F1 (2E) Star 1-6 1.

. The general alarm system on board the ship consist of electric vibrating bells to warn in case of emergency _________. A. All crews at the crews quarters B. All engine crews doing routine jobs in the engine room C. All on board Ans. C 2. In case of fire accident n the ships accommodation area, the fire alarm could sounded by __________. A. Duty officer at the bridge only B. Anyone who first discover the fire then uniform the Bridge C. The master only Ans. B 3. Where whistle signals are used for handling lifeboats during drills or emergency situations, one short blast on whistle means __________. A. Lower boat B. Stop lowering C. Continue lowering Ans. A 4. Two short blast on whistle signals for handling lifeboats during drills or emergency ___________. D. Stop lowering the lifeboat E. Continue lowering F. Dismiss Ans. A 4. How many short blast on whistle signals which means dismissal from drill or emergency condition? A. Two short blasts on whistle B. Three short blast on whistle C. Four short blasts on whistle Ans. B 5. During Man overboard situation, the first person who saw the incident shall __________. A. Inform the duty engineer to stop the vessel B. Throw a marker and inform any deck officer around C. Throw a life ring and pass the word to the bridge Ans. C 6. Which of the following location onboard the ship where telephone connection is not required? A. In the engine room B. In the steering engine room C. On the bow Ans. C is to

7. Sound powered telephone onboard the ship derives its power from a _________. A. Permanent magnet and moving coil B. 12 Volts battery C. 24 Volts battery Ans. A 8. On board the ship, engine room telephone system, connects __________. A. Steering gear compartment only B. All machinery spaces C. All stations Ans. C 9. The fathometer or echo sounding machine is an instrument for determining the ___________. A. Density of sea water B. Distance from the submerge object C. Depth of water Ans. C 10. The ropes are being released in an automatic self tensioning mooring winches when _______? A. Ship is moving towards the pier B. Rope tension is low C. Rope tension is very high Ans. C 11. The anchor cable pass thru _______? A. The warp end B. The haws pipe C. Rope drum Ans. B 12. The steam powder deck machinery is most popular with which of these type of the ships? A. Passenger ships B. Reefer ships C. Tankers Ans. C 13. What factor led to the replacement of steam powdered machineries by hydraulic operated deck machineries? A. The installation of steam admission valve system. B. The length of pipework and the steam engine themselves. C. The installation of directional valve Ans. B 14. Which of the hydraulic circuit is mostly favored for marine application? A. Low pressure system B. Medium pressure system Ans. B

15. The warp end of wire or rope is intended _________. A. For hauling in or paying out when fastening the ship to shore B. To move the ship by fastening in the bollard Ans. A 16. What is the equivalent part of mooring winch drum of the mooring winch to that of anchor windlass? A. Cable stopper B. Capstan C. Cable lifter Ans. C 17. Roller arranged to move on what part of McGregor hatch cover? A. Hatch stays B. Hatch coaming Ans. B 18. Purpose of an anchor windlass chain stopper is to _______? A. Absorb the break trust of the anchor windlass B. Hold the anchor chain while riding at ancho Ans. B 19. When the hydraulic control level for deck which is placed in the neutral position, the spring set the break on the fluid motor drive shaft is _________? A. Engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure B. Released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating Ans. A 20. The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when ________. A. Excessive loads are placed on the winch B. Minimum pull is being exerted by the winch Ans. A 21. Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed- up before they are used because _________. A. Hydraulic strainer operate only during the warm up period B. Hydraulic fluid must be at the proper viscosity Ans. B 22. Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical power for driving heavy machinery on drilling rigs? A. More fuel efficient B. More flexible Ans. B 23. In an anchor windlass has been idle for sometime, you should ________.

A. Repack all valve items B. Lubricate it prior to use Ans. B 24. The oil in a cargo winch gear box should be sampled periodically to _______. A. Prevent the gear box from leaking B. Prevent the oil from becoming inflammable C. Make sure it has not become contaminated Ans. C 25. Which of the damages listed can occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes deteriorated? A. Sparking at the winch motor brushes. B. Rapid corrosion of switch components Ans. B 26. In the event of power failure during cargo loading operation, the movement of an electric powered cargo winch will be stopped by _________. A. A manual override switch B. The weight of the load on the boom C. A spring set brake Ans. C 27. The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch functions to ________. A. Act as a backup brake in the vent the mechanical brake should fail B. Automatically hold the load as soon as current to the marine is shut off Ans. B 28. Which of the following conditions will occur if the solenoid coil burns out on a cargo winch with an electric brake? A. The break will be set by spring force B. The motor will overspeed and burn up Ans. A 29. When a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a change in this adjustment results in a change of the _________. A. Desired value of the proportionally controlled variable B. Floating rate of the proportional speed floating component Ans. B 29. Which of the following control actions, when combined with proportional position action, will eliminate manual repositioning of the set point for each load change to produce an automatic reset action? C. Neutral band D. Floating action Ans. B 30. The mode of control, whereby the speed of motion of the final control element is linearly proportional to the deviation of the controlled variable from set point, is called __________.

A. Derivative control B. Two position control C. Integral control Ans. C 31. Increasing the reset rate of proportional plus reset controller _________. A. Repeats the proportional action more frequently B. Increase the stability of the controller Ans. A 32. The meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship services refrigeration system, is an example of _________________.

A. Two position control

B. Single speed floating control Ans. A 33. The mode of control employed by an alarm circuit is a _______.

A. Two position control

B. Single speed floating control Ans. A 34. The control mode in which the final control element is moved from one to two fixed positions to the other is known as _____________. A. Range B. On off action Ans. B 35. The cylinder loading mechanism used on low pressure air compressor is an example of which mode of control?

A. Two position
B. Derivative Ans. A 36. The controller set point of an automatic control system is 65.5C. the valve closes when the output temperature reaches 71C, and reopens when the temperature falls bellow 60C. The type of positioning action in this controller is known as __________. A. One- position differential gap B. Two- position differential gap Ans. B 37. The steady state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable, corresponding with the set point, is known as _______. A. Dead band B. Deviation C. Offset Ans. C

38. Offset is an inherent characteristic of which of the following types of control modes? A. Proportional B. Reset C. Rate Ans. A 39. The quantity or condition which is measured and controlled is known as the _________. A. Controlled variable B. Manipulated variable Ans. B 40. A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the speed at which the controlled is known as ________. A. Reset action B. Integral action C. derivative action Ans. C 41. A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control element in linearly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled variable, is called ________. A. Reset action B. Integral action C. derivative action Ans. C 42. The amount of change of a controlled variable that is necessary to cause a specific change in the position of the final control element depends upon the _________. A. Range of valve opening B. Proportional band adjustment of the controller C. Form of the controlled medium Ans. B 43. Reset control is also referred to as ___________. A. Proportional speed floating control B. Derivative control Ans. A 44. The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain, is known as ________. A. Set point B. Control point Ans. B 45. When the vessels steering wheel on the navigation bridge is turned, the difference existing between the position of the wheel and that of the rudder is known as ________. A. Proportional band B. The error signal C. The reset signal

Ans. B 46. In an automation system, the effect of the control action sensed by a controller is known as ________. A. Command input B. Output C. The reset signal Ans. B 47. Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station?

A. Moisture separator
B. Nonereturn valve Ans. A 48. A computing relay is used in a pneumatic control system to ___________. A. Extract square roots B. Divide C. All are correct Ans. C 49. The two most common gasses used in pneumatic systems are _________. A. Compressed air and nitrogen B. Helium and nitrogen Ans. A 50. The response line installed in a pneumatic proportional action controller functions to ________. A. Monitor the accuracy of the measuring element B. Provide a feedback signal for accurate final element positioning Ans. B 51. A closed loop pneumatic control system always operates with _________. A. No controller feedback B. Feedback to the controller Ans. B 52. Any restriction in the instrument air piping of a pneumatic control system will _______. A. Delay transmission of the air signal B. Increase the transmitted air signal intensity Ans. A 53. Restrictions occurring in the small orifices of pneumatic control system components can be caused by _________. A. Moisture in the compressed air supply B. Excessive dryness in the compressed air supply Ans. A

54. Overthightening of the valve stem packing to a pneumatically controlled final control element will cause ________.

A. Valve stem breakage

B. Erratic operation Ans. A 55. The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically controlled steam pressure reducing valve is ________. A. The range spring has become weakened B. An incorrect loading pressure supplied to the power unit C. A partially restricted loading air pressure line Ans. B 56. The advantage of pneumatic control systems over electrical control system with regards to fluid flow control is _______. A. Low energy input B. Continued control through temporary electrical power losses Ans. B 57. In a pneumatic automation system, a unit producing a signal to govern the position of the controller of the measured variable, relative to the value of the measured variable, is said to have _______. A. Reset action B. Proportional action C. Two position action D. Rate action Ans. B 58. In an automation system, increasing or decreasing the loading pressure by set amount is known as _________. A. Positioning B. Proportioning C. Biasing D. Controlling Ans. C 59. If you turn the handwheel clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal pilot reducing valve, you will _______. A. Compress the adjusting spring against the diaphragm B. Release the spring tension from the diaphragm C. Increase the steam pressure to the reducing valve D. Decrease the spring tension in the main valve Ans. A 60. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of steam pressure reducing valves is correct? A. Reducing station relief valve must be lifted by hand at least once a watch. B. The cut out valve at the outlet of the reducing valve should be throttled when in operation. C. Reducing valve should be warmed-up drained before they are adjusted.

