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Solutions for the questions given in CAT2004 Bulletin

Section I

Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:

Passage I 922, Passage II 812,
Passage III 825, Passage IV 836,
Passage V 787

1. The passage says that power distribution between the
Union and State is real. Refer to last line of para 2 and
then para 3. Choice (4)

2. The passage discusses the PRIs not having adequate
power. Refer to last para. Choice (3)

3. The sentence that is quoted says that the PRIs have
become agencies for implementing schemes drawn up
in the state capital which weakens their ability to make
plans themselves. Choice (1)

4. The dilemma mentioned in the passage is that
federalism which enabled states to wrest power from
the Center, has not ensured that PRIs get their share of
power. Choice (2)

5. The passage says that distribution of power between
the Union and State is assured but the same has not
been achieved in the case of Panchayati Raj. Refer to
last line of para 3. Choice (3)

6. Para 1 line 3 rules out choice 4. Choice (4)

7. Last para line 5-7 support choice 2. Choice (2)

8. Para 4 line 4. Choice (4)

9. Para 1, line 4 and 5. Choice (1)

10. The last but one sentence of para 5 supports choice 3.
Choice 4 though right does not capture the challenge.
Choice (3)

11. The statement given as choice 4 is incorrect, since
'straddlers' refer to people from 'blue collar'
backgrounds doing 'white collar jobs'. Choice (4)

12. Last para supports choice 2. Choice (2)

13. Para 3 explains why 'straddlers . get lost'. Alien
values is the reason. Choice (1)

14. The given sentence says the author's father was not
interested in Thucydides (it was beyond his intellectual
capacity) and he was not interested in what his father
was doing. As such it reflects evolving social
transformation. Choice 2 seems right but nothing in the
passage reflects arrogance and hence is inadmissible.
Choice (3)

15. The passage does not mention political ideologies.
Choice (4)
16. The passage focuses on the secularization of education
in the 12
th
century. Choice (1)

17. The given quotation clearly implies that Christians
educate their sons for material gain. Choice (2)

18. Para 4, first line. Choice (4)

19. Lines 6 to 9 of the passage. Choice (1)

20. Para 4 last line. Choice (2)

21. Para 1 supports choice 4. Choice (4)

22. Para 4 talks about increasing of airplanes size - line 2,
3, 5, 7. Choice (2)

23. Para 2 line 5. Choice (1)

24. Para 3 lines 5 - 7 supports choice 3. Choice (3)

25. Para 5 gives two reasons, one of which is choice 3.
Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 26 to 30:

26. The word is incorrectly used in option 3. The correct
usage is help himself to which conveys the idea serve
oneself. But in the sentence it is given as help himself
with. Hence incorrect. Choice (3)

27. Option (4) is the answer because it says doesnt listen
to a reason. It must be doesnt listen to reason. As
given in the option a reason means only one reason
which is inappropriate. Choice (4)

28. The word is incorrectly used in option 1. As given in the
sentence on the paper is not correct. It must be on
paper. Choice (1)

29. Option (2) is the answer. The word is inappropriately
used in it. The correct form is a profitable business.
Choice (2)

30. Option (1) says customers have to service themsel ves
at this canteen which is incorrect. It must be
customers have to serve. Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 31 to 38:

31. We are talking about a book that must be read - by
whom? Those facing important .. only 'facing' can fit
in the second blank. Choice (4)

32. Since the sentence says nerves that once
controlled their muscles - only 'damaged' can fit in the
second blank. Choice (2)

33. Only 'unlimited' choices and 'minimal' constraints fit.
Choice (3)

34. The sentence says punctuation should perform its
function without the reader noticing it. Hence when it
effaces (make itself inconspicuous) it is because it
counts (is relevant). Choice 1 is inadmissible because
'obtrudes itself' is incorrect usage. Choice (4)
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35. A looser fiscal policy will stimulate demand. Choice (3)

36. The words 'travel abroad' suggests explore the world.
Choice (1)

37. The words in both the blanks should have similar
meaning. Hence 'unimportant' and 'trivial'. Choice (4)

38. The two words must reflect how she feels about men.
Only 'indifference' and 'contempt' are admissible in the
context of the sentence. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 39 to 46:

39. The words "separation wall" in 'B' make it a better
opening sentence. 'A' follows it because the words "The
wall" convey that it expands the idea expressed in B.
Hence further 'DC' follow because 'It' in both the
statements refer to the wall. Finally 'E' concludes the
whole paragraph. Choice (2)

40. The statements A and C cannot open the paragraph. 'E'
is the most appropriate statement to open the
paragraph because it launches the topic. It says that
most of the people outside Australia do not realize how
close the Japanese got. They in 'D' refers to "the
Japanese". Further 'C' follows. I.e. DC go together.
Choice (1)

41. From the choice A is the most appropriate statement to
open the paragraph. The key word is "third wave" which
is followed by E. The words "the first" in E refer to "the
wave" discussed in A. This is followed by 'D'. In 'D' we
find a reference to 'the media barons' - which is an
extension of the idea expressed in E. Further BC follow.
Choice (4)

42. From the given choices we find that 'E' is a better
statement to open the paragraph which should be
followed by C. In choices 3 and 4 "EC" go together. The
word "meanwhile" relates 'B' to 'C' indicating that
families were struggling while Washington responded
with enthusiam. D gives evidence for 'B' and 'A'
concludes the paragraph. Choice (4)

43. Statement D is an appropriate opening sentence
because it launches the topic symbolic power. All the
other statements except B tell us what is being
symbolized. Statement B concludes the paragraph,
which says And to everybody. fox hunting
symbolises the governments weakness. Choice (1)

44. E opens the paragraph as it launches the topic
Royal love affairs. It says that they were conducted on
correspondence method. The idea expressed in E
finds a continuation in CD i.e. statements C and D
tell us how they were conducted on the correspondence
method. 'A' mentions a specific case of such an affair.
B tells us about the "regrettable hitch" discussed in A.
Choice (3)

45. Statement C opens the paragraph. It says that great
friendships can only be compared with .. ham and
eggs. It is followed by E. Partnership of these
wholesome and palatable foodshifts extend the idea
expressed in C. CE go together followed by D, which
gives the reason for the mutual magnetism discussed
in E. Further BA follow. Choice (2)

46. B is the best statement to open the paragraph. The
words home of Romanticism find a continuation in
statement D which speaks about The first foreign
package in 1855 Further the dates 1930s and
1940s and the words Events intervened tell that A
should follow D. The words since then in E tell that it
should follow A. C concludes the paragraph.
Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 47 to 50:

47. Choices 2, 3, 4 do not capture the essence of the text
appropriately. In statement 'B' the words are repeated,
hence not precise. Statement 'C' is verbose. Statement
'D' does not express the whole idea. Hence statement
'A' i.e. choice 1 is the most appropriate choice.
Choice (1)

