20. In a certain code CONTRIBUTOR is written as RTNOCIROTUB. How is prohibition written in that code ? (A) NOITIBIHORP (B) IHORPBITION (C) ITIONBIHOTP (D) IHORPBNOITI 21. If CAT and BOAT are written as XZG and YLZG respectively in a code language how is EGG to be written in the same language ? (A) VSS

(B) URR (C) VTT (D) UTT 22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as (A) CBIECD (B) CIBCED (C) CBICED (D) CIBECD 23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is (A) 213310 (B) 213301 (C) 123301 (D) 012334 24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ? (A) Blue (B) Fish (C) Rain (D) Pink 25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikrams shadow fell

exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing ? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest ? (A) Manish (B) Pushpa (C) Namita (D) Nageena 28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ? (A) Meena (B) Rupali (C) Raj (D) None of these 29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother. How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajans mother ? (A) Sister in law (B) Grand daughter (C) Daughter in law (D) None of these 30. If Amits father is Billoos fathers only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo ? (A) UncleNephew (B) FatherDaughter (C) FatherSon

(D) GrandfatherGrandson 31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ? (A) Tuesday (B) Earlier weeks Saturday (C) Wednesday (D) Monday 32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ? (A) 2 : 20 a.m. (B) 3 : 30 a.m. (C) 3 : 55 p.m. (D) 3 : 20 p.m. 33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ? (A) 44 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 55 34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indras position from the left ? (A) 21st (B) 19th (C) 23rd (D) 20th

35. How many 5s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7 ? 8953253855687335775365335738 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Directions(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three. 36. (A) Bokaro (B) Jamshedpur (C) Bhilai (D) Agra 37. (A) January (B) February (C) July (D) December 38. (A) Bible (B) Panchsheel (C) Geeta (D) Quran 39. (A) Star (B) Sun (C) Sky (D) Moon 40. How many 8s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5 ? 6857854368198546829681368536 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three

(D) Four 41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as (A) MENOPM (B) MENOMP (C) NJOGPM (D) MNJOPM 42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as (A) CJCEFQPYWC (B) CJGERQTYVG (C) CNCERQPCRG (D) GJGAVMTYVC 43. Air is to Bird as Water is to . (A) Drink (B) Fish (C) Wash (D) Swim 44. Pencil is to Write as Knife is to . (A) Injure (B) Peel (C) Prick (D) Attack Directions(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? 45. (A) Green (B) Red (C) Colour (D) Orange

46 (A) Rabbit (B) Crocodile (C) Earthworm (D) Snail 47. (A) Polo (B) Chess (C) Ludo (D) Carrom 48. (A) Sun (B) Universe (C) Moon (D) Star 49. (A) Cheese (B) Milk (C) Curd (D) Ghee 50. (A) Carrot (B) Radish (C) Potato (D) Brinjal Answers : 1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) As Soldier is a part of Army in the same way Pupil is a part of Class. 4. (D) 5. (B) As Stammering is a defect of Speech in the same way Deafness is a defect of Hearing. 6. (B) 7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M. 8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of L is T.

9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O, 8th letter to the right is W. 10. (A) 11. (B) As the tool for Typist is Typewriter, similarly the tool for the writer is Pen. 12. (D) As Paint is used by Artist, similarly Wood is used by Carpenter. 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C) As Medicine cures the Patient, similarly Education educates the Student. 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C) 31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday. 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (A) Reqd. 5s are printed boldly in the sequence below : 8953253855687335775365335738 36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry. 37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days. 38. (B) All the rest are religious books. 39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies. 40. (C) Reqd. 8s are printed boldly in the sequence below : 6857854368198546829681368536 41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (B) As Birds fly in Air, similarly Fish swim in Water. 44. (B) As Pencil is used for Writing, similarly Knife is used to Peel. 45. (C) All the rest are different colours. 46. (A) All the rest are related with water. 47. (A) All the rest are indoor games. 48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies. 49. (B) All the rest products are made from Milk. 50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.