D. Reducing valve are absolutely reliable and require no routine maintenance. Ans. C 61. Which of the following is operated from the main engine room console on an automated ship? A. Fire pump and lube oil pump B. Lube oil pump and distilling plant C. Distilling plant and shaft alley door D. Shaft alley door and fixed CO2 release Ans. A 62. Main engine room console alarms are to be of the self monitoring type, meaning that an open circuit to a particular alarm circuit will _________. A. Cause an alarm condition B. Secure power to the indicator C. Secure power to the monitoring device D. Automatically recluse within 1o seconds Ans. A 63. Information on the data logger can be helpful in determining the long term probability of machinery failure if you ________. A. Evaluate only the latest logged data as this is the best indication of plant status B. Evaluate series of readings to obtain operating trends C. Monitor off limit conditions only when announced by an audible and visual signal D. Secure the machine under relatively steady state condition Ans. B 64. A device which prints out a permanent record of the plant operating conditions is known as the __________. A. Anologger B. Bell logger C. Alarm logger D. Data logger Ans. D 65. If both the high level and low level alarms come on for the same address of a centralized control console, the most likely problem is a/an __________. A. Sensor failure B. Failed alarm C. Low level D. Etremely low level Ans. A 66. Ultraviolet light sensing flame scanners installed on an automated main propulsion boiler are designed so they _________. A. Might be misled by glowing brickwork B. Will be sensitive to the outer portion of flames C. Are sensitive only to the center of ultraviolet portion of the flame from a particular burner D. Cannot be used with steam atomizing burners Ans. C

67. How do lubricating oil and grease gets into the boiler water system? A. Through the feed water circuit B. Through the heater Ans. A 68. Why is the existence of even a minutely thin film of oil produces exactly the same bad effects as the boiler scale? A. Heat transfer rate is reduced B. Effects hard steaming Ans. A 69. Which of the following will occur if scale coating effects an increase in tube temperature, causing the strength of the metal to decrease, because they prevent the usual circulation of feed waters cooling the tubes and normally carry of the heat resulting from combustion? A. Case leaking B. Tube failure Ans. B 70. How is dissolved oxygen in boiler feed water minimized? A. Phosphate treatment B. Maintain high feed water temperature Ans. B 71. How do you make sure that a sample is the true representative of the boiler water to be tested? A. Rinse well the sample bottle B. Filter the water sample C. Clear the sampling line Ans. C 72. A sample of boiler water can be chemically tested by initially adding a few drops of a specific color indicator, then slowly titrating a standard solution into the water sample until the _________________. A. Burette reading is zero and the sample color changes B. Sample undergoes a definite color change Ans. B 73. Which of the following describes a characteristic of a scale forming impurities in boiler water? A. Dissolved at low temperature and precipitates at high temperature. B. Dissolved at high pressure and precipitates at low temperature Ans. A 74. Which type of the corrosion is characterized by peeling/ splintering of metal into thin, parallel layers? A. Caustic B. Exfoliation Ans. B 75. Which of the following retard the transfer of heat that longer time will be required to raise steam on the boiler?

10

A. Untreated boiler water B. Dissolved solids C. Scale coatings Ans. C 76. What is the purpose of maintaining an electrical lamp inside the boiler during a dry prevention method? A. To prevent air and moisture from entering the boiler B. To accelerate the drying process Ans. B 77. When a vessel is to be laid up in warm climates, why is the boiler sealed- off after it has been generally filled with water, letting it come out from the air vent? A. To minimize evaporation loss B. To preserve the strength of the metal parts Ans. A 78. Why is the external and internal cleaning of boilers be carried out before laying up of boiler? A. To preserve the boiler B. To spot the parts that began to corrode Ans. B 79. It is a method of laying up a boiler by emptying it and cleaning it thoroughly on both the fireside and waterside ______________. A. External cleaning B. Dry preservation Ans. B 80. Which of the following governs the choice of suitable refractory material throughout the various parts of the boiler? A. Size of the boiler B. Operating pressure of the boiler C. Temperature to which boilers part will be subjected Ans. C 81. Which of the following is a chemical reaction between the ash from the fuel and the refractory?

A. Slag attack
B. Caustic cracking Ans. A 82. How do we maintain constant steam pressure? A. By adjusting the safety valves B. By controlling the amount of heat supplied to the boiler water Ans. B 83. For how long should you be purging before you fire the boiler? A. 2 4 seconds

11

B. 2 4 minutes Ans. B 84. Why should the furnace be purged before the burner is lit off? A. To control air pressure in wind box B. To clear explosive gases C. To ensure proper fuel/air ratio Ans. B 85. It creates white smoke, which means that the boiler is heating up large amount of excess air, which in turn, results in decrease efficiency ____________. A. To little air B. Air damper fully open C. Too much air Ans. C 86. Which of the following may result in loss of suction of boiler feed pump?

A. To hot feed water

B. Low boiler water level Ans. A 87. If the water level in the steaming boiler is dropping rapidly and cannot be kept at the normal level by standard practices, you should ____________. A. Secure the fires and then secure the steam stop B. Secure the steam stop and then secure the fires Ans. A 88. When the exhaust boiler is fouled, the main engine instruments will display ___________. A. Engine overspeed B. High exhaust Ans. B 89. Which of the following must first be done when the boiler water level can not be seen on the lower half of the water gauge glass? A. Blow down the boiler B. Cut out the fire Ans. B 90. In an automatically fired boiler, the amount of fuel supplied depends on _______. A. Boiler load B. Boiler pressure C. Wind box pressure Ans. A 91. Which of the following is the danger of operating the boiler at low exhaust temperature? A. Low heat transfer rate on economizer B. High draft backpressure C. Acid precipitation

12

Ans. C 92. Which of the following is the danger of continually supplying fuel to an automatically fired boiler in case the fire goes out? A. Dry firing B. Furnace explosion Ans. B 93. Which of the following components directly regulate the suction side pressure of refrigeration compressor? A. Condenser back pressure B. Unloader C. Automatic expansion valve Ans. C 94. The thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb is fitted _________. A. Inside the cooling chamber B. On the evaporator outlet C. As closed as possible to the cooling tubes inside the cooling chamber Ans. B

95. A diesel engine indicator diagram has an area has an area of 22 cm2 and a length of 12.5 cm. If
the scale of the indicator spring to be 21.3 kg/cm2, what is the cylinder mean effective pressure?

A. 17.6 kg/cm2 B. 27.5 kg/ cm2

Formula: Ans. A MEP =

AREA LENGTH

x (Spring Constant)

96. Using a diesel engine indicator P V diagram, the cylinder mean effective pressure in calculated
to be 21.3 kg/ cm2. What is the scale of the spring used on the indicator if the diagram area is 18.46 cm2 with a length of 13 cm? A. 1.25 B. 1.50 Ans. B 97. During each power stroke, the average pressure exerted on a position is termed _________. A. Indicated horsepower B. Mean effective pressure Ans. B 98. Which of the following notations does the N represent in the formula shown below? IHP = PLAN/(33000) A. Number of power strokes per revolution B. Number of revolutions per minute for both two stroke and four stroke engines C. Number of power strokes per minute Ans. C

13

99. The pressure in an operating diesel engine cylinder continues to rise for a short period after the position passes top dead center as a result of the _________. A. Expansion of the combustion gases B. Exhaust and intake valves just closing C. Maximum compression pressure is just being attained Ans. A 100. What occurs in the combustion space of a diesel engine cylinder shortly after ignition and before the position reaches TDC?| A. Rapid increase in temperature with constant pressure B. Rapid increase in pressure with constant temperature C. Rapid increase in pressure and temperature Ans. C 101. Which of the listed design features is most common to a two stroke/cycle low speed main propulsion diesel engines? A. Crosshead construction B. Cross- scavenging air flow Ans. A 102. In large, slow speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the parts listed is under tension when the engine is running? A. Bed plate B. Tie rod Ans. B 103. Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel injection operate on a combustion phase within the cycle which is _________. A. Entire constant pressure B. A combination of constant volume and constant pressure C. A combination of constant temperature and constant pressure Ans. B 104. The main function of tie rods in the construction of large, low speed diesel engines is to __________. A. Stiffen the bedplate in way of the main bearings to increase the engines longitudinal strength B. Accept most of the tensile loading that results from the firing forces developed during operation C. Mount the engine frame securely to the hull to prevent shaft coupling misalignment Ans. B 105. What function is provided by the crankcase ventilation system on some diesel engines? A. Increase the sludge forming tendency of lube oil B. Prevents the accumulation of combustible gases C. Improves lube oil cooling Ans. B

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106. The load carrying part of the engine in modern internal combustion engine is referred to as the __________. A. Bedplate or base B. Sump or oil pan Ans. A 107. A safety cover differs from other access doors in that it is fitted with a ________.