48. The first line in the given text is about physical and
mental inertia. The subsequent statements tell us about
tragedies. Statement 'D' captures the ideas expressed
in the text precisely. The other statements omit ideas
expressed in the main statement. Choice (4)

49. The statements A, C and D are specific to buying a van;
but the main statement is more general. It is about
choosing an alternative in general. Statement 'B'
captures the idea precisely. Choice (2)

50. The words in 'A' are repeated, hence it does not
express the idea precisely. The idea expressed in 'C'
does not match with the topic discussed in the text.
Statement 'D' says "make the service level flexible"
whereas the passage is about service level
improvement. 'B' is the most appropriate choice.
Choice (2)

Section II

Solutions for questions 51 to 55:

51. Let ... ..........
7
25
7
16
7
9
7
4
1 s
4 3 2
+ + + + + = - (1)
..........
7
16
7
9
7
4
7
1
7
s
4 3 2
+ + + + = - (2)
Subtract (2) from (1)
........
7
9
7
7
7
5
7
3
1
7
s 6
4 3 2
+ + + + + = - (3)
.........
7
7
7
5
7
3
7
1
49
s 6
4 3 2
+ + + + = - (4)
Subtract (4) from (3)

|
|
.
|

\
|
+ + + + = . ..........
7
1
7
1
7
1
2 1
49
s 36
3 2
3
4
7
6
7
2
1
7
1
1
7
1
x 2
1 = + =

+ =

3
4
49
s 36
=

27
49
36
49
x
3
4
s = = Choice (3)

52. Each of the numbers from 1 to 96 can be classified into
6 groups of the forms (6k), (6k + 1), (6k + 2), (6k + 3),
(6k + 4) and (6k + 5). Each group has 16 numbers.
When n = 6k, n is a multiple of 6.
When n = 6k + 1, none of them is a multiple of 6.
When n = 6k + 2, (n + 4)is a multiple of 6
When n = 6k + 3, (n + 3) is a multiple of 6
When n = 6k + 4, (n + 2) is a multiple of 6
When n = 6k + 5, (n + 1) is a multiple of 6
one of n, (n + 1), (n + 2), (n + 3) and (n + 4) will be a
multiple of 6 for 96 16 = 80 numbers. Choice (1)
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53. Since ABCDEF is a
regular hexagon, we join
the center O with A, C
and E vertices. Clearly in
quadrilateral AFEO;
AAFE = AAOE
Similarly AABC = AAOC
Similarly ACDE = ACOE
AACE = 1/2 (Hexagon)
Choice (2)
Alternate method:
Given a regular hexagon ABCDEF with a as its side.
Each interior angle of a regular
hexagon is 120.
Triangle ACE is an
equilateral triangle
with 3 a as each side.

ABCDEF the of Area
ACE triangle of Area


( )
( )
2
1
3 6
3 3
a x
2
3 3
3 a
4
3
2
2
= = = Choice (2)

54. x
3
+ 3x
2
+ 4x + 5 = 0 and x
3
+ 2x
2
+ 7x + 3 = 0 are the
given equations.
on substraction of the above two equations, we get
x
2
3x + 2 = 0
(x 2) (x 1) = 0
x = 2 or x = 1 (1)
If x is the common root, then it has to be either 2 or 1.
However, when '2' is substituted for x, neither of the
equation is satisfied
Similar is the case with the value x = 1
Hence, neither 2 nor 1 is a root of the given equation.
there are no common roots. Choice (1)

55. Given ,
n
1
3 x
n
1
1
|
|
.
|

\
|
+ s <
|
|
.
|

\
|
where n is a positive integer
when n = 1
4 x 0 s <
when n is very large (tends to infinity),
as 0
n
1
, n
The relation that accommodated all the ranges of x
for different positive integral values of n = 0 < x s 4.
Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 56 to 58:

56. Consider g
2
= g * g = h
g
3
= g
2
* g = h * g = f
g
4
= g
3
* g = f * g = e
The smallest positive integral value of n such that
g
n
= e is 4. Choice (1)

57. | | | | } n f { * f f } ) f * f ( f { * f f =
| | | | e * f f } e { * f f = =
h f f = = Choice (4)

58. a
10
= a (as a * a = a)
f
10
= f
4
x f
4
x f
2
(as f
2
= h, f
4
= e and e
2
= e)
= e x e x h
= e x h = h
g
a
= g
4
x g
4
x g (as g
4
= e and e * e = e and e * g = g)
= e x e x g = e x g = g
e
8
= e (as e
2
= e)
{a
10
* (f
10
g
9
) } e
8

= {a * (h g) } e = {a * f} e
= a e = e Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 59 and 60:

59.




There are 5 vowels, a, e, i, o, u. Hence, 1
st
letter can be
any of the 5 vowels; hence 5 different methods ---- (1)
The second letter can be any of the m, n or p. But each
his its own rule for the third letter. Hence, each case to
be considered separately.





In the above case, the third letter is one of the
remaining 4 vowels.
Hence there are 5 x 4 = 20 ways of forming such a
string. ---------- (2)
If the second letter is n, the third is either e or u, i.e. 2
different ways.
Hence, total of 5 x 2 ways = 10 ways -------- (3)
When 2
nd
position is filled by P, the third letter is same
as the first letter. As the 1
st
letter is already selected,
the third can be filled only one way. Hence, there are
5 x 1 = 5 ways ------- (4)
From (2), (3) and (4),
Total number of strings that can be formed
= 20 + 10 + 5 = 35 Choice (4)

60. The third letter is find is e.
Once again considering each case of the second
position being filled by m, n or p we have:





The vowel is 3
rd
position shall be different form vowel in
first position i.e. vowel for 1
st
position can be selected
out of the vowels a, i, o, u only
Hence 4 different ways ------- (1)
When 2
nd
possible is filled by x,





n, occupying 2
nd
position, does not create any
restriction on the vowel is position 1. Hence, 1
st
position
can be occupied by any of the 5 vowels.
Hence, 5 different ways ------- (2)
When 2
nd
position is filled by p,






In this case, letters in 3
rd
position out 1
st
position shall
be the same.
Hence, 1
st
position shall be filled by e.
i.e. only one way of filling ------- (3)
Total number of possible strings
= 4 + 5 + 1 = 10 Choice (3)

A B
C
D
E
F
30
30
30
30
30
30
60
60
60
A
B
C
D
E
F
O
1
st
letter 2
nd
letter 3
rd
letter
1
vowel

m

e

m
1
st

position
2
nd
position 3
rd
position

e

n

3
rd
2
nd
1
st


e

p

3
rd
2
nd
1
st

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Solutions for questions 61 to 65:

61. 4 power any number when divided by 6, the remainder
is always 4.
Alternate method:
Number Divider Remainder
4
1
6 4
4
2
6 4
4
3
6 4 ......... etc
i.e, whatever is the power of 4, when divided by 6, the
remainder is 4. Choice (4)