Alphabetical Test
1. If the following series is written in the reverse order and the alternate letter are deleted from it then which letter will divide the new series in two equal parts? ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) N (B) P (C) L (D) M (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. If alternate letters are deleted from the following series then which letter will divide the new series in two equal parts? ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) N

(B) M (C) K (D) O (E) None of these

Ans : (D)

3. If the second half of the series is written in the reverse order then which will be the 9th letter to the right of 7th letter from your left ? ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) Y (B) Z (C) P (D) X (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. If first half of the following series is written in the reverse order the which will be 7th letter to the left of 10th letter from your right? ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) E (B) D (C) A (D) B (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. In the following series which is the 5th letter to the left of 14th letter from your right? ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) I (B) L (C) J (D) K

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

6. In the following series which is the 8th letter to the right of 16th letter from your left ? ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) K (B) Y (C) X (D) W (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. If first half of the following series is written in the reverse order, which will be the 5th letter to the left of 13th letter from your right? ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) S (B) E (C) F (D) D (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. If the second half of the following series is written in the reverse order, which will be the 7th letter to the left of 23rd letter from your left? ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) L (B) Y (C) X (D) P (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. If the second half of the following series is written in the reverse order then which will be the 18th letter to the left of 10th letter from your left? ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) R (B) I (C) V (D) U (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. In the following series if 44 letters from left are written in the reverse order then which will be the 8th letter to the left of 10th letter from your right? ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) Y (B) Z (C) L (D) K (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. In the following series which will be the 7th letter to the left of 10th letter from your left? ABCDEFGHUKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ. (A) C (B) E (C) X (D) L (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word SERVANT having the same no. of letters left between them in the word as they have in the series? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word MONKEY having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 5 (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word SMUGGLER having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word BONAFIDE having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 16. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word FRONTIER having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 3 (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word MINISTER having same no. of letters left between them at they have in the series? (A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 2 (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

18. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word PERFUMERY having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series? (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 4

(D) 1 (E) None of these

Ans : (B)

19. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word DOCUMENTARY having same no. of letters left between them as they have in the series? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 1 (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from first, fifth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word ECCENTRICITY then which will be the third letter of that word? If it is possible to make more than one word then answer will be M and if the word formation is not possible then the answer will be X. (A) E (B) R (C) N (D) M (E) X
Ans : (C)

21. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from first, second, fourth and fifth letters of the word FALSEHOOD then which will be the third letter from right? Give your answer M if more than one word can be formed and if no word can be formed then give your answer X. (A) F (B) A (C) E

(D) X (E) M
Ans : (B)

22. If first letter is interchanged by sixth letter, second by seventh and so in the word INTERVOLVE then which will be the sixth letter from your right in the new word' ? (A) L (B) E (C) V (D) O (E) I
Ans : (B)

23. If first letter is interchanged by second, third by fourth, fifth by sixth and so on in the word HABILITATE then which will be the 8th letter from your left in the new word? (A) L (B) E (C) T (D) A (E) B
Ans : (C)

24. If the following words are arranged according to the dictionary order then which word will come in the middle? (A) Gunny (B) Gunnery (C) Gunmetal (D) Gunpowder (E) Gunsmith
Ans : (A)

25. If the following words are arranged according to the dictionary order then which will be the second word in that order? (A) Expound (B) Exposure (C) Expulsion (D) Expose (E) Export
Ans : (D)

CodingDecoding Test
1. If KEDGY is coded as EKDYG then how will LIGHT be coded ? (A) ILHTG (B) ILGHT (C) ILGTH (D) THGIL (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. If RAVE is coded as SXWB then how will SCAW be coded ? (A) TDBO (B) TZBK (C) PZXK (D) TVXK (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. If SPANK is coded as PSNAK then how will THROW be coded? (A) HTORW (B) HTWOR

(C) HTWRO (D) HTRWO (E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. If UDOMETER is coded as DUMOTERE then how will SUBLEASE be coded? (A) USLBESAE (B) USLBAEES (C) USBAELES (D) USLBEAES (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. If PURSER is coded as UPSRRE then how will PERIODIC be coded? (A) EPRIDOIC (B) PEIRDOCI (C) EPIRDOCI (D) EPIRODCI (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. If STRAY is coded as TUSBZ then how will MOURN be coded? (A) LPVSO (B) NPVSO (C) NVPSO (D) NPSVO (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. If MAGIC is coded as PXJFF then how will LEASH be coded? (A) PBDVD (B) OBDVL (C) OHEOK (D) OBDPK (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. If DOWN is coded as FQYP then how will WITH be coded? (A) KYN (B) JYK (C) YKVJ (D) JKVY (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. If BINARY is coded as DHPZTK then how will KIDNAP be coded? (A) MKFPCQ (B) MHFPZQ (C) IKFMYO (D) MHFMCO (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. If RASCAL is coded as QZRBZK then how will SOLDER be coded? (A) RNMEDQ (B) RPKEDS (C) TPMEFS (D) RNKCDQ (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. If SAVOURY is coded as OVUARSY then how will RADIATE be coded? (A) AIDARET (B) IDARA TE (C) ARIADTE (D) IDAATRE (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