A. Spring loaded pressure plate

B. Handwheel C. nut operated clamp Ans. A 108. Blow by in a diesel engine is a result of combustion gases leaking into the crankcase past the __________. A. Wrist pin bushings B. Compression rings Ans. B 109. An increase in diesel engine crankcase pressure generally indicates excessive __________. A. Scavenge air pressure B. Piston ring blow by Ans. B 110. In a diesel engine, blow by _____. A. Increases exhaust back pressure B. Causes excessive crankcase pressure Ans. B 111. The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel engine is to warn of _________. A. Excessive mist density in the crankcase B. Excessively high crankcase vacuum Ans. A 112. The direct cause of a crankcase explosion can be attributed to _______. A. Extremely hot scavenge air B. Excessive cooling water temperature C. An overheated bearing Ans. C 113. Which of the following problems could develop due to the accumulation of oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel engine?

A. Poor fuel economy

B. Combustion knock C. Crankcase explosion Ans. C

15

114.

Which of the listed conditions is most likely to cause a crankcase explosion? A. A high cooling water temperature B. Fuel dilution of the lube oil Ans. B

115.

Crankcase explosions in propulsion diesel engines result from ________. A. Broken fuel lines spraying oil on the crankcase B. The ignition of unburned fuel and air in the crankcase Ans. B

116. If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, which of the listed actions should be taken? A. Open the crankcase immediately to check for damage B. Apply firefighting water through the crankcase breather C. Allow the engine to cool before opening the crankcase Ans. C 117. If a diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due to sever overheating, the crankcase _________. A. Inspection covers should not be opened until the engine is cooled B. Ventilation system should be continued in operation for one hour cooling Ans. A 118. If water is found in the crankcase of a diesel engine, the cause may be due to ___________. A. A cracked cylinder head B. A leaky cylinder head gasket C. A cracked cylinder liner D. All of the above Ans. D 119. Main propulsion diesel engines having a bore exceeding 300 mm are to have at least ____________. A. Two independent means of starting the engine B. Five starting valves to permit the admission of starting air at any crank angle C. One (explosion relief) valve at the position of each main crank throw D. Two engine driven lube oil pumps capable of parallel operation Ans. C 120. Crankcase explosion relief valves should be of the ________. A. Return setting type B. Spring centered type C. Spring opened type D. Duplex double acting type Ans. A 121. Explosion relief valves on diesel engine crankcases should relieve the pressure at not more than ___________.

16

A. 0.1 bar B. 0.2 bar C. 1.0 bar D. 2.0 bar Ans. B 122. An important design characteristic of an explosion relief valve for a diesel engine is the ability to _________. A. Open slowly to permit a gradual reduction of crankcase pressure B. Open quickly against crankcase pressure to prevent a possible implosion C. Close quickly in order to prevent an inrush of air D. Close slowly to permit proper seating of the valve disc and neoprene sealing surface Ans. C 123. Cylinder linings constructed as an integral part of the block, are characterized by which of the following disadvantages? A. They conduct heat poorly B. They are expensive C. They cannot be replaced D. They require special tools for removal Ans. C 124. When inspecting pistons, liners, and rings of a large two stroke/ cycle diesel engine through the cylinder ports, a wet piston crown would indicate a ________. A. Faulty piston lubricator B. Leaky fuel injector C. Broken compression ring D. Faulty oil ring Ans. B 125. The cylinder liner forming the cylinder wall and the inside of the water jacket is called a __________. A. Dry liner B. Wet liner C. Jacket liner Ans. B 126. The bore of a diesel engine cylinder describes the __________. A. Swept volume of the cylinder B. Inside diameter of the cylinder C. Piston displacement in the cylinder D. Length of the piston stroke Ans. B 127. Why are some diesel engine cylinder liners plated on the wearing surface with porous chromium? A. The chromium will not wear out the piston rings B. The chromium strengthens the liners in the way of the scavenging air ports C. Chromium eliminates the need for oil scraper rings

17

D. Pores in the plating aid in maintaining the lube oil film Ans. D 128. Which is the correct Hierarchy of Hull Strength Members? A. Plate, Stiffeners, Web, Tank, Hull Girder B. Plate, Stiffeners, Girders, Tank, hull Girder Ans. B 129. Which of the following structures of bulk carriers are considered critical? A. Forecastle deck B. Upper and lower connections of main side frame Ans. B 130. A vessel which is subjected to hogging _________. A. Has its main deck under compression stress B. Has its main deck plating under tensile stress Ans. B 131. What is the purpose of girders in the ships tank? A. They support the stiffeners and also take up some of the forces B. All are correct Ans. A 132. When the ship is subjected to sagging ___________. A. Has its main deck under tensile stress B. Has its bottom plating under tensile stress Ans. B 133. What are the dynamic forces that affect the hull structure of the ship?| A. Green water B. All are correct Ans. B 134. What are the differences between static and dynamic forces on a ship hull? A. Static forces are set up by the cargo and the sea and dynamic forces are set up by the sea (wave action). B. Dynamic forces are acting during loading and from the sea (wave action), and static forces are acting before and after the ship has been loaded. Ans. A 135. The internal force of a material which tends to resist deformation when subjected to external forces is known as _________. A. Stress B. Strain Ans. A 136. The ability of a metal to be hammered or rolled out is called _________.

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A. Ductility B. Elasticity C. Malleability Ans. C 137. In ships construction, what do you call the structure hull members installed athwartship? A. Deck beam B. Stringers Ans. A 138. In merchant shop construction, the term scantlings refers to the _________. A. Factor of safety involved with the hog and sag characteristics of the hull B. Hull girder strength in terms of the standard model C. Designed size of the beams, stiffeners, and shell plating Ans. C 139. What do you call the structural members of the hull extending in a fore and aft direction of the ship? A. Joiners B. Longitudinal Ans. B 140. In a longitudinally framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members are called ___________. A. Stringers B. Web frames Ans. B 141. The hull frame members extending athwartship are called ________. A. Longitudinal frames B. Transverse frames Ans. B 142. When the ships bulkheads are reinforced against bending and bulging, the bulkheads are provided with _____________.

A. Stanchions
B. Girders C. Stiffeners Ans. C 143. What do you call the vertical support members used to strengthen bulkheads? A. Stiffeners B. Panels Ans. A 144. When sips stern tube is broken, what will be the vessels immediate protection? A. Stern frame bulkheads B. After peak bulkhead

19

Ans. B 145. The purpose of swash bulkheads is to ____________. A. Separate cargoes in a common tank B. Reduce liquid movement within a tank Ans. B 146. What is the purpose of a bleeder plug, or docking plug located on a motor vessel double bottom tank? A. Indicate when the tank is pressed up B. Empty the tank when in drydock Ans. B 147. Where should you expect to find striking plates? A. In the bow of the ship at the waterline. B. On the bottom of a fuel or ballast tank under the sounding tube. Ans. B 148. Vertical transverse structures in the double bottom are known as _________. A. Pillars B. Floors Ans. B 149. What do you understand about cofferdam? A. A tank for storing chemicals B. An empty space separating compartments to prevent the contents of one compartments from entering another in case of leakage. Ans. B 150. The inner bottom of the ship is the ______________. A. Plating form the engine room tank top B. Doubler plating installed over the flat keel Ans. A 151. The double bottom in a vessel is a space comprised of ___________. A. A watertight boundary formed by the inner bottom B. Compartments between the inner and the outer bottoms Ans. A 152. The welded joint located between two plates in the same strake of hull plating is called a ___________. A. Bracket B. Butt Ans. B 153. In ship construction, the small plating is arrange in strakes being specifically identified by name. The strake next to the keel is identified as the ________.

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A. Keel strake B. Garboard strake Ans. B 154. In ships construction, which of the listed strengthening members act to support the decks? A. Bulkheads B. All are correct Ans. B 155. When renewing only a portion of the entire hull plate with an insert plate, which of the listed guidelines should be followed? A. The insert plate should cover the least one full frame space. B. The lines of new welding should, where possible, lie in existing lines of welding Ans. A 156. The crack located in the shell plating or deck plating of the ship, may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by ___________. A. Drilling a hole at each end of the crack B. Installing welded brackets across both ends Ans. A 157. The location of a vessels frame stations may be obtained from which of the listed drawing? A. Profile B. Base line Ans. A 158. A vertical shaft having a rudder attached to its lower and having a yoke, quadrant, or tiller fitted to its upper portion by which it may be turned is the _________.

A. Rudder frame
B. Rudder frame C. Rudder stock Ans. C

159. With reference to a vessels structural integrity, the most significant characteristic of a cryogenic
liquid is its _________. A. Capability of causing brittle fractures B. Highly corrosive action on mild steel Ans. A 160. Stern tube and strut bearings lined with hardwood or rubber composition materials are lubricated with __________. A. Salt water B. Graphite Ans. A 161. Propeller pitch speed minus ship speed divided by the propeller pitch speed is termed ___________.