62. 5x + 19y = 64 -------- (1)
when y = 4, x = 28 choice (1) is false.
When y = 104; x = 408 choice (2) is false.
for values of x between 250 and 300, we have solutions as
from (1) x + 3y +
5
y 4
= 12 +
5
4


( )
k
5
1 y 4
=

(constant) y = 5k + 1 -------- (2)


Substituting this in (1) x = 9 19k -------- (3)
From (2) and (3) for x between 250 and 300 for k = 14,
we have a solution.
And there can be more. Hence choice (3) is true.
Similarly we see that when 59 < y < 56 there is no
solution. Choice (3)

63. ) 5 ( log 1 N log 3 M log
3
1
008 . 0 3 3
+ = +
log3
|
|
|
.
|

\
|
3
1
M
+ log3(N
3
) = 1 +
|
|
.
|

\
|
1000
8
log (5)
log3
|
|
|
.
|

\
|
3
3
1
N M = 1 + ) 2 / 10 ( log
3
10
2
|
|
.
|

\
|

log3
|
|
.
|

\
|
3
3
1
N M = 1 +
|
|
.
|

\
|

3
1
=
3
2

3
2/3
=
3
1
M N
3
, cubing both sides, 3
2
= MN
9

Choice (2)

64. 8 paise can be had only by having 4 numbers of 2 paise
coin.
70 paise can be had by having one of 50 paise coins, and
two of 10 paise coin.
i.e., 78 = [2p x (4)] + [10p x (2)] + [(50p) x (1)]
i.e., number of coins = 4 + 2 + 1 = 7 . (1)
9 paise can be had by having a combination of
(2 paise x 2) + (5 paise x 1) or
(2 paise x 2) + (25 paise x 1)
The minimum number is formed as
69 = (2 paise x 2) + (5 paise x 1) + (10 paise x 1) +
(50 paise x 1)
number of coins = 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 5 . (2)
To get 101 paise, the combination is:
101 = (2 paise x 3) + (25 paise x 1) + (10 paise x 2) +
(50 paise x 1)
number of coins = 3 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 7 .. (3)
Total number of coins required is (1) x (2) + (3)
i.e., 7 + 5 + 7 = 19. Choice (1)

65. Let r be the radius of the circle,
a be the side of the triangle and
x be the side of a square
It is given that 2tr = 3a = 4x
r : a : x =
4
1
:
3
1
:
2
1
t

= 6 : 4t : 3t .. (1)
Areas of the three figures are c, t and s respectively.
c : t : s = (tr) :
|
|
.
|

\
|
a
4
3
: (x).. (2)
From (1) and (2)
c : t : s = | | | | ) 3 ( : ) 4 (
4
3
: ) 6 ( t
(
(

t t
= 36t : 4 3 t : 9t
= 36 : 4 3 t : 9t
9t = 9 x
7
2
28
7
198
7
22
= =
and 4 t 3 = 4 x 22/7 x 1.732 22
Hence, 36 > 9t > 4 3 t
c > s > t. Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 66 to 68:

66. MDCCLXXXVII
= (1000) + (500) + (100) + (100) + (50) + (10) + (10) +
(10) + (5) + 1 + 1 = 1787 Choice (2)

67. MCMXCIX
= 1000 + (1000 100) + (100 10) + (10 1)
= 1999 Choice (1)

68. 1995 = MCMXCV or MVM Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 69 to 82:

69. There are four zones with 3 towns in each zone.
The number of ways of selecting 2 town in a certain
zone =
3
C2 = 3
The number of intra zone connections in a certain
zone = 3 x 3 = 9
The total number of inter-zone connections in a
certain zone = 4 x 9 = 36
The number of ways of selecting two zones =
4
C2 = 6
The number of ways of selection two towns from 2
zones (one form each zone) = 3 x 3 = 9
The total number of inter-zone connections
= 6 x 9 x 1 = 54
The total number of direct connections = 36 + 54 = 90
Choice (2)

70. In triangle ACB, AC is parallel ot PQ.
Hence,
QB
CQ
PB
AP
= ---------- (1)
Given that
3
4
PB
AP
= ---------- (2)
In triangle CPB, DQ is parallel to PC.
Hence
DB
PD
QB
CQ
= ---------- (2)
From (1), (2), (3)
3
4
DB
PD
= ---------- (3)
From (1) and (2) AP = 4x and PB = 3x ---------- (4)
From (3), PD = 4y and DB = 3y ---------- (5)
PB = PD + DB = 4y + 3y = 7y
But PB = 3x
Hence, 3x= 7y y = 3/7x
PD = 4y =
7
x 12
7
x 3
4 = ---------- (6)
Hence AP : PD = 4x :
7
x 12
= 7 : 3 Choice (3)
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B1
B2
C1
C
2

D1
D2
A1
A2
71. Let V be the speed of the car.
Let PQ be the tower.
Let 45and 60be the angle of
elevation at the top of the tower
at A and B.
Given AB =
6
V
60
V 10
=
= 45 tan
AQ
PQ

BQ AB AQ PQ + = =
tan60=
BQ
AB
1
BQ
BQ AB
BQ
PQ
+ =
+
=
( ) ( ) 1 3
12
V
1 3
2
AB
1 3
AB
BQ + = + =

=
The time taken to reach the foot of the tower
=
12
1 3 +
hours = ( ) 1 3 5 + minutes. Choice (1)

72. If ZCAD = x, then ZCDB = 2x(since AD = DC)
As CD = CB, ZCBD = ZCDB = 2x
Hence, ZDCB of triangle DCB, is 180 4x
ACE being a straight line,
ZACD + ZDCB = Z BCE = 180
x+ 180 4x+ 96= 180 x= 32
Required angle, ZDBC = 2x= 64 Choice (3)

73. Let P = {1, 2, 3, 4} and a, b are two numbers from P.
Given ax
2
+ bx + 1 = 0 - (1)
If (1) has real roots, then (b
2
4a) must be non-
negative. i.e. b
2
4a > 0
The pairs for (b, a) are (4, 4), (4, 3), (4, 2), (4, 1), (3, 1),
(3, 2) and (2, 1).
For each of the above pairs a quadratic equation can
be formed.
7 equations can be formed. Choice (2)

74. x log x log
10 10
= 2logx10
By back substitution, the second option x = 1/100,
satisfies the given equation. Choice (2)

75. The least two digit number of the form 71x + 3 is 10 and
the largest is 94. The number taken in ascending (or
descending) order form an A.P. with a common
difference of 7.
Number of terms = 13 1
7
84
1
7
10 94
= + = +


Their sum = 676 13 x 52 13 x
2
94 10
= =
+
Choice (2)