12. If MAPLE is coded as VOKZN then how will CAMEL be coded? (A) OVNZF

(B) OUNZX (C) OVNZX (D) XZNVO (E) None of these

Ans : (C)

13. If CRY is coded as MRYC then how will GET be coded? (A) MTEG (B) MGET (C) MEGT (D) METG (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. If BURNER is coded as CASOIS then how will ALIMENT be coded? (A) BKJLFMU (B) EKOLIMS (C) EMONIOU (D) BRJSFTU (E) EROSITU
Ans : (C)

15. If Sand is coded as Brick, Brick as House, House as Temple, Temple as Palace then where do you worship? (A) Palace (B) Temple (C) Brick (D) House (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. If Rajdoot is coded as Car, Car as Aeroplane, Aeroplane as Train, Train as Bus, then by which vehicle can you reach your destination in least time? . (A) Aeroplane (B) Train

(C) Car (D) Bus (E) None of these

Ans : (B)

17. If Pen is coded as Pencil, Pencil as Chalk, Chalk as Slate, Slate as Paper, then by which do you mostly write? (A) Pen (B) Pencil (C) Chalk (D) Slate (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

18. If Leader is coded as Actor, Actor as an Administrator, Administrator as a Traitor, Traitor as a Social-reformer, then who takes part in the Parliamentary elections? (A) Administrator (B) Leader (C) Traitor (D) Social-Reformist (E) None of these Ans : (E) 19. If '245' means'Art and Talent' in a certain code language, '316' means 'Callous to Generous', '147' means 'Callous and Polite' then what is the code used for 'to' ? (A) Only 3 (B) Only 1 (C) 3 or 6 (D) Only 6 (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. In a certain code language '579' means'Kanchan is softspoken', '694' meansSoft-spoken beautiful pure', '473' means Ganga is pure', then what is the code used for 'Kanchan' ?

(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) Can not be determined (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. In a certain code language '123' meansMahendra is Able', '345' means'Sunita is unlucky', '526' means'Mahendra was unlucky', then what is the code used for unlucky? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) Can not be determined (E) None of these Ans : (E) 22. In a certain code language '765' means'Man Illness Hardworking', '478' means'Illness Hard Blood-Pressure', '826' means 'Blood-pressure Lazy Hard-working', then (I) For which word code '8' has been used? (A) Illness (B) Man (C) Hard (D) Blood-Pressure (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

(II) Which code has been used for 'Hardworking' ? (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6 or 5 (E) 7 or 5
Ans : (B)

(III) Which code has been used for 'Lazy' ?

(A) 2 (B) 6 or 2 (C) 6 (D) 8 (E) 6 or 5

Ans : (A)

23. If '678' means'Society Family Husbandry', '574' means 'Husbandry Health Control', '342' means'Health Census shop', then (I) Which code has been used for 'Health' ? (A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 2 (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

(II) Which code has been used for 'Census' ? (A) 3 or 2 (B) 3 or 7 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6
Ans : (A)

(III) For which word code '6' has been used? (A) Society (B) Family (C) Husbandry (D) Society or Family (E) None of these'
Ans : (D)

24. If 'KRN' means'Callous collission life', 'RTP' means'Life very sad', 'NPD' means'Collission sad future' then what is the code used for 'Callous' ?

(A) R (B) N (C) K (D) Can not be determined (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. If 'MLT' means'Day is clear', 'LKS' means'Life is sad', 'SMMO' means'Clear or sad', then what is the code used for 'Day' ? (A) T (B) K (C) MO (D) L (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Spotting out the Dissimilar

DirectionsIn each of the following questions one word is different from the rest. Find out the word which does not belong to the group 1. (A) BFD (B) NRP (C) HLG (D) QUS (E) UYW
Ans : (C)

2. (A) GTSH (B) BYXC (C) ETUF (D) LONM (E) KPIR
Ans : (C)

3. (A) PQ (B) CD (C) MN (D) DF (E) RS

Ans : (D)

4. (A) HB (B) ZU (C) NI (D) TO (E) PK

Ans : (A)

5. (A) CEI (B) QSX (C) JLP (D) QSW (E) MOS
Ans : (B)

6. (A) ZXVT (B) SQOM (C) ECBA (D) UHF (E) DBTR
Ans : (C)

7. (A) KMNO (B) ABDE (C) PRST (D) UWXY (E) QSTU
Ans : (B)

8. (A) BC (B) FG (C) KL (D) PQ (E) TV Ans : (E) 9. (A) KLM (B) NPR (C) BCD (D) RQP (E) HGF
Ans : (B)