21

A. Apparent slip
B. True slip Ans. A 162. Water pressure on the hull of the ship is the greatest at the _______. A. Stern B. Keel Ans. B 163. In a compartment that has been completely flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted ________. A. Along the bottom of any bulkhead B. At the center of the bulkheads Ans. A 164. What is the extreme Pressure (EP) oil? A. Additive forming a protective chemical surface film. B. Higher pressure hydraulic oil Ans. A 165. Lubrication may be classified into the following categories EXCEPT _________.

A. Boundary lubrication
B. Mixed lubrication C. Force lubrication Ans. C 166. If the contract surfaces are completely separated by an oil film, it is a kind of lubrication called? A. Hydrodynamic B. Mixed lubrication Ans. A 167. Its kind of lubrication in which a considerable degree of contact occurs between the mating surfaces ___________. A. Boundary lubrication B. Mixed lubrication Ans. A 168. What is meant by mixed lubrication? A. When transformation of a fluid film is partly established B. When using grease and lubricating oil together Ans. A 169. What is elastohydrodynamic lubrication? A. The contracting surfaces are elastically deformed, distributing the load over a greater area B. Water is added to oil because it is not compressible and we can increase the load Ans. A

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170. What is the main criterion for fluid lubricants operating under hydrodynamic condition? A. Viscosity B. Anti wear agents C. Flow of lubricants Ans. A 171. Why should extreme pressure additives only be used on ferrous metal surfaces? A. Will be chemically bound to the other meals B. Will change viscosity C. Maybe corrosive to other metal Ans. C 172. In a reciprocating air compressor, what is the most important property of lubricating oil? A. Good anti wear property B. Low carbon forming tendency C. Good corrosion protection Ans. B 173. What is the single most important element for gear oil?

A. Anti wear performance

B. Corrosion prevention C. Viscosity Ans. C 174. In what type of equipment is low pour point and good wax depositing important? A. Refrigeration compressor B. Deck winches C. Medium speed trunk engines Ans. A 175. Which of the following is NOT attributed to high wear rate of piston rings and cylinder liners of an engine due to corrosion? A. Liner temperature too low B. Cooling water pressure insufficient Ans. B

176. What is the primary cause of cylinder liner bore polishing in a trunk piston? A. Excessive carbon deposits on piston top land (crown) B. Lube oil pressure too high Ans. A 177. It is a measure of fluids resistance to flow under gravity at a specific temperature (usually 40 deg. C to 100 deg. C) ___________. A. Kinematic viscosity B. Specific gravity

23

Ans. A 178. Its measure of ignition quality of a diesel fuel as determined in a standard single cylinder engine ___________. A. Cetane number B. Cetane index C. catalytic converter Ans. A 179. It is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of an oil __________. A. Neutralization number B. Demulsibility Ans. A 180. It is the lowest temperature at which the fluid will flow when cooled under prescribed condition ___________. A. Pour point B. Pumpability Ans. A 181. The temperature at which an indication of wax crystals appears when lubricant or distillate fuel is cold? A. Cloud point B. Cetane number Ans. A 182. In diesel engineering practice, the term used to express the ignition quality of a particular fuel is ___________. A. Cetane number B. Octane number Ans. A 183. Which of the following represents the significance of the fuel oil cetane number? A. The cetane number has no effect on injection lag. B. The cetane number is an indication of the fuels viscosity C. Ignition lag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number Ans. C 184. Having a low cetane rating in fuel oil could result in ___________. A. Improved cold weather starting B. Excessive fuel oil consumption Ans. B 185. In order for a microbiological growth to thrive in fuel tank it is necessary for ___________. A. High temperature to exist B. Low temperature to exist C. Small amounts of water to be present Ans. C

24

186. Fuels are produced in a refinery are generally sterile, however, contamination can occur as fuels are __________. A. Stored at the refinery B. Stored on the vessel C. Transported to the distribution sites D. All are correct answers Ans. D 187. The microbiological growths that effect fuel supplies can easily be transported from one location to another by _______. A. Roaches and other insects B. Air, solids, or liquids Ans. B 188. It is defined as the resistance of fuel oil to flow __________. A. Viscosity B. Viscosity index Ans. A 189. It refers to the sediment forming tendency of a manufactured fuel when mixed with another fuel ___________. A. Compatibility B. Blending C. Incompatibility Ans. A

190. What is meant by CV Calorific Value of fuel oil?

I. Specific energy II. Potential energy III. Product of combustion A. B. C. D. I only II only III only I, II, & III

Ans. D 191. What is the major potential safety hazard associated with petroleum products? A. Skin and eye irritations B. Fire C. Skin cancer Ans. B 192. What are the main contaminants in fuels? A. Chemical waste, waste lubricating oil and micro organism B. Sea water, chemical and heavy cracked fuels C. Chemical waste, bitumen and water

25

D. Sludge and water Ans. A 193. In thermal cracking of crude oil, what is the main aim of the conversion process? A. It is a distillation un it which physically separates crude oil, what is the main aim of the conversion process? B. It is the process designed to reduce the molecular size pf a portion of the feed stock by application of heat. Ans. B 194. The main difference between ferrous metals from nonferrous metals is _________. A. Its substantial amount of alloying elements B. The presence of other impurities C. Its substantial amount of iron Ans. C 195. What is the observation and conclusion regarding the effect of carbon content when comparing the tensile strength, ductility, and hardness of low - ,medium-, and high carbon steel? A. As the carbon content increases, the tensile strength, hardness and ductility decreases. B. As the carbon content increases, the hardness and tensile strength also increases but ductility decreases. Ans. B 196. What is the main purpose of ally? A. To create a new chemical element B. To enhance the mechanical property of the material Ans. B 197. Which is true about the uses of gray cast iron? A. It is used for axle and differential housing and gears. B. Suitable material for cylinder heads, and break and clutch applications in motor vehicles. C. It is wanted for such products as rail wheels, rolls for crushing grains and jaw crushes plates. Ans. A 198. What is the basic alloy composition of brass? A. Copper and tin B. Aluminum and nickel C. Copper and zinc Ans. C 199. A metal used in piping on board ships that is more durable than copper pipes and is also used in cooling water installations, sanitary installations, oil coolers, and heat exchangers, heat coils etc is called ________. A. Aluminum brass (Yolcalbro)

26

B. White metal (Babbitt metal) Ans. A 200. How is annealing process carried out? A. By heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time in a furnace and then allowing it to cool as slowly as possible B. By cooling the material in a furnace and then heating it again as slowly as possible Ans. A 201. How is hardening process carried out? A. By melting the material in the furnace and then allowing it to cool inside the furnace B. By slowly heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time inside the furnace and then applying abrupt cooling Ans. B 202. Why do we apply tempering process on metals? A. To soften the material for easy pressing or bending purposes B. To remove some of the hardness , making the steel less brittle and more tough Ans. B 203. Which of the statement is true regarding the purpose/ use of the alloying element chromium? A. It does not greatly reduce ductility until 8% chromium is reached B. Increases grain size, induces hardness, improves resistance to corrosion and erosion Ans. B 204. Why are metallurgical tests carried out upon materials? A. To test the mechanical properties of the materials B. So that the life span of the material will be known C. To determine their suitability for use in engineering Ans. C 205. A method pf detecting surface defects (e.g., cracks) by the use of microscope or hand lens is called _________. A. Radiography B. Visual examination or inspection Ans. B 206. A type of penetrant testing which is wiped or sprayed over the metal surface which is then washed, dried and inspected under ultraviolet light is called __________. A. Red dye penetrant B. Fluorescent penetrant Ans. B

27

207. What is the main reason for using glass fiber as a filter material in polymers? A. For reducing electrical conductivity B. To improve corrosion resistance C. For strength Ans. C 208. What are the factors/ material properties to consider in the use of Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)? A. Unaffected by water and oils B. Resistant to water and chemicals and is a good electrical insulator Ans. B 209. What are some of the uses of nitrile on board ships? A. It is used in place of rubber, can be used for anti vibration mountings, jointings, etc. B. It is used as thermal insulation Ans. A 210. How is electric arc produced in electric arc welding process? A. By closing the circuit thereby allowing the continued flow of electricity B. By lowering the voltage and increasing the electric current C. By passing an electric current between two electrodes separated by a small gap Ans. C 211. Which statement is NOT true about brazing process? A. Brazing filler metals are lead and tin or aluminum and zinc alloys. B. Brazing filler metals are alloys of copper, nickel, silver and aluminum. Ans. A 212. What is the appropriate action for the plate edge of a metal that has acquired local hardness due to rapid cooling after the gas cutting operation? A. Plate edges should be machined or grinded. B. Plate edges should be heat treated by means of the torch. Ans. A 213. The change in length of an object in some direction, not necessarily the same that is produced by an externally applied load is called __________.