76. To the triangle ACT, ZBAC is external angle.
Hence, ZBAC = ZACT + ZATC
= 50+ 30= 80 -------- (1)
CT is tangent, CA is chord,
Hence ZACT = angle in alternate segment
= ZCBA = 50 -------- (2)
From (1) and (2),
In triangle BCA, ZBCA
= 180 (50+ 80) = 50 -------- (3)
ZBOA = angle at the center
= 2 ZBCA = 2 x 50= 100 Choice (1)

77. Let
|
|
.
|

\
|
+ +
|
|
.
|

\
|
+
|
|
.
|

\
|
+
1 n
n
2
3 2
n
m
log .......
n
m
log
n
m
log m log
=
|
|
.
|

\
|
1 n
n
2
3
1
2
0
1
n
m
,........,
n
m
,
n
m
,
n
m
log =
|
|
.
|

\
|
+ + + +
+ + + +
1 n ...... 2 1 0
n ...... 3 2 1
n
m
log

(
(
(
(

= =

+
2
) 1 n ( n
2
) 1 n ( n
n
m
log n log )) 1 n ( ( m log ) n (

2
n
) 1 n (
) 1 n (
n
m
log
(
(

=

+
Choice (4)

78.








A1B1C1D1 is the square S1, with side a.
A2B2C2D2 is the square S2 (A2, B2, C2, D2 are mid point)
D2A2 is half of D1B1 and D1B1 = 2 S1P1 = 2 a.
i.e. D2A2 = 2
2
1
a =
2
a
(1)
Area of S
1
= a
2
; Area of S
2
=
2
a
2
,
Area of S3 =
4
a
2
1
2
a
2
2
=
|
|
.
|

\
|
, etc.
Hence, A1 + A2 + A3 + ......= a
2
+ + +
4
a
2
a
2 2

= a
2
|
|
|
|
.
|

\
|

=
|
|
.
|

\
|
+ + +
2
1
1
1
a
4
1
2
1
1
2
= 2a
2
(2)
Perimeter P1 = 4a
Perimeter P2 =
2
a 4

Perimeter P3 =
2
a 4
2
1
2
a 4
= , etc
Hence, P1 + P2 + P3 + ----------
= 4a + + +
2
a 4
2
a 4

= 4a
|
|
.
|

\
|
+ + +
2
1
2
1
1
= 4a
(
(
(
(

=
2
1
1
1
=
1 2
2 a 4

(3)
From (3) and (2)
+ + +
+ + +
3 2 1
3 2 1
A A A
P P P
=
2
a 2
1 2
2 a 4
|
|
.
|

\
|


=
( )
a
) 2 2 ( 2
a
) 1 2 ( 2 2
a 2
1
1 2
2 a 4
2
+
=
+
=


Choice (3)
45 60
A B Q
P
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79. Given x, y, z are positive real numbers and
y x = z y
x, y and z are in A.P. their sum = 3y
Let d be the common difference.
Also, given xyz = 4
Since we require the minimum value of y, x + y + z must
be minimum.
This happens when x = y = z
xyz = y
3
= 4 y = 4
1/3
= 2
2/3
Choice (2)

80. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
The digits that can create confusion are 0, 1, 6, 8, 9.
The codes involving digit zero won't create any
confusion because the first digit of the code cannot be
zero.
The confusion creating codes are formed from the
digits 1, 6, 8, 9.
The number of two digit codes that can formed from the
above digits is 4P2 = 4 x 3 = 12.
However, out of these two codes do not create
confusion 69 and 96. Therefore number of codes which
create confusion = 10
The total number of valid codes = 9 x 9 = 81
The codes that do not create confusion = 81 10 = 71.
Choice (3)

81. The area of the maximum circle that can be cut from a
square of area A is tA/4.
Let the areas of the n squares formed from the original
square be
A1 + A2 + A3 + A4 + A5 + ..+ An = A ------- (1)
The sum of the areas of the maximum circles that can
be cut from those n square
=
n 3 2 1
A
4
........ A
4
A
4
A
4
t
+ +
t
+
t
+
t

= ( ) A
4
A ....... A A A
4
n 3 2 1
t
= + + + +
t

Since the area of the maximum circle that can be cut
out from the original square is equal to the sum of the
areas of the maximum circles hat can be cut out from
each of the individual squares, the scrap left in each
case must be equal.
Their ratio is 1 : 1. Choice (1)

82. Let AD = BC = x
and AB = CD = y
Given ZADE = ZODC
triangles AED and
ODX are similar triangles
[because ZEAD = ZDXO
and ZEDA = ZOAX]
y
x
2 / y
2 / x
DX
OX
AD
AE
= = =
Since the ratio of circle is t : 3 ; let the radius of the
circle be 1; diameter = 2.
Area of rectangle = 3 xy = 3 . (1)
and x + y = 2 = 4 (2)
(2) divided by (1), we get
3
4
xy
y x
=
+

3
4
x
y
y
x
= + (let x/y = k)
k =
3
4
k
1
=
k 3 + 4k + 3 = 0 k = 3 or
3
1

3
1
y
x
= Choice (1)
Solutions for questions 83 to 85:

83.








Consider the trapezium B2A2A1B1,
B2B1 = A2A1 + 2(B2A2 cos30)
b = a +
2
3
r 2
= a + r 3
3 3 a b 3 r
3
a
3
b
= = (1)
but a = 6r b = 6r + 3 3 (2)
also in trapezium C2A2A1C1
c2c1 = A2A1 +

30 tan
r 2
3 r 2
3
a
3
C
=
c a = 6 r 3 (3)
but a = 6r c = 6r + 6 3 r (4)
From (2) and (4) c b = r 3 3 - (5)
(1) and (5) give
b a = c b = r 3 3 Choice (1)

84. a = 6r
r 3 3 r 6 b + =
r 3 6 r 6 c + =
Time taken by A to finish
15
r 2
30
r 2
20
r 2
+ + =

10
r 3
t =
Distance traversed by B in
t = | | 20 3 10
10
r 3
+ | | r 6 r 3 3 2 3 r 3 + = + =
which is = b
B finishes a full circle and distance travelled by C
to cover C1C2 and C2C3, C would take say t1

( )
( )
( )
10
r 3
1 3 40
3 x 3 1 r 4
1 3
3
40
r 3 4 r 4
t
1
=
+
+
=
+
+
=
C will be at C3, while B will be at B1 Choice (3)

85. Since 4
2
: v
2
: w
2
= Area A : Area B : Area C
u : v : w = A1A2 : B1B2 : C1C2
Since speeds are in ratio of distances the time taken
will be same.
C and A would be at C3 and A3 respectively when B
reaches B3. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 86 to 88:

86. The vertical spacing between two consecutive terms will
be
turns of . no
cylinder of height
=
n
h
Choice (1)
E
A
D
X C
B
O
C3
B3
A3
A2 A1
B1
B2
C2 C1
r
2r
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C
A
B
D
E
-
-
2
6 4
2
3
2
5
Radio = 12 A/C = 15
Power windows = 1
= 25
87. Opening up the four vertical sides of the cube, of side n,





AB = 17 n n ) n 4 (
2 2
= + Choice (2)

88. Opening up the cylinder we get a length of 17 n of
string reaches a height h after going around the
cylinder's circumference n times.
Cylinder's circumference = 2 t r = 4 units







2 2 2
) h ( ) un ( ) 17 ( n + =
h n = 0 h = n Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 89 to 100:

89. x is a prime number, hence it can be either even or odd.
y is a composite number, hence it can be either even or
odd.
Examples of above can be tabulated as

Number EVEN ODD
Prime (x) 2 3, 5, 7 etc.
Composite (y) 12, 14, 18 15, 21 etc.