10. (A) ML (B) TS (C) FG (D) PO (E) XW

Ans : (C)

11. (A) NMLK

(B) RQPO (C) UTSR (D) WXUV (E) EDCB

Ans : (D)

12. (A) ACEG (B) MOQS (C) GHJL (D) RTVX (E) KMOQ
Ans : (C)

13. (A) CE (B) HK (C) SQ (D) MN (E) WZ

Ans : (D)

14. (A) BCB (B) DED (C) ABA (OJ KLL (E) MNM
Ans : (D)

15. (A) BCD (B) NPR (C) KLM (D) RQP (E) HGF
Ans : (B)

16. (A) MOQ (B) GEC (C) SUW (D) PRT

(E) TVX
Ans : (B)

17. (A) AG (B) IO (C) PV (D) QW (E) SY

Ans : (C)

18. (A) EQL (B) BHF (C) KTI (D) SXD (E) JWM
Ans : (D)

19. (A) ACDB (B) MOPN (C) SVUT (D) QSTR (E) JLMK
Ans : (C)

20. (A) Printer (B) Author (C) Publisher (D) Correspondent (E) Reader Ans : (E) 21. (A) FLOK (B) CROWD (C) HERD (D) SWARM (E) TEAM Ans : (E)

22. (A) Jupiter (B) Sky (C) Star (D) Moon (E) Sun
Ans : (B)

23. (A) Sofa (B) Bed (C) Diwan (D) Chair (E) Table
Ans : (B)

24. (A) Cheese (B) Butter (C) Ghee (D) Milk (E) Curd
Ans : (D)

25. (A) Ginger (B) Tomato (C) Carrot (D) Beet (E) Potato
Ans : (B)

Analogy Test
1. As 'Wheel' is related to 'Vehicle' similarly 'Clock' is related to what? (A) Needle (B) Nail (C) Stick (D) Pin (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. As 'Plateau' is related a 'Mountain', similarly 'Bush' is related to what? (A) Plants (B) Field (C) Forest (D) Trees (E) Stem
Ans : (C)

3. As 'Astronomy' is related to 'Planets', similarly 'Astrology' is related to what? (A) Satellites (B) Disease (C) Animals

(D) Coins (E) None of these

Ans : (E)

4. As 'Earthquake' is related to 'Earth', similarly 'Thundering' is related to what? (A) Earth (B) Sea (C) Fair (D) Sky (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. As' Author' is related to 'Writing', similarly 'Thief is related to what? (A) To night (B) To feel (C) To steal (D) To wander (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. As 'Magazine' is related to 'Editor' in the same way 'Drama' is related to what? (A) Hero (B) Heroine (C) Co-actor (D) Villain (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

7. As 'Steal' is related to 'Factory' in the same way 'Wheat' is related to what? (A) Field (B) Sky (C) Godown (D) Market (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. As 'Cricket' is related to 'Bat' in the same way, 'Tennis' is related to what? (A) Game (B) Stick (C) Court (D) Hand (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

9. As 'Football' is related to 'Field' in the same way, 'Tennis' is related to what? (A) Court (B) Net (C) Field (D) Racket (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. As 'Tennis' is related to 'Racket' in the same way 'Hockey' is related to what? (A) Ball (B) Stick (C) Field (D) Player (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. As 'Mosque' is related to 'Islam' in the same way 'Church' is related to what? (A) Hinduism (B) Sikhism (C) Christianity (D) Buddhism (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

12. As 'Hindu worshiper' is related to 'Temple' in the same way 'Maulvi' is related to what? (A) Monastery (B) Church (C) Mosque (D) Sikh temple (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. As 'Hungry' is related to 'Food' in the same way 'Thirsty' is related to what? (A) Drink (B) Tea (C) Coffee (D) Juice (E) Waler
Ans : (E)

14. As 'Fly' is related to 'Parrot' in the same way 'Creep' is related to what? (A) Snake (B) Rabbit (C) Fish (D) Crocodile (E) Sparrow
Ans : (A)

15. As 'Needle' is related to 'Thread' in the same way 'Pen' is related to what? (A) Word (B) To write (C) Cap (D) Ink (E) Paper
Ans : (D)

16. As 'Circle' is related to 'Circumference' in the same way 'Square' is related to what?

(A) Diagonal (B) Perimeter (C) Circumference (D) Area (E) Angle
Ans : (B)

17. As 'Bell' is related to 'Sound' in the same way 'Lamp' is related to what? (A) Flame (B) Light (C) Wick (D) Oil (E) Gong
Ans : (B)