A. Tension
B. Contraction C. Strain Ans. C

28

214. When a material on one side pushes on the material on the other side of the surface with the force parallel to the surface, the stress is said to be a __________. A. Shearing stress B. Compacting stress Ans. A 215. What is the principle involved in bonding materials using adhesives? A. The sealing and bonding of two or more materials temporarily either metallic or nonmetallic by capillary means B. The bonding together of a wide variety of like and unlike materials by resins and their chemical combinations Ans. B 216. What is meant buy the term pig iron? A. The basic material used in the manufacture of various steel and iron B. Sand channel into which molten metals flow C. A crude, high carbon iron produced by reduction of iron ore in a blast furnace Ans. C 217. What will happen to an elastic material if loaded above a point known as the elastic limit? A. The material will return to its original dimensions when the load is removed. B. The material will not return to its original dimension and will be permanently deformed when the load is removed Ans. B 218. Which is not true about non destructive testing? A. Special test pieces are used which are damage during the process B. These test are carried out on components, not test pieces Ans. A 219. The first metal used in steel ship construction is ____________. A. Brass B. Wrought iron Ans. B 220. Which material is excellent for use as seals and diaphragm for water lubricated bearings? A. Rubber B. Titanium alloy Ans. A

29

221. Which material has high tensile strength and corrosion resistance and has been used to replace steel metal in both flat plate form and in matched metal die processes where parts are moulded in the preformed shape? A. Fiber glass B. Titanium Ans. B 222. The proportionality of stress and strain under certain condition is called ________. A. Hookes law B. Luminous intensity Ans. A 223. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and ________. A. Cooling slowly in air B. Dousing in oil Ans. A 224. Silver solder is an alloy of silver and __________. A. Tin or lead B. Brass mixed bronze Ans. A 225. The maximum stress at which the material can support without failure is known as _________? A. Ultimate strength B. Ductile Ans. A 226. The capability of a material to be able to absorb large quantity of energy before fracture is called ________________? A. Toughness B. Ductility Ans. A 227. In a chilled water air conditioning unit using a reciprocating compressor, the refrigerating effect of the primary refrigerant can be increased by ____________ A. Sub cooling the refrigerant in the condenser B. Superheating the refrigerant in the compressor Ans. A 228. The latent heat of water vapor in air is dependent upon the _________. A. Dew point

30

B. Dry point Ans. A 229. When air is at its dew point it is at its_____________. A. Lowest absolute humidity B. Highest relative humidity Ans. B 230. If the air temperature increases while atmospheric pressure remains constant, the air will _________. A. Have a greater capacity to absorb moisture B. Give up moisture as condensation Ans. A 231. In an air conditioning system. Moisture is removed from the air by______. A. Filters B. Dehumidifiers Ans. B 232. If the people in an air conditioned room complain of being too cool, the trouble might be that the __________. A. Preheater has failed to cutout B. Relative humidity is too low Ans. B 233. Refrigeration system using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of foods unless___________. A. The air is circulated slowly with a minimum temperature change B. A humidifier is installed within refrigeration system Ans. A 234. A refrigerant with in oil solution has a _____________. A. Higher boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure refrigerant B. Lower boiling temperature that does a pure refrigerant, but the refrigerating effect is less Ans. A 235. CFC refrigerant exposed to high temperature or direct flame, will decompose and may produce__________. A. Hydrofluoric acid B. ozone Ans. A

31

236.

At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure, R-12 is a/an _____________. A. Odorless B. Superheated liquid Ans. A

237. A refrigerant used in a chemical refrigeration system should have which of the following characteristics? A. High boiling point B. Low boiling point Ans. B 238. Which of the fluids listed is suitable for use as a secondary refrigerant? A. Methyl alcohol B. Brine Ans. B 239. Large quantities of halogenated floro-carbons when released from refrigeration system, will contribute to ozone depletion in the__________. A. Stratosphere B. Troposphere Ans. A 240. Which of the listed chemicals will eventually reach the stratosphere and react unfavorably with ozone? A. Fluorine B. Chlorine Ans. B 241. During normal operation, how is most of the refrigerant released to the atmosphere from low pressure systems? A. Through water side system B. Through the purge unit Ans. B 242. Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to the conditions of its_______. A. Frequently grounding out B. Frequently starting and stopping Ans. B 243. When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration system through the suction line, te condition is called____________.

32

A. Flooding B. Superheating Ans. A 244. In a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system, the compressor is set up to cycle on and off by the _________. A. Pressurestat B. Low pressure cutout switch Ans. B 245. A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve that normally draws gas from the suction manifold, but returns it to the suction line without compressing it is called____________. A. Discharge line bypass B. Cylinder unloader Ans. B 246. To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should introduce the refrigerant through the _________. A. Charging valve as a liquid B. Condenser purge valve as a vapor Ans. A 247. Which of the conditions listed is one indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant in the system? A. Short cycling B. Oil absorbed in the crankcase Ans. A 248. Which of the indication listed may be an indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through the system? A. Sweating of the compressor crankcase B. Colder than normal solenoid valve Ans. A 249. A. B. C. D. What is the force which keeps the body to move in circle in uniform circular motion? Centrifugal force Resultant force Centripetal force Friction force

Ans. A

250.

Zero change in velocity (v = 0) in uniform circular motion means________.

33

A. B. C. D.

Zero acceleration (a=0) Acceleration is lesser than zero (a<0) Acceleration is greater than zero (a>0) Acceleration does not exist

Ans. C

251.

What particular form of reciprocating or to and fro motion in which the acceleration and velocity of the body varies as it moves from one end of its travel to the other? A. B. C. D. Simple harmonic Free falling bodies Conical motion Rectilinear motion

Ans. A 252. A. B. C. D. What displacement of a rotating body is measured in radian? Linear displacement Angular displacement Displacement along the x-axis Range

Ans. B 253. What is the term used when one particle in the body remains stationary while every other particle moves along the circular path? A. B. C. D. Translational motion Rotational motion SHM motion Brownian movement

Ans. B 254. Energy store by virtue of stresses existing in a system in commonly related to the done against in elevating the object from arbitrary reference plane to some higher level pertains to___________. A. B. C. D. Chemical energy Potential energy Solar energy Kinetic energy

Ans. B 255. The velocity of the liquid is large where the cross section is small, and the velocity is slow where the cross section is large, refers to what law or principle? A. B. C. D. Hookes law Bernoullis Principle Archimedes Principle Pascals Principle

34

Ans. B 256. Which statement is true about rotational motion? A. The linear velocity of principle near the mid-position is greater than the particle edge of a flywheel B. The linear velocity of a particle at the edge of a flywheel is greater than the particle near the mid-position C. The linear velocity of particle near the mid position and particle at the edge of a flywheel are equal D. The linear velocity of a particle near the mid position is equal to zero 257. Ans. B Which of the following is true about uniform circular motion? A. B. C. D. The body moving at constant velocity and different direction The body has zero acceleration because it is moving at constant velocity The body moving at constant velocity and the same direction The body has maximum acceleration because it is moving at constant acceleration

Ans. A 258. The mass moment of inertia of body with respect of any line that does not pass through the center of the body is called____________. A. B. C. D. Center of mass Mass moment of inertia Mass moment of force Parallel axis theorem

Ans. D 259. A. B. C. D. Which condition is true about balancing of a rotating piece of machinery? Centripetal force of a rotating mass are equal and opposite Total forces Total clockwise moment is equal to the anticlockwise Total forces pushing to the right is equal to the forces pushing to the left

Ans. D 260. A. B. C. D. The energy of the body that is dependent upon the bodys mass and velocity is Chemical energy Potential energy Solar energy Kinetic energy

Ans. D 261. The product of magnitude of the displacement times the components of the force parallel to the displacement times the components of the force parallel to the displacement is __________________. A. Work B. Energy

35

C. Power D. Momentum Ans. A 262. A. B. C. D. Which is an example of non-conservative force? Force exerted is an example by the deformed spring Restoring force on the bob of a conical pendulum Frictional force of ball bearing Restoring force of a simple pendulum which is provided by gravity

Ans. C 263. Which of the following quantities is a scalar? A. Momentum B. Force C. Velocity D. Pressure Ans. D 264. A. B. C. D. Hydraulic piston actuators may be used when ____________. The system is powered by hydroelectric power The flow rate of water is being controlled The force on the bottom of the piston is greater than the force acting on top of the piston Process lines operate under high pressure

Ans. D 265. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the ____________. A. Metered in circuit B. Metered out circuit C. Bleed in circuit D. Bleed off circuit 266. Ans. D Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is develop __________. A. B. C. D. Only by the pump as its primary function By resistance to the fluid flow through the system By the thermal input to the systems fluid Solely by the charge applied by the accumulators

Ans. B 267. The pressure of an operating hydraulic system as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a result of fluid flow overcoming _________. A. Internal resistance to flow B. Resistance of the internal components

36

C. The load applied to the system D. All are correct Ans. D 268. Which of the following is mot common type of valving element used in hydraulic system directional control valves? A. B. C. D. Nutating disk Sliding spool Elongated ball or cone Restricted orifice poppet

Ans. B 269. An orifice check valve placed in a hydraulic system is used to _________. A. Regulate the flow in either direction B. Restrict the movement of hydraulic fluid in one direction, but allow free movement in the other direction C. Allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions D. Allow a restricted fluid flow in one direction only Ans. D 270. .Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. B. C. D. Sequencing valve Two position valve Three position valve Spring centered valve

Ans. A 271. Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system dioirectional control valve? A. Three position valve B. Sequencing valve C. Unloading valve D. Counterbalance valve Ans. A 272. A. B. C. D. The purpose of a restrictor valve as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover, is to ______. Prevent oil backflow to the actuators Prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating Control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing Restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use

Ans. C 273. A device incorporating a variable orifice place in series with a check valve in a hydraulic system is used to ____________.