Each option needs to be considered, separately.
Option 1: y x can be even, when both are even.
Hence, statement is not valid.
Option 2: xy : is even, when either of them or both of
them are even. Hence, statement is not valid.
Option 3:
x
y x +
: Let x = 3 and y = 15
, 6
3
18
x
y x
= =
+
i.e. even.
Hence, statement is not valid. Choice (4)

90. The given information can be represented in the diagram
as follows.










Number of cars those do not have none of these three
options = 25 (4 + 6 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 1 + 5)
25 23 = 2
2 cars do not have none of the three options.
Choice (4)

91. n + 2 n (n + 4) + 16 = n + 2n n + 8 n + 16
= ) 2 n ( 8 ) 2 n ( n n + + + = ) 2 n ( ) 8 n n ( + +
= ( )
3 3
2 ) n ( ) 2 n ( + + = ) 4 n 2 n ( ) 2 n ( + +
n + 4 n + 4 = ) 2 n ( +
x =
4 n 4 n
16 ) 4 n ( n 2 n
+ +
+ + +

= 4 n 2 n
) 2 n (
) 4 n 2 n ( ) 2 n (
+ =
+
+ +

When n = 36
x = 36 2 36 + 4 = 40 12 = 28
when x = 72
x = 72 2 72 + 4 = 76 12 2 (12 2 ~ 17)
= 76 17 ~ 59.
Since the value of x is 28, when n = 36; the range should
include 28. Choice 4 does not have the equal sign for 28
[i.e. 28 < x < 60]. Hence the only other choices will
include this value also in choice 3. Choice (3)

92. 13x + 1 < 2Z and Z + 3 = 5y
2
13x + 1 < 2(5y
2
3)
13x + 7 < 10y
2
(1)
consider x = 0.5 and y = 2 y = 2, i.e. x < y then we get
13.5 < 40 also consider x = 5 and y = 3, i.e x > y then
we get 72 < 90
x < y or x > y Choice (4)

93. Given n is a composite number which is not a perfect
square.
Any composite number which is not a perfect square
has atleast one factor less n and more n, such that
their product is n.
Both the statements A and B are true. Choice (4)

94. |b| > 1 b s 1 or b > 1
Similarly x = |a| b
If b s 1 then x is +ve xb is ve
If b > 1 then x is ve xb is ve
Now consider (a xb)
Since b is > 1 or s 1; the magnitude of a will necessarily
be lesser than that of xb.
Now a xb will always be +ve as xb is ve and xb is
+ve; and magnitude of xb is greater than that of a.
Hence a xb > 0. Choice (2)

95. Given that DE is parallel to AC
Hence,
2
2
AC
DE
BAC
BDE
=
A
A
(1)
DE = AC 35% of AC = 0.65 AC
65 . 0
AC
DE
= (2)
From (1) and (2),

2
AC
DE
BAC
BDE
|
|
.
|

\
|
=
A
A

( )
2
65 . 0 = = 0.4225
But, it is given that ABAC = 34 sq.inch.
ABDE = 0.4225 34 = 14.365 sq.inch. Choice (4)

96. Let the number of huts at the beginning of 2001 be x.
The number of huts at the beginning of each year, the
number destroyed and the number rebuilt are tabulated
below for the 3 years.

2001 2002 2003 2004
Beginning x
2
x 3

4
x 9

8
x 27

Destroyed
2
x

4
x 3

8
x 9
) ected (exp
16
x 27

Rebuilt x
2
x 3

4
x 9



B
A n n
n n
n
h = ?
17 n
un
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We consider the options
1. . x
16
x 27
> choice (1) is false.
2.
16
x 27
16
x 26
8
x 13
8
x 9
2
x
< = = +
choice (2) is false.

3.
16
x 27
16
x 30
8
x 15
8
x 9
4
x 3
> = = +
choice (3) is true.
4.
16
x 27
16
x 40
2
x 5
2
x 3
x > = = +
choice (4) is false. Choice (3)

97. a = 6, b = 12, c
a : b : c =
12
1
:
6
1
:
1
1
= 12 : 2 : 1 (1)
It is also given,
2b = 9d = 12 e
b : d : e =
12
1
:
9
1
:
2
1
= 18 : 4 : 3 (2)
From (1) and (2),
a : b : c : d : e = 108 : 18 : 9 : 4 : 3 (3)
a = 108k; b = 18; c = 9k; d = 4k and e = 3k
Evaluating the given options:
option 1 is :
|
|
.
|

\
|
e
b
,
27
a
= (4k, 6)
option 2 is :
|
|
.
|

\
|
e
c
,
36
a
= (3k, 3)
option 3 is :
|
|
.
|

\
|
18
bd
,
12
a
= (9k, 4k
2
)
option 4 is :
|
|
.
|

\
|
d
c
,
6
a
=
|
|
.
|

\
|
4
9
, k 18
4
th
option contains ,
4
9
which is not an integer
Choice (4)

98. The set of the prime numbers 3, 5, 7 is the only set
that satisfies the given condition. Choice (1)

99.







1
Volume of the cuboid formed is (12 2x) (12 2x)x.
By substituting the value of x from the choices, we get
the maximum volume of the cuboid formed when x = 2.
Choice (4)

100.