18. As 'Oil' is related to an 'Oilman', in the same way 'Milk' is related to what? (A) Water (B) Blacksmith (C) Shoemaker (D) Milkman (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. As 'Furniture' is related to 'Bench' in the same way 'Stationary' is related to what? (A) Godown (B) Room (C) Pen (D) Chair (E) Office
Ans : (C)

20. CTPN: DSQM : : MUSK: ? (A) NVTL (B) NITJ (C) NTTL

(D) LTRJ (E) None of these

Ans : (B)

Series Completion Test

DirectionsIn each of the following questions a series is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question-mark (?) ? 1. JD, KF, ?, PM, TR (A) MI (B) NJ (C) NI (D) OJ

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

2. BTO, DSQ, FRS, HQU, ? (A) IPX (B) JPW (C) GPW (D) JRW (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. B, D, G, K, P, ? (A) U (B) W (C) T (D) X (E) None of thee

Ans : (E)

4. Z, T, O, K, H, ? (A) E (B) J (C) F (D) D (E) None of these

Ans : (C)

5. HZF, IWH, KSJ, NNL, ? (A) SHM (B) RHN (C) THN (D) RGM (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. MR, PO, SL, VI, ? (A) YF (B) ZE

(C) YD (D) ZF (E) None of these

Ans : (A)

7. LOT, NNR, QMO, ULK, ? (A) YKE (B) YJF (C) JKF (D) JKE (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. CG, GH, LJ, RM, ? (A) ZR (B) YR (C) ZQ (D) YQ (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. FRP, HPQ. JNS, LLV, ? (A) PKZ (B) NJZ (C) OJZ (D) MKZ (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

10. Z15A, W13C, ?, Q9G, N7I. (A) T12F (B) R11F (C) T11E (D) R13D (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. MN, NM, MNO, ONM, MNOP, ?

(A) NPOM (B) POMN (C) MOPN (D) PONM (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

12. CVD, CTE, DQE, DMF, EHF, ? (A) ECG (B) FCG (C) EBG (D) FBG (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. JKL, LKJ, JKLM, MLKJ, JKLMN, ? (A) LMJKN (B) NLMKJ (C) NMUK (D) NMLKJ (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, ? (A) 17E4 (B) 18F5 (C) 17E3 (D) 18D4 (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

DirectionsIn each of the following questions one number-series is given in which one term is wrong. Find out the wrong term. 15. 5, 7, 11, 20, 35, 67. (A) 11 (B) 20

(C) 35 (D) 67 (E) None of these

Ans : (B)

16. 4, 11, 21, 34, 49, 69,91. (A) 34 (B) 69 (C) 49 (D) 21 (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

17. 5, 12, 19, 33, 47, 75, 104. (A) 33 (B) 47 (C) 75 (D) 104 (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

DirectionsIn each of the following questions a number-sereis is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question mark (?) ? 18. 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ? (A) 169 (B) 159 (C) 119 (D) 139 (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. 0, 7, 26, 65, 124, 215, ? (A) 305 (B) 295 (C) 342

(D) 323 (E) None of these

Ans : (C)

20. 4, 7, 10, 10, 16, 13, ? (A) 19 (B) 23 (C) 21 (D) 22 (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ? (A) 52 (B) 50 (C) 51 (D) 48 (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. 2, 11, 47, 191, 767, ? (A) 2981 (B) 3068 (C) 3081 (D) 3058 (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

DirectionsIn each of the following questions a letter-series is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative. 23. mnopnopnopm. (A) opmno (B) pmomn (C) pmmpn

(D) nmopo (E) None of these

Ans : (B)

24. baababbbaaba. (A) abab (B) aabb (C) baab (D) bbaa (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. accacccaaccccaaa. (A) caac (B) ccaa (C) acca (D) caaa (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Arranging in Order
1. If the position of Rajan is 15th from one end and 13th from the other end in his class, what is the total number of students in his class? . (A) 28 (B) 24 (C) 27 (D) 29 (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. The position of Shyamal is 13th from the last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is his position from the beginning? (A) 8th (B) 9th (C) 7th (D)) 10th (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. In the class of 40 students, if Sanju is at 30th place from one end, what is his position from the other end? (A) 9th (B) 12th (C) 10th (D) 11th (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. In a row of girls, Nivedita is 15th from the left and Vimla is 23rd from the right. If they interchange their positions, then Nivedita

becomes 18 th from the left. Then at what position will Vimla be from the right? (A) 25th (B) 24th (C) 26th (D) 20th (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. In a row of ladies Manorama is 20th from the right and Kanta is 10th from the left. When they interchange their positions Manorama becomes 25th from the right. What is the total number of ladies in the row ? (A) 35 (B) 34 (C) 44 (D) 24 (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. A number of people are standing in a row in which Kailash is 20th from the left and Hemant is 25th from the right. If they interchange their positions then Kailash becomes 25th from the right. How many people are there in the row? (A) 49 (B) 44 (C) 45 (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. In a row of boys, Udai is 23rd from the left and Ashok is 8th from the right. When they interchange their positions Udai becomes 18th from the right. What will be the position of Ashok from the left ? (A) 15th (B) 10th (C) 40th