37

A. B. C. D.

Allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions Allow fluid flow in one direction only Allow throttled fluid in one direction only Restricted hydraulic fluid flow in both directions

Ans. C 274. Which of the valves listed is not considered to be hydraulic system directional control valve? A. B. C. D. Two position valve Tree position valve Detented position valve Counterbalanced valve

Ans. D 275. Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to established the maximum operating pressure of a hydraulic system? A. B. C. D. Pressure reducing valve Unloading valve Counterbalance valve Pressure relief valve Ans. D 276. At high pressure, an O-ring has a tendency to extrude into the clearance space between the mating parts of the hydraulic actuator. Which of the listed components is used to prevent extrusion? A. Double seal ring B. Lathe cut ring C. Backup ring D. Static washer Ans. C 277. In which of the listed hydraulic system components could an O-ring seal be satisfactory used in providing a seal? A. B. C. D. High pressure pump shaft casing Low pressure pump shaft casing Linear without nylon insert Relief valve spool

Ans. D 278. A. B. C. D. Which of the following devices is not considered to be a pressure vessel? Low pressure evaporator Deaerating feed heater Hydraulic fluid power cylinder Fuel oil heater

38

Ans. C 279. A. B. C. D. The purpose of an accumulator in an hydraulic system is to________. Collect any dirt in the system Collect fluid from any small leak Preheat the fluid during cold weather Store potential energy in the form of hydraulic under pressure in the system

Ans. D 280. A. B. C. D. One function provided by a accumulation is to __________ Provide an area where air can separate from the oil Provide an area to separate solid contaminants from the oil Acts as an oil and water separator Absorb shocks occurring in the system

Ans. D 281. One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-close hydraulic system is to supply fluid flow to _________________. A. B. C. D. The reservoir A servo control circuit Position a manually controlled valve The main system accumulators under all operating conditions

Ans. B 282. A. B. C. D. In a fixed displacement axial piston hydraulic motor, the speed is varied by: Regulating the ratio between torque and speed via the torque limiter at the motor Directing the motor output flow through a bypass line Maintaining a constant flow and pressure input Controlling the input flow rate

Ans. D 283. When charging a compression refrigeration system with vapor, the charging is done to the ____________-. A. B. C. D. Charging valve on the liquid line Suction side of the compressor Low side of the compressor Receiver side of the compressor

Ans. B 284. A single pass condenser is known as______________. A. Mono flow type B. Double pressure type C. Scoop type D. Thermal type

39

Ans. C 285. A fore and aft reference line at the upper surface of the flat plate keel at the centerline on flush shell plated vessels or the thickness of the garboard strake above that level for ships having lapse am shell is called__________. A. B. C. D. Bollard pull Broaching Baseline Bracket

Ans. C 286. What precautionary measure/s is/are to be observed when starting on a R-22 compressor? A. B. C. D. Thoroughly ventilate the space before doing the job Depressurize by loosening filter Freon can be toxic Check all valve

Ans. D 287. The property of a liquid whereby it own molecules are attracted to each other is known as _______. A. B. C. D. Cohesion Bulk tension Surface tension Adhesion

Ans. A 288. A comfortable room temperature is 72 deg. F. Which is the equivalent of this temperature in degrees Celsius? A. B. C. D. 15.250C 17.820C 22.220C 13.330

Ans. C 289. When suction pressure is decreased, the horsepower per ton refrigeration will___. A. Decrease B. Remain the same C. Decrease ten increase D. Increase Ans. D 290. As suction pressure drops in a Freon 22, compressor capacity will__________. A. Increase B. Remain the same

40

C. Decrease D. Increase then decrease Ans. C 291. A. B. C. D. If tonnage increased as the suction pressure is increased, horsepower will ______. Remain the same Increase Decrease Increase then decrease

Ans. C 292. The temperature on a wet-bulb thermometer equals the dry-bulb temperature when ________. A. B. C. D. Wet air is below freezing The air saturated with moisture Blown air has no moisture Can never happen

Ans. B 293. A. B. C. D. If compression ratio and horse power increases, tonnage ___________. Decreases Vacuum increases Will not change None of the above

Ans. A 294. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 295. A. B. C. D. Ans. A 296. If an R-12 system has too much refrigerant, it will result to __________. A. Low head pressure B. Low suction pressure C. Low motor current low Which refrigerant is the least flammable and the most toxic? Freon 11 Propane Octane gas Methyl chloride What causes oil to foam in the compressor crankcase? Load change Pressure change Temperature change Mechanical change

41

D. High head pressure Ans. D 297. The refrigerant in the evaporator absorbs heat from air or brine because liquid refrigerant entering it___________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 298. In a Freon-12 compressor with a splash scoop lubrication system, what causes the oil to foam? A. B. C. D. Ans. B 299. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 300. A most desirable quality of Freon refrigerant is _________. A. Good surface wetting characteristics B. Complete miscibility in mineral oil C. Relatively high coefficient of performance tan R-717 D. That they dont break down when exposed to gas flame in a temperature range of 1100 to 1300oF Ans. B 301. A bourdon tube type steam pressure gauge is fitted with a siphon loop to prevent damage from____________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 302. Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to ___________. A. Decrease sludge formation in lubricating oil The admission of condensate Extreme thermal stress Pressure shock Differential expansion rates Freaon-12 is similar to methyl chloride because_________. Cost is approximately the same Their vapor densities are the same No chemical composition is required Both are miscible in oil Work over shortage of refrigerant Sudden drop in crankcase pressure Not enough oil in the crankcase Overcharge of refrigerant Maximum higher temperature than the air or brine Has a lower temperature than the air or brine Can boil to a low pressure gas Boils to a high pressure gas

42

B. Cause to separate from oil C. Improve the lubricating oil viscosity D. Displace lubricating oils required in areas of friction Ans. D 303. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 304. To add oil to an R 12 reciprocating compressor that has been shut down for this purpose, the oil__________. A. B. C. D. Is pumped into the service valve of the compressor crankcase Must be pumped into the service valve of the high pressure liquid line Is sucked into the service valve on the discharge side of the compressor Should not be pumped into the service valve of the compressor discharge The oil trap should be installed on refrigeration system_________. In the suction line as far as possible from the compressor At the liquid line as far as possible from compressor In the discharge line as far as possible from the compressor Between the suction line after the accumulator

Ans. A 305. Which is not used to lubricate a Freon-12 compressor? A. B. C. D. Ans. D 306. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 307. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 308. The fire fire point of a refrigerant oil means the ____________. A. Temperature at which oil vapor will flash when exposed to a flame B. Firing temperature in which oil will burn below 100 degrees C. Explosive temperature at which was first separates from the oil A refrigerant oil tested to have a low neutralization number indicates _________. Totally unstable oil with corrosive acids presents Undesirable refrigerant oil Due to uncertain composition of organic acids A stable oil with few corrosive acids present Which is NOT true about refrigerant oils? Wax refrigerant oil should not contain sulfur components Refrigerant oils should have a high resistance to the flow of electricity Refrigerant oils have a low flash point and fire point Many refrigerant oils should have a pour point low enough to flow at low temperature Drop cup Loop and chain Reactor gun Splash

43

D. The temperature at which oil will continue to burn Ans. D 309. The dielectric property of oil refers to the________. A. Separate compounds in the oil that can absorb or release heat with little or no change in temperature B. Highest temperature at which free water is liberated on the cooling of the oil C. Amount of moisture in a refrigerant oil, which may be measured by its resistance to the flow of electric current. D. Heating temperature at which an oil will continue to burn Ans. C 310. A. B. C. D. Raising head pressure raises discharge temperature and __________. Less power needed per to of refrigeration Suction temperature is decreased More power is needed per ton of refrigeration Energy needed during suction is increased

Ans. C 311. It is desired to operate an air compressor with a 30.54 cm flywheel at a speed of 510RPM. If a motor runs at 1750RPM, what size of motor pulley should be used? A. 6.3cm B. 8.8cm Ans. B 312. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and a after cooler to_________. A. Increase compressor efficiency and economy B. Reduce the compressed air charge density Ans. A 313. To obtain maximum efficiency, two stage air compressor are usually ______. A. Fitted with intercoolers B. Operated in an unloaded condition at all times Ans. A 314. Aftercoolers are used with air compressor to__________. A. Reduce temperature of compressed air B. Decrease the density of compressed air Ans. A 315. If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor becomes fouled either internally or externally, the______________, A. Volumetric efficiency will be decrease