Given data is reflected in the diagram
Ram walks for 4 hours, hence, AB = 4 3 = 12 km
Similarly, AC = 4 2 = 8 km
Return path of Ram
= BC + CA = (x + 8) km, where BC = x km.
Return path of Shyam = CB + BA = (x + 12) km
Time interval between Ram's and Shyam's return to
point A
= . hrs
6
20 x
6
16 x 2 36 x 3
3
8 x
2
12 x +
=
+
=
+

+
(1)
In triangle ABC, ZA = 120, AB = 12 units, AC = 8 units.
Hence, BC2 = AB
2
+ AC
2
2(AB) (AC) cos120
(cosine property of triangle)
BC
2
= 144 + 64 2(12)(8) (cos60)= 208 + 96 = 304
BC = x = 304 = 19 4 9 16 = (2)
From (1) and (2), the time interval
= . hrs
3
10 19 2
6
20 19 4
6
20 x +
=
+
=
+
Choice (2)

Section III

Solutions for questions 101 to 103:

101. To find which is maximum.
R
produced Tea
Tea of Export
=
1996: R =
561
189
~ 0.337 1997: R =
587
209
~ 0.35
1998: R =
645
215
= 0.33 1999: R =
660
220
= 0.33
R for 1996, 1998 and 1999 is low as compared to that
for 1997. Choice (2)

102. Availability = Production Export.
Per capita availability =
population Total
Export oduct Pr

Total Population =
ty availabili capita Per
Export oduction Pr

(TP)1995 =
487
214
487
207 421
=

< 0.5
(TP)1996 =
464
372
464
189 561
=

> 0.5
(TP)1997 =
510
378
510
209 587
=

> 0.5
(TP)1998 =
566
440
566
220 660
=

> 0.5 Choice (1)



103. Tea productivity =
Area
tea of oduction Pr

By observation production is increasing and area is
decreasing, Tea productivity is maximum for year
1999. (Calculation is not involved). Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 104 to 107:

104. Number of countries with birth rate < 34 (as birth rate
of Philippines = 34) is 32.
Number of countries with birth rate = 34 equals 4
(Including Philippines)
Amongst these 4 countries, there are 3 countries with
equal death rate (=10). Those 3 countries are
Thailand, Philippines and Colombia.
Which means all these 3 countries get the same
rank 33. Choice (2)

x x
x
x
x x
12 inches
12 2x
12 2x
A
B
C
x km
120
R2
R1
3 kmph
Ram

2 kmph
Shyam

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105. Spain has a birth rate of 18 and death rate of 8.
Other countries with birth rate of 18 and death
rate > 8 = 2 ------- (i)
Taiwan has a birth rate of 26 and death rate of 5.
Other countries with birth rate of 26 and death
rate < 5 = 0 ------- (ii)
Countries with birth rate more than 18 and less than
26 = 7 ------- (iii)
Countries ranking below Spain and above Taiwan
= (i) + (ii) + (iii) = 9. Choice (1)

106. Philippines ranks 33 (from 125). There are 3 countries
at rank 33. Turkey (birth rate 34, death rate 12) ranks
36. Among countries with birth rate 36, Venezuela has
the lowest death rate and hence ranks 37
th
. Choice (4)

107. Countries in Asia must be ranked above at least
Upper Volta in Africa. So Afghanistan is excluded.
Countries must also be ranked below Ecuador. So
countries from Japan to Burma are also excluded.
Only 8 countries (from Iran to Iraq in the list) meet the
requirement. Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 108 to 111:

108. Operating Profit =
|
|
.
|

\
|
100
income Operating x y ofitabilit Pr

2002-03:
OP for A =
|
|
.
|

\
|
190 x
100
5 . 7
~ 15.(shown on third graph)
OP for B =
|
|
.
|

\
|
225 x
100
5 . 2
~ 5.6 (not shown on 3
rd
graph)
OP for C =
|
|
.
|

\
|
200 x
100
15
~ 30. (shown on 3
rd
graph)
OP for D =
|
|
.
|

\
|
280 x
100
1
~ 2.8 (not shown on 3
rd
graph)
OP of E in 2002-03 is 17.5% x 200 = 35 (shown on 3
rd

graph)
OP of F in 2002-03 is 8% x 210 = 16.8 (shown on 3
rd

graph)
As per chart 3 the highest point is E; the second highest
is C; the third highest is F and least is A.
The two companies excluded from graph 3 are B and D.
2001-02:
Approximate average profit.
OP for B =
|
|
.
|

\
|
240 x
100
4
= 9.6
OP for D =
|
|
.
|

\
|
250 x
100
0 . 2
~ 5
Average =
2
6 . 14
= 7.3 crore. Choice (1)

109. As from the explanation of the above question we get that
E has the highest operating profit in 2002-03. Choice (3)

110. Analysing each statement
1. company with 3
rd
lowest profitability (2001-02) is A
Now, company showing lowest operating income
(2002-03) = A.
Choice I is TRUE
2. Operating income (combined for both years) is
highest for D (by observation)
Approximate operating profit for D (2002-03)
=
|
|
.
|

\
|
275 x
100
20 . 1
= 2.75
From 3
rd
graph, operating profit of 4 companies are
above 15. These 4 companies are A, C, E, F.
Now, we have to compare operating profit for D
and that of B.
(OP)B =
|
|
.
|

\
|
225 x
100
5 . 2
> (OP)D
So, D shows the lowest operating profit.
Choice II is true.
3. Companies with higher operating income is 2001-02
than in 2002-03 is just one which is B. B shows higher
profitability is 2002-03 than in 2001-02.
Choice III is true.
4. Comparies with profitability between 10% and 20%
(2001-02) = A, C, E, F
Operating income of F is more than 200 crore. Choice
IV is not true.
Hence choice IV is the required answer. Choice (4)

111. Companies whose profitability is greater than 10% in
F% 2002-03 is C and E.
Operating profit of C and E are 30 and 35 respectively
(from the third graph)
Average = 5 . 32
2
35 30
=
+
Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 112 to 114:

112. Time taken by FRG team
= 10.58 + 10.85 + 10.95 + 10.63
= 43.01
10.63 seconds is the time taken by Tomas (CZE) who
joins FRG team.
Time taken by USA team
= 10.78 + 10.75 + 10.94 + 10.36
= 42.83
FRG team takes extra time = 43.01 42.83 = 0.18
Choice (1)

113. Highest rank holders gets final score = 8905 (Frank)
Second Highest rank holder gets final score = 8897.
To get bronze, Daley has to score one more than that
scored by gney who scores 8880.
Daley: Scores 1 = 582
Score 3 = 3003
Score 2 = 8881 (3003 + 582)
= 8881 (3585) = 5296 Choice (2)

114. Score 2 High Jump, Pole vault, Long Jump
Score 2 (Michael Smith) = 5274 (7
th
rank)
Score 2
=
3 2 1
3 2 1
W W W
) Jump Long ( W ) Vault Pole ( W ) Jump High ( W
+ +
+ +

W1, W2, W3 are Weightages.