(D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

Ans : (D)

8. Five members of a family, Rakesh, Mukesh, Roopesh, Vipul and Umesh take food in a definite order (1) Umesh was next to first man. (2) Roopesh took food after the man who was before Vipul. (3) Rakesh was the last man to take food. (a) Who were the first and last men to take food? (A) Mukesh and Roopesh (B) Roopesh and Rakesh (C) Umesh and Mukesh (D) Mukesh and Rakesh (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

(b) Who were those two men who took food in order between Mukesh and Vipul ? (A) Umesh and Rakesh (B) Rakesh and Roopesh (C) Umesh and Roopesh (D) Can not be determined (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a circular path who are facing the centre. R is third from P in the right. Q is third from T in the left. U is between P and T and S is third from U in the left right. (a) Who is opposite to T ? (A) S (B) Q (C) P (D) U (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

(b) What is the order of the six people from the left ? (A) SQRUTP (B) TSRQUP (C) SRTUPQ (D) SQPUTR (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

(c) What is the order of the six people from the right? (A) PQRSTU (B) SQPUTR (C) SPQRUT (D) SRTUPQ (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

(d) Who are between S and U? (A) Only T (B) P and R (C) Q and T (D) Q and R (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. Nikhilesh is taller than Arvind who is taller than Mahendra. Naresh is smaller than Suresh but taller than Nikhilesh. Who is the smallest? (A) Nikhilesh (B) Arvind (C) Mahendra (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. Ram is taller than Shyam. Rahim is taller than Ram. Karim is taller than Shokat but smaller than Shyam. Who is the tallest? (A) Rahim (B) Ram

(C) Karim (D) Shyam (E) Shokat

Ans : (A)

12. Five boys Mahendra, Anjani, Anil, Anand and Alok are sitting in a row. Neither Anil is neighbour of Anand nor of Anjani. Mahendra is not the neighbour of Anjani. Anil is the neighbour of Alok. If Alok is just in the middle, who is the neighbour of Mahendra? (A) Anand (B) Alok (C) Anil (D) Anjani (E) Can not be determined
Ans : (C)

13. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajal and Vimal. Who is the tallest? (A) Karishma (B) Kajal (C) Ankita (D) Can not be determined (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. If in a class of 37 students the places of Anuradha and Saroj are 10th and 16th respectively, what are their places from the last? (A) 28th and 22nd (B) 27th and 21st (C) 28th and 20th (D) 27th and 22nd (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. In a class of 65 boys the position of Mohan is 33th. If the last boy is given the first position then on this basis what is the position of Mohan? (A) 32nd

(B) 33rd (C) 34th (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Direction Sense Test

1. Ramesh starting from a fixed point goes 15 km towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. Then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point? (A) 5 metres (B) 10 metres (C) 20 metres (D) 15 metres (E) Can not be determined
Ans : (B)

2. Sonalika goes 12 km towards North from a fixed point and then she goes 8 km towards South from there. In the end she goes 3 km towards east. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?

(A) 7 km East (B) 5 km West (C) 7 km West (D) 5 km North-East (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Sunita goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes 15 km. After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point? (A) 45 km, East (B) 15 km, East (C) 45 km, West (D) 45 Km, North (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. Kanchan goes 5 m towards east from a fixed point N and then 35 km after turning to her left. Again she goes 10 metres after turning to her right. After this she goes 35 m after turning to her right. How far is she from N ? (A) 40 m (B) At N (C) 10 m (D) 15 m (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. Shri Prakash walked 40 metres facing towards North. From there he walked 50 metres after turning to his left. After this he walked 40 metres after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from his starting point? (A) 40 m, North (B) 50 m, West (C) 10 m, East (D) 10 m, West

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes 7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house? (A) 14 km (B) 7 km (C) 2 km (D) 5 km (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. Nivedita stops after going 10 km towards west from her office. Then she goes 8 km turning to her left. After this she goes 4 km turning to her left. How far is she from her office? (A) 18 km (B) 8 km (C) 16 km (D) 14 km (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