44

B. Discharge pressure will decrease Ans. A 316. The heat of compression is partially removed from the compressed air by _________. A. Compressor water jackets B. All are correct Ans. B 317. Why do you drain the condensate from the intercooler and aftercoolers of an air compressor? A. A danger of explosion exists whenever water is present in a compressor B. Water causes erratic operation of pneumatic components Ans. B 318. For any given volme of compressed air produced by a multistage air compressor, interstage cooling will_________ A. Increase the power required for compression B. Decrease the power required for compression Ans. B 319. filter? Which of the following statements describes the functions of an air compressor intake

A. Prevents lubricating oil contamination of the compressed air supply B. Protects against damaging effects of airborne solid particle Ans. B 320. Moistures and impurities can be removed from the pneumatic systems by using ________. A. Multi-orifice suction valves B. Blowndown valves and filters Ans. B 321. Air lubricators are used in compressed air system to lubricate ____________. A. The suction and discharge valves B. Tools and equipment served by compressed air Ans. B 322. What is the primary function of unloading system on an air compressor? A. Reduce the compressor motor load below the designed operating values when starting B. Reduce the compress frictional load when starting

45

Ans. A 323. Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the compressor to __________ A. Vary their speed according to temperature and load B. Start and come up to speed before air compression begins Ans. B 324. In addition to pressure gauge and relief valve, an air receiver should be fitted with a ______. A. Thermometer and manhole B. Drain connection Ans. B 325. If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing, you should fix them by _____. A. Spraying oil on the belts B. Tightening the belts Ans. B 326. If one drive bolt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should ______. A. Replace that belt only B. Replace all of the belts Ans. B 327. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 328. Lubricant base oil generally exhibit boiling points above________. A. 150deg. Centigrade B. 200 deg. Centigrade C. 250 deg. Centigrade D. 300 deg. Centigrade Ans. D 329. Which type of crude oil that contains asphaltic material but little or no wax? Refined lubricant base oil properties are greatly influenced by what factor? Refining process Crude oil origin or composition Oil additives Chemical treatment

A. Paraffinic
B. Mixed base C. Naphthenic D. Mixture of paraffinic and mixed base

46

Ans. C 330. A. B. C. D. What is meant by solvent extraction? Vacuum distillation process Physical process removing aromatic Atmospheric distillation process Hybrid process

Ans. B 331. Crude oils are roughly classified as ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans. A 332. Base oil combination are selected are to meet_____________. Paraffinic, naphthenic and mixed base Straight and branch chain Waxy and asphaltic Heavy and light

A. Pour point
B. Viscosity C. Operational condition D. Oxidation stability Ans. C 333. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 334. A. B. C. D. Oxygen inhibitors are_____________. Removing oxygen from the oil Dissolving in the oil Preventing rust Counteracting chemical breakdown Friction modifiers or Oiliness additives will__________. Improve viscosity index Reduce friction under boundary condition Increase the pour point Extend lubricating oil life time

Ans. D 335. What type of hydrocarbon having good chemical stability with higher viscosity index and low pour point? A. B. C. D. Branched chain hydrocarbons Aromatic hydrocarbons Cyclic hydrocarbons Straight chain hydrocarbons

Ans. A

47

336. Which type of hydrocarbon that has poor chemical stability, low pour point with moderate viscosity index? A. B. C. D. Ans. A 337. Some of the principal molecular structures present in minerals oils are the following EXCEPT_________. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 338. Which statement is true about the friction of an electrode as an essential part of a typical arch welding? A. It carrier electric current from the power source to melt the parent metal B. An essential part which the current flows between electrode holder and arc Ans. B 339. What is the effect of straight polarity in a given workpiece? A. It provides a wider weld surface area B. It increases penetration of weld Ans. B 340. How is the vertical position welding carried out? A. By positioning the weld with the axis perpendicular to the ground B. By placing the weld with the axis parallel to the ground Ans. A 341. A. B. C. D. What is the purpose of a vessels bilge keels? Assist in reducing rolling Improve vessel steering response Reinforce the bilge knuckled in way of double bottom tanks Provide strengthening of the bilge plating through the mid-body Cyclic hydrocarbon Aromatic hydrocarbon Straight chain hydrocarbon Branched aromatic hydrocarbon Aromatic hydrocarbon Branched chain hydrocarbon Cyclic hydrocarbon Straight chain hydrocarbon

Ans. A 342. Archimedes principle states that the resultant pressure acting on a body immersed in a fluid_______. A. Acts vertically upward through the center of gravity of the displacement fluid and is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced

48

B. Will cause the body to have a reduction in mass equal in magnitude to the effective mass of the structure located above the line of floatation C. Is proportional in magnitude and direction, regardless of the direction originally developed when the object was submerged D. Is applied equal and in all directions throughout the vessel in which it is contained Ans. A 343. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 344. A. B. C. D. When flooding occurs in a damage vessel, reserve buoyancy______. Decreases Remains the same Increases Shifts to the low side Reserve buoyancy is the __________. Unoccupied space below the waterline Volume of intact space above the waterline Excess of the buoyant force over gravitational force Difference between buoyant in salt and fresh waters

Ans. A 345. Flooding of any compartment in a ship, resulting in a serious loss of reserve buoyancy will always_____________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 346. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 347. The vessel should normally behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through the center gravity and all of its support is acting upward through the _______. A. B. C. D. Ans. B Keel Center of buoyancy Tipping center Amidships section If a vessel looses its reserve buoyancy, it will____________. Float upright with the main deck awash Capsize and float on its side Remain unaffected if the hull remains intact Most likely sink Increase ship stability Reduce ship stability Cause a serious permanent list Decrease the heeling moment

49

348. When a vessel is inclined due to an external force, such as the action of seas in which no cargo shifts, the tendency of the vessel to return to its original position is caused by the shift in ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. A 349. In a small angle stability, when external forces exists, the buoyancy force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the _______. Center of buoyancy Center of gravity Center of floatation Metacentric radius

A. Center of gravity
B. Center of floatation C. Metacenter D. Metacentric height Ans. C 350. A diesel engine should not be operated at low loads for long periods of time because ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 351. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 352. The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet cylinder liner must allow for liner axial movement. This seal is most commonly a _________. A. B. C. D. Ans. A 353. Failure to remove the carbon ridge from top of the cylinder when replacing the piston rings, will result in___________. A. A damage upper piston and/or ring lands B. Scored piston walls C. Damage cylinder liners Neoprene O-ring Soft copper gasket Precision ground flange joint Flexible metallic seal A property honed diesel engine cylinder liner will_____. Prevent piston ring wear Shorten the ring break in period Prevent cylinder liner glazing Appear slick and glazed Heavy carbon deposits will buildup on the valves and in the exhaust Fuel dilution is increased at low load Exhaust valves may be damage All of the above

50

D. Deformed piston skirts Ans. A 354. The most severe cavitation erosion occurring on the waterside of diesel engine wet cylinder lines normally occurs ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 355. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 356. Loop, uniflow, cross flow, and return-flow are terms used to describe various type _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 357. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 358. In an emergency situation due to limited fresh water supply, what type of boiler can use impure water or worst sea water? A. B. C. D. Ans. D 359. What boiler safety interlock tat prevent the flash up sequence starting unless burner assembly is tightly secured? Water tube boiler Fire tube boiler Single pass boiler Double pass boiler Which is NOT a fire tube boiler? Scotch boiler Leg type boiler Vertical boiler Three pass boiler Control air circuits Supercharging Turbochargers Scavenging A crack cylinder can be caused by ______________. Worn piston rings Installation of undersized sealing rings Operating the engine at low loads Restricted cooling water passages Throughout the lower one-half of the liner Throughout the upper one-half of the liner At TDC opposite the thrust side of the liner Near the middle of the thrust side of the liner

A. Cup burner safety interlock 51

B. Power failure C. Burner hinges safety interlock D. Burner failure safety interlock Ans. C 360. Where does the oil and acids form a layer of soap like substance inside the boiler?

A. Bottom of the boiler

B. Steam drum C. Along the water line D. Mud drum Ans. C 361. What do you call a decrease in boiler metal thickness which appear as a small holes eaten in metal due to corrosion? A. B. C. D. Ans. D 362. A succession of small pits which often occur along the normal water line in a boiler is called? Rusting Pitting Grooving Honeycombing

A. Pitting
B. Rusting C. Honeycombing D. Grooving Ans. C 363. What do you call a flow of electric current between two metals having different chemical properties?

A. Chemical reaction
B. Chain reaction C. Galvanic action D. Electromotive force Ans. C 364. It is an oxygen hungry chemical which remove oxygen from a solution________.

A. Adjunct B
B. Coagulant C. Sulfite D. Phosphate Ans. C

52

365. What do you call the procedure of neutralizing an unknown solution with reagent of known quality?

A. Water test
B. Chemical analysis C. Titration D. Filtration Ans. C 366. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 367. Which of the following is an inert gas can cause no damage to the boiler? What kind of gases make boiler acidic and may cause severe damage to the boiler? Nitrogen and Helium Oxygen and carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide and nitrogen Nitrogen and hydrogen

A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen C. Nitrogen D. Helium Ans. C 368. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 369. Which of the following conditions can cause water hammering which may lead to vibration and possible rapture of the pipeline? A. B. C. D. Ans. C 370. What is the reason why water tube boiler can generate steam pressure faster than any other type of boilers? Steam and air flow together in a pipeline Steam and moisture meet in the pipeline Steam and water flow together in the pipeline Pure steam flow in the pipeline What is being determined in an accumulation test of boiler safety valves? How fast the safety valve can open or close Discharge capacity of safety valve Strength of safety valve Durability of valve

A. Higher heat transfer

B. Higher thermal heat efficiency C. Less volume of water D. Higher heat conductivity

53

Ans. C 371. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 372. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 373. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 374. When there is an increase in load on your boiler, what is needed to attain a good combustion? A. B. C. D. Ans. B 375. As the pH level of the boiler water approaches zero, the water condition is becoming _______. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 376. What do you call the kind of impurities that remains dissolved in water when its cold, but settle out of solution when the temperature is raised above a certain critical limit? Neutral Acidic Alkaline Soft Decrease fuel rate and air Increase air and fuel rate Increase temperature and turbulence Decrease fuel temperature When cooling down the boiler, what is the main reason for opening the air vent? Relieve the residual pressure Hasten the cooling down process Avoid vacuum formation in the steam drum Reduce drum pressure rapidly Which type of boiler that require heavy insulation in order to minimize radiation loss? Fire tube boiler Water tube boiler Exhaust gas boiler Scotch boiler What is the type of easing of the main stop valve initial firing of boiler form cold state? Relieve pressure in the boiler Avoid thermal stress Avoid uneven metal expansion Prevent jamming caused by expansion

A. Oil coating impurities

B. Dissolve solids C. Scale forming impurities

54

D. Colloidial solution Ans. C 377. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 378. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 379. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 380. A. B. C. D. Ans. A 381. A. B. C. D. Ans. A 382. In an automated control system, which of the following statements would apply to any type of closed loop system? A. The manipulated variable are adjusted only from the input demand signals without monitoring the outlet conditions or variables B. Another term commonly used in conjunction with this type of system is feed forward. A two-position single-point action controller has been adjusted to minimize Constant load conditions Intermittent load conditions Wide temperature fluctuations Rate action only A displacer level sensor uses a ____________. Displacer lighter than the liquid in the process vessel Displacer heavier than the liquid in the process vessel Displacer exactly in weight to the volume of the liquid it displaces Displacer that varies in density from the bottom A reading of zero on a Bourdon tube instrument generally means ______. Absolute Zero Near absolute zero Equal to atmospheric pressure Absolute vacuum Which of the following are units of measurement for density EXCEPT_______. Tons per cubic yard Grams per cubic centimeter Pounds per cubic inch Kilogram per meter Which is the most temporary form of information storage? Magnetic tape EEPROM Hard disk RAM

55

C. The controlled variable must always deviate from its set pint before any corrective action is initiated by the controller D. In order for the system to fall under the category of closed loop control, there should be no adjustments required to be made manually by the operator Ans. C 383. The control mode where the position of the final control element has a linear relationship with the position or value of the controlled variable, is known as_____. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 384. A controller with floating action has a controlled variable where the range of values produces no motion of the final control element. This range of values is called the __________. A. B. C. D. Ans. A 385. The range of values through which the input can be initiating an output response is known as_________. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 386. The amount of current flow required for the cathodic protection of a vessel is dependent upon the_____. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 387. A. B. C. D. Ans. A Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges by the bilge main is prevented by______. Stop check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds Using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump Installing educators in all bilge wells Installing a swing check before each bilge valve Amount of bare steel surface Speed of the ship through the water Temperature of the atmosphere A, and B only Deviation Offset Sensitivity Dead band Neutral zone Set point Control point Offset Two position control Proportional control Reset control Rate control

56

388.

If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the _______. A. Bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely emptied B. Bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from being pumped out C. Bilge well connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the forward bilge wells D. All are correct

Ans. B 389. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST if one bilge wells of the multiple bilge suction system is unable to be pumped out? A. B. C. D. Ans. D 390. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 391. An independent bilge suction is required for_________. Bilge lines which led through tanks without using a pipe tunnel must be _____. Of schedule 40 pipe Fitted with return valves at the bilge manifolds Coated with coal tar epoxy, or similar corrosion resistance substance Fitted with non return valve at the bilge suction Open the bilge pump for inspection Remove each of the suction manifold valves Remove only suction manifold valve to the affected bilge well Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected

A. Ballast tanks
B. Sludge tanks C. Machinery space bilges D. Cargo hold bilges Ans. C 392. The boiling point if Freon 12 at atmospheric pressure is __________. Ans. -22oF 393. What is the element latent of fusion of ice? Ans. 144BTU 394. Crude petroleum is usually ______. Ans. 81 to 87% carbon, 10 to 15% hydrogen 395. The grade of crude oil that varies in color from reddish brown to jet black, are principally used for fuel and road oil is the________ Ans. Asphalt base oils 396. The class of crude oil that is dark brown in color wit h a slightly reddish tinged is the _________.

57

Ans. Paraffin base oil 397. A grade of crude oil or partly refined crude from which such products as gasoline and kerosene have been removed is termed __________. Ans. Topped crude 398. To avoid hunting above or below the desires engine RPM, a hydraulic governor is equipped with a ________. Ans. Compensating device 399. Upon receiving an order FINISHED WITH ENGINES the main air stop valve of the propulsion engine must be: Ans. Closed 400. In V type engines the angles between banks is ___________ degrees. Ans. 30 to 120 401. The revolution/s of the crankshaft is/are needed to complete a cycle in a four stroke engine is_________. Ans. Two 402. The revolution/s of the crankshaft is /are needed to complete ONE cycle in a two stroke engine is ____________. Ans. One 403. Most pump manufactures of pumps recommend that the SUCTION piping dimension of centrifugal pumps be__________. Ans. One size larger than the pump suction nozzle 404. The ration absolute viscosity of oil to specific gravity of oil is called __________. Ans. Kinetic viscosity 405. What is generally accepted inlet and outlet cooling water temperature difference of a diesel engine closed cooling could ________________. Ans. 10 to 20oF 406. In securing a centrifugal distillate pump, what step should be done FIRST? Ans. Close the discharge valves 407. What should you do when centrifugal pump vibrates excessively after disassembly; you found that the impeller is out of balance? Ans. Remove metal from the heavy side by machining in lathe 408. An Edwards type air pump has _________.

58

Ans. One set of valve 409. In a duplex reciprocating pump ________. Ans. The slide valve of one cylinder is controlled by the piston rod of the other cylinder 410. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump is adjusted by _____. Ans. Changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod 411. The type of pump used in the steering gear of modern ships is _________. Ans. Vane 412. A marine pump that is used in transferring fuel oil is the ________. Ans. Rotary pump 413. The result of overheating of a hydraulic system mat be__________. Ans. Incorrect fluid viscosity / internal slippage 414. A valve that is NOT considered a hydraulic system direction control valve is the ___________. Ans. Unloading valve 415. The device that is considered as hydraulic system direction control valve is the _____. Ans. Three position valve 416. What is the minimum permissible flash point of hydraulic fluid in a system that operates at 250psi? Ans. 315oF 417. He type of bearing is installed on the main generating set is _______-. Ans. Sleeve 418. In shipboard application, which of the listed sealing device is most similar to an O ring? Ans. Quad ring 419. The cause if there is a change air pressure drop in a generator engine is___. Ans. Turbocharger air filter fouled 420. In coolers zinc anode protects _________. Ans. Iron 421. In a seven day period, the minimum standard rest of an officer in charge of the engineering watch must be ______. Ans. 70 hours

59

422. The minimum standard rest of rating forming part of an engineering watch with in a 24 hour period should be __________. Ans. 10 hours 423. What component in the control room is the entire housing of the computers, controls and visual signals are located? Ans. Console 424. What deck to be the pressure of emergency fire pump tested? Ans. Highest deck 425. If there is a leak in Freon system, the flame color of the halide torch will turn to _____. Ans. Green 426. He factor tat tends to increase scale formation at the salt water side of the heat exchanger is by_______. Ans. Operating the engine with a high seawater outlet temperature 427. A perfect vacuum is represented by_________. Ans. 30in. Hg 428. A port and helix injection pump having upper and lower plunger helixes is designed to _________. Ans. Vary the beginning and ending of injection 429. The broken nozzle pintle in a fuel injector usually causes_