Scores of 6 competitors less than 5274
Score 2 HJ PV
Tomas 5169 1.91 4.7
Torsten 5234 2.10 5.1
Jurgen 5223 2.00 4.9
Siegfried 5250 2.05 4.8
Grigory 5196 2.08 4.9
Steve 5163 2.04 5.0

Michael Score 2 HJ PV
5274 1.97 4.9
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Choice 1 is
incorrect
Michael may or maynot have out jumped Tomas as
Michaels score in PV and HJ are higher than those of
Tomas.
Michael must have outjumped Torsten as his score in
PV and HJ are lower than that of Torsten and also
Michael scores higher than Torsten. By same
argument, Michael must have out jumped Siegfried,
Grigory and Steve as Michaels corresponding scores
is PV and HJ are lower than those of Grigory and
Steve.
So, these are at least 4 competitors whom Michael
Smith must have out jumped. Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 115 to 118:

115. During 1993-94
Cimestone = 20%
Poer = 25%
Wages = 15%
Total = 60%
The remaining 40% must have been the profing
cement.
During 2002-03 the price of Cinestone, Power and the
cost associated with wages went up by 5%, 8% and
5.3% respectively.
In 2002-03
Cost increase in Cinestone = 5% of 20% = 1%
Cost increase in Power = 8% of 25% = 2%
Cost increase in wages = 5.3% of 15% = 0.8%
Overall Cost Increase = 3.8%
Overall Increase in the price of cement = 4% (Index of
cement in 2002-03 is 104.0)
The profit percent must be
100
104
3.8) - (4 40

+
= 100
104
2 . 40

= 38.6 ~ 38.5% Choice (3)

116. During 1993-94
Power = 30%
Iron-Ore = 25%
Wages = 10%
Total = 65%
The remaining 35% must have been the profit of
steel.
During 2002-03 the cost of power, Iron-ore and wages
have increased by 8%, 6% and 5.3% respectively.
In 2002-03
cost increased in power = 8% of 30% = 2.4%
cost increased in Iron-ore = 6% of 25% = 1.5%
cost increased in wages = 5.3% of 10% = 0.5
Overall Price increase is 4.4%
Increase in price of stell is 5.5% from 1993-94 to
2002-03
Profit percentage of a steel manufacturer in 2002-03
= 35 + (5.5 4.43) = 36.1%
Profit percentage of a steel manufacturer in 2002-03
(36.1%) is less than the profit percentage of a cement
manufacturer in 2002-03(40.2%) Choice (2)

117. Power: experiences continuous price rise
Cement show a decline from 1994-95 to 1995-96
Wages show a decline from 98-99 to 99-2000
Limestone show a decline from 2000-01 to 01-02.
Choice (1)

118. Steel show a decline (2 times)
Limestone show a decline (2 times)
Timber show a decline (only once)
Wages show a decline (only once) Choice (4)


Solutions for questions 119 and 120:

119. 1
st
statement is incorrect as November rainfall is below
100 cm in location 7.
2
nd
statement is incorrect as September rainfall does
not exceed 50 cm in location 1.
3
rd
statement is correct (by observing the figure)
Choice (3)

120. 1
st
statement is incorrect as April rainfall exceeds
March rainfall in other locations (1, 2, 3, 4). Both
statements are incorrect as April rainfall is less than
200 cm in location 1, 2, 3 as well.
3
rd
statement is incorrect as November rainfall is lower
than March rainfall in locations 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
2
nd
statement is the only one that is correct (as peak
rainfall occurs in April in locations 6, 7) Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 121 to 123:

121. By observation Rice, Onion, Egg and Chillies have
shown increase from 1996 to 2002 whereas Edible oil
and Dal have shown decrease in their respective
prices. Required answer is 4 and 2. Choice (3)

122. There are 5 commodities viz. Rice, Dal, Egg, Chillies
and Onion, which have shown a decline for two or
more consecutive years. Choice (4)

123. In case of eggs and onions only does the price
increase immediately follow a price decline only once.
Here we can see that we need a V shaped curve only
once and therefore the answer. Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 124 to 126:

124. By observation from 1901 to 2001 the number of
states where females outnumber males are either five
or less than that. Out of these years from 1961 to
1971, there is sharp decrease of three from four states
in 1961.
From 1971 to 2001 (4 consecutive censuses), the
number remained unchanged at 1.
Also there are atleast four states that have females
more than males for all the census prior to 1971.
Statements given in choices (1), (2) and (4) are
correct. Choice (3)

125. As none of these choice is not given, best way to
solve this problem is from choices.
Also out of Punjab, HP, Kerala, Assam, J&K, Kerala
and HP have shown the highest increases from 1901
to 2001 of 86 and 54 respectively. Choice (2)

126. From given choices, by observation Bihar shows the
sharpest decrease of 140 whereas others Viz. Goa,
TN and Orissa have shown decreases of 130, 58 and
65 respectively. Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 127 to 130:

It is given that B and C are to the right of the corridor. Also, A
is to the left of the corridor and also Fs (it is given that Fs
office is further down the corridor than As, but on the same
side). Now, E and F sit on opposite sides but do not face each
other and E does not have a corner office. This means E sits
on the same side as B and C, in the center office. D, A and F sit
to the left of the corridor while B, C and E sit to the right.
From the above conclusions, we can have the following
sitting arrangement.

D A F

C E B
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127. Choice (3)

128. Choice (4)

129. Choice (1)

130. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 131 and 132:











131. Congress A C D E
On Thursday, political parties which cant take out
procession (as BD is not used) is BJP. BJPs
procession is possible on Friday.

Parties which pass through any of the streets (AB, BD,
DE) are Congress and SP.

So, Congress and SP cant take out the procession on
Friday. Since all political parties have to carry out
procession. Congress is left with option only on
Thursday. Choice (1)

132. Based on reasoning given in answer 123, Congress
and SP can take out processions on Thursday. BJPs
procession is possible only on Friday. Now SP moves
on the street CE on Thursday, so, CPM cannot move
on Thursday (as it moves along the street CE). Based
on elimination of choices, choice (4) is not true. i.e.
Congress and BSP can take out their procession on
same day. Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 133 to 136:

As per the given responses, we get the following
arrangement

Coming Leaving
Present in the
Lounge
JC - JC
SS and SM - JC, SS, SM
DG - JC, SS, SM, DG
- SM JC, SS, DG
- SS JC, DG
JP & VR - JC, DG, JP, VR
- JC, DG JP, VR
DG - JP, VR, DG
- VR JP, DG
PK - JP, DG, PK
- PK JP, DG
- JP, DG -

To reach to the above conclusions, we know that JC arrives
first in the lounge, followed by SS & SM. Then DG must
have followed them as SM met him before he left. Now SM
leaves after DG comes followed by SS. Now JP & VR enter
to find JC and DG sitting in the lounge. Now JC leaves with
DG, after meeting JP and VR. Now DG comes back on his
second visit to the lounge finding JP and VR still sitting in
the lounge. Now VR leaves the lounge, and only JP and DG
are left behind in the lounge. This is when PK enters the
lounge and finds only JP & DG sitting in the lounge. Then
PK leaves, which means JP and DG must be the last two
faculty members to leave the lounge.
133. Choice (2)

134. Choice (3)

135. Choice (2)

136. Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 137 to 140:

137. The given information can be represented, as follows

Runs Catches dropped Catches taken
Akash 50 a a + 1
Biplab 50 a + 2 2
Chirag 35 2 0