8. Ranju is at a fixed point, from where she goes 20 metres towards West. From there she goes 10 metres towards Notrh. Then she goes 35 metres towards East and after this she goes 5 metres towards South and in the end she goes 15 metres towards West. How far is she from the fixed point? (A) 5 km (B) 0 km (C) 10 km (D) Can not be determined (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. A man walks 15m towards South from a fixed point. From there he

goes 12 m towards North and then 4 m towards West. How far and in what direction is he from the fixed point? (A) 3 m, South (B) 7 m, South-West (C) 5 m, South-West (D) 5 m, South-East (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point? (A) South (B) North (C) East (D) West (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Raman walks 100 m from his house towards North. From there he goes 100 m towards West. Here is the house of Shyam. From there they both goes to the market which is in the South-West direction from Shyam's house. If the market is in the West of Raman's house, then how far is the market from Raman's house? (A) 100 m (B) 150 m (C) 300 m (D) 400 m (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

12. Ranjan goes 5 km towards North from a fixed point. Then he goes 3 km after turning to his right. After this he goes 5 km turning to his right. In the end he goes 4 km after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from the fixed point?

(A) 4 km, West (B) 7 km, East (C) 9 km, East (D) 7 km, West (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Number Test and Time Sequence Test

1. How many 7's are there in the following number series; which are preceded by an even number but not followed by any odd? 437523721367542742712276572

(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) More than four
Ans : (B)

2. How many 5's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by 3 but not followed by 2 ? 5243546785325735642354752358356 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) More than four
Ans : (E)

3. How many 3's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an odd number but not followed by an even number? 3425315213673182785391345235435 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) More than four
Ans : (C)

4. If the numbers which are divisible by 4, from 4 to 84 are written in reverse order then which number will be at the 7th place? (A) 60 (B) 28 (C) 20 (D) 32 (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. How many numbers are there from 5 to 100, which are divisible by

3 and either unit or tenth digit or both include 3 ? (A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) Less than 6 (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ? 23423425473243192547547234529546 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) More than four
Ans : (A)

7. If the numbers between 4 to 90, which are divisible by 5, and which contain 5 in the unit, tenth or both place, are removed, then how many numbers divisible by 5 will be left? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 12 (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Rajan remembers that his elder brother was born between 13th and 16th April while his mother remembers that he was born after 14th April and before 17th April. If the statements of both are considered correct then on which date of April he was born ? (A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 14 or 15 (D) 15 (E) 15 or 16

Ans : (D)

9. How many numbers are there from 1 to 60, which are divisible by 3 and either unit digit or tenth digit or both include 3 ? (A) 5 (B) 9 (C)15 (D) More than 15 (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. If the following numbers are written in descending order then what will be the middle digit of the middle term ? 723, 789, 595, 659, 713, 785, 689 (A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 3 (E) 2
Ans : (A)

11. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger ? (A) 10.05 a.m. (B) 9.55 a.m. (C) 10.35 a.m. (D) 10.15 a.m. (E) 10.25 a.m.
Ans : (D)

12. If the numbers between 1 to 65 and divisible by 4 are written in reverse order then which of the following numbers will be at l0th place? (A) 44 (B) 24

(C) 40 (D) 28 (E) None of these

Ans : (D)

13. How many 6's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ? 56765649276743568649567 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded and followed by only an even number? 6432483154232464813242645 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. How many 2's are there in the following number series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by an odd number? . 13523545245226245267823527524 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) More than four (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

16. How many 3's are there in the following series, which are not preceded by an odd number but followed by 4 ?

15323465347834923456343534 (A) None (B) Two (C) Four (D) One (E) None of these
Ans : (C)

17. How many B's are there in the following letter-series, which are followed by G but G is not be followed by S ? BGSQBRNOBGNSQLTBGQTDBGUWXBGF (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5 (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. How many D's are there in the following letter-series, which are preceded by K and followed by Q ? KDRMBSKDQKRBLKDQMQDKEFQDK (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3 (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as one of the digits, are removed, then how many numbers will be left? (A) 24 (B) 23 (C) 22 (D) 25 (E) None of these.
Ans : (D)

Deductive Logic
In each question of the following two statements are given and four conclusions I, II, III and IV are given under them. The given statements may be contrary to the universal opinion, even then you have to assume them as true. Then decide which conclusion on the basis of given statements is logically valid. 1. Statements: All kings are beggars. All beggars are monks. Conclusions : I. All beggars are kings. II. All kings are monks. III. Some monks are beggars. IV. No monk is beggar. (A) Only I comes (B) All come (C) Only II and III come (D) Only III and IV come (E) None of these comes
Ans : (C)