Let a be the catches dropped by Akash then Biplab
dropped (a + 2) catches.
From statement A, we get Akash scored 50 runs and
Chirag scored 35 runs determine the man of the
match.
So, A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B,
The catches dropped by Biplab be one more than the
catches taken by Akash. As we do not know the runs
scored by these players, we cannot determine, the
man of the match.
So, B alone is not sufficient.
Using both the statements A and B, we get
Both Akash and Biplab scored same runs.
Now since the minimum value of a is 1; Akash has
taken 2 catches or more. If he has taken 2 catches,
then he is the man of the match since he dropped
fewer catches. If we has taken more than 2 catches,
he still is the man of the match. Hence, both
statements (A) and (B) are required. Choice (4)

138. It is given that, A did not get the first, B did not get the
second, C did not get the third and D did not get the
fourth rank.
From statement A, we get neither A nor D were
among the first 2 which means that A gets either 3
rd
or
the 4
th
rank and D gets either 3
rd
or the 4
th
rank. We
know that D did not get the 4
th
rank. So, D gets the 3
rd

rank and A gets the 4
th
rank. B gets the 1
st
rank and A
gets the 2
nd
rank. So A alone is sufficient.
From statement B, we get B gets either 1
st
or the 2
nd

rank. We know that B did not get the 2
nd
rank. So B
gets the 1
st
rank and C gets the 2
nd
rank. D gets the 3
rd

rank and A gets 1
st
rank. So B alone is sufficient.
Choice (3)
139. It is given that the members of a local club contributed
equally to pay Rs.600.
Let us take there are x members contributing
y amount.
x x y = 600 .. (1)
From statement A, we get (x 5) x (y + 10) = 600
20 x 30 = 600 20 members contributing Rs.30
15 x 40 = 600 15 members contributing Rs.40
From statement A, we get they contributed Rs.30
So A alone is sufficient.
From statement B, we get there were at least 20
members in the club and each one paid no more than
Rs.30.
The different possibilities are
30 members x 20 rupees.
40 members x 15 rupees.
60 members x 10 rupees and so on.
So B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)


A
C E
D B
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A
(46)
A
(46, 92)
E
(46, 90)
F
(14, 46) [90, 92]
A
(46, 92)
E
(46, 90)
140. Let the present age of father is f years
the present age of mother is m years and
the present age of son is s years.
It is given that (f + n) = 4(s + n) (1)
(m + n) = 3(s + n) . (2)
(1) (2) f m = s + n . (3)
(1) + (2) f + m + 2n = 7s + 7n = 7(s + n) . (4)
From statement A, it is given that
(f m) or (n s) = 10.
Substituting in (3), we get s + n = 10.
The combined age of parents
= 7(s + x) = 7 x 10 = 70 years
Statement A alone is sufficient.
From B, it is given that (s + n) = 2s n = s (5)
Substituting this in (1) and (2) we get
f + m = 8n + 6n = 14n
As we do not know the value of n, the sum of ages
cannot be determined. Statement (B) alone is not
sufficient. Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 141 to 145:

A, D, G have only 1 wrong answer each and no blank
answers. Hence they must have obtained the key from the
mastermind directly. A introduced 46 as the wrong answer,
D 17 as the wrong answer and G introduced 25 as the
wrong answer.







H & E obtained the key from A and already got 46 as the
wrong answer. H further introduced 92 as the wrong answer
and E introduced 90 as the wrong answer.








F obtained the key from H & E and found answers 92 and 90
not matching. He left these as blank and introduced 14 as
the answer in addition to 46 (which was the same answer
(though wrong).









I obtained the key from D and E. Answers 17, 46, 90 didn't
match and he left these as blank. He also introduced 27 as
the wrong answer.










C obtained the key from I and introduced 56 as the wrong
answer.









B obtained the key from E and G. Answers 25, 46, 90 didn't
match and he left these as blank. He also marked 96 as the
wrong answer.










We thus have the following flow chart.
































141. From the flowchart, we seen that A and D have only 1
source (mastermind). Even C has only 1 source (I).
Only B has 2 sources E and G. Choice (2)

142. C obtained the key from I who obtained it from D and
E. E obtained it from A.
Hence 4 people were needed: A, D, E, I Choice (3)

143. G and H were not the sources of any one. Choice (4)

144. From the flowchart, statement 3 is the only true one.
Choice (3)

145. A, D, G had the same source (Mastermind).
E and H had the same source (A). Choice (4)
Mastermind
A
(46)
H
(46, 92)
D
(17)
G
(25)
E
(46, 90)
I
(27) [17, 46, 90]
F
(14, 46) [90, 92]
C
(27, 56) [17, 46, 90]
B
(96) [25, 46, 90]
Mastermind
A
(46)
D
(17)
G
(25)
I
(27) [17, 46, 90]
E
(46, 90)
D
(17)
I
(27) [17, 46, 90]
C
(27, 56) [17, 46, 90]
B
(96) [25, 46, 90]
E
(46, 90)
G
(25)
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Solutions for question 146:

146. A Number of employees having VCD players
B Number of employees having Microwave ovens
C Number of employees having Acs
D Number of employees having Washing machine
Let there are 100 employees

A = 70 B = 75 C = 80 D = 85




Minimum number of employees which possess both VCD
and Microwave = 70 + 75 100 = 45
Minimum number of employees which possess both ACs
and Washing machine = 80 + 85 100 = 65
Minimum number of employees which possess all
= 45 + 65 100 = 10
So, at least 10% of employees have all gadgets.
Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 147 to 150:

The given set of questions is based on distribution and
sequencing.
Firstly, let us put the names of women and men, as given
under:
Women : Shanthi, Sridevi, Joya, Anita
Men : Sunil, Anil, Raj, Raman

It is given that (2 kids family) (0 kids family)

Also Shanti (0 kids) Sridevi
As Sunil and his wife came with their only kid, hence Sunil
cannot be the husband of Shanthi.
As Anil and Raj are fathers, hence neither of them is the
husband of Shanthi. Hence Raman is the husband of
Shanthi.
Also, Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita on the
Venue, this gives the following order of their reaching the
venue. [Anita, Joya, Shanthi, Sridevi]
As Sunil reached last, Sunil is the husband of Sridevi. This
means that Raj is Joyas husband and Anil is Anitas
husband.

The following table gives the desired details.

Order Women Men No.of Kids
1 Anita Anil at least 1
2 Joya Raj 2
3 Shanthi Raman 0
4 Sridevi Sunil 1

147. Shanthi arrived third. Choice (1)

148. Out of the given choices, Sunil and Sridevi is the
correct pair. Choice (2)

149. The daughters of Anita and Sridevi go to the same
school. Anitas husband is Anil and Sridevis husband
is Sunil. Hence, Sunil and Anil is the correct answer.
Choice (3)

150. Rajs family consists of two kids for certain (Anil has at
least one kid, hence could be having exactly one kid
also). Choice (2)


came before
came before

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