2. Statements: All boxes are benches. All boxes are chairs. Conclusions: I. All benches are chairs.

II. All benches are boxes. III. Some benches are chairs. IV. Some chairs are boxes. (A) All (B) Only I and III (C) Only II and IV (D) Only III and IV (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Statements: All labourers are wrestlers. All grocers are labourers. Conclusions: I. All grocers are wrestlers. II. Some wrestlers are grocers. III. Some wrestlers are labourers. IV. Some labourers are grocers. (A) All (B) Only I and IV (C) Only IV (D) Only II and III (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Statements: All sages are kind. All artists are kind. Conclusions: I. All sages are artists. II. All artists are sages. III. Some kind (persons) are sages. IV. Some kind (persons) are artists. (A) Only III and IV (B) All (C) Only II and III (D) Only IV (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. Statements: All kings are clever. Some foolish (persons) are kings. Conclusions: I. All foolish (persons) are clever. II. Some foolish (persons) are clever. III. Some clever (persons) are foolish. IV. Some kings are foolish. (A) Only I and III (B) Only II, III and IV (C) All (D) Only III and IV (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Statements: All pen are books. Some pencils are not books. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are not books. II. Some books are not pencils. III. Some books are pen. IV. All pencils are pen. (A) Only I and III (B) All (C) Only II and III (D) Only I, II and III (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Statements: All things are clad. Some things are not odd. Conclusions: I. Some clad (objects) are things. II. Some odds are not things. III. Some odds are not clad. IV. Some clad (objects) are not odd. (A) Only I

(B) All (C) Only III and IV (D) Only II and III (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

8. Statements: All horses are elephants. Some elephants are not camels. Conclusions: I. Some elephants are horses. II. Some camels are not elephants. III. Some horses are not camels. IV. Some elephants are not horses. (A) Only I and IV (B) Only II (C) All (D) Only III and IV (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

9. Statements: All brinjals are ladyfingers. No brinjal is potato. Conclusions: I. Some ladyfingers are brinjals. II. Some ladyfingers are not brinjals. III. No potato is brinjal. IV. No potato is ladyfinger. (A) All (B) Only I, II and III (C) Only IV (D) Only III and IV (E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. Statements: All dancers are heroines. No heroine is villain-actress. Conclusions :

I. Some heroines are dancers. II. No villain actress is heroine. III. All dancers are villain actress. IV. Some villain actresses are dancers. (A) Only III and IV (B) All (C) Only I and III (D) Only I and II (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Questions Related to Two Statements and Two Conclusions

In the following each question there are two statements and two conclusions I and II there-after are given. Accept the given statements as true even if they are inconsistent with known facts and ignoring the universally known facts find out which conclusion follows logically from the given statements. Give answer (A) if only the conclusion I follows. Give answer (B) if only the conclusion II follows. Give answer (C) if either the conclusion I or the II follows. Give answer (D) if neither the conclusion I nor the II follows. Give answer (E) if the conclusions I and II both follow. 1. Statements: Some saints are Faquirs. No Faquir is King. Conclusions: I. Some saints are kings. II. No saint is king.
Ans : (D)

2. Statements: All actors are leaders. Some leaders are deceitful. Conclusions:

I. Some deceitful (men) are actors. II. Some actors are not deceitful.
Ans : (D)

3. Statements: No man is crippled. All crippled (things) are beasts. Conclusions: I. Some beasts are crippled. II. Some men are beasts.
Ans : (D)

4. Statements: Some elephants are horses. All horses are crocodiles. Conclusions: I. No crocodile is elephant. II. Some elephants are crocodiles.
Ans : (B)

5. Statements: All utensils are fruits. All fruits are sweets. Conclusions: I. Some sweets are utensils. II. All sweets are utensils.
Ans : (A)

6. Statements: Some actors are emperors. Some emperors are cruel. Conclusions: I. All the cruel are actors. II. All the cruel are emperors.
Ans : (D)

7. Statements: All benches are tables. Some tables are chairs. Conclusions: I. No chair is table. II. Some chairs are table.

Ans : (D)

8. Statements: All faxes are alligators. Some alligators are jackals. Conclusions: I. Some faxes are jackals. II. All faxes are jackals.
Ans : (D)

9. Statements: Some pen are fire-works. All fire-works are toys. Conclusions: I. Some toys are men. II. Some toys are fire-works.
Ans : (E)

10. Statements: All herons are parrots. No parrot is swan. Conclusions: I. No heron is swan. II. Some swans are herons.
Ans : (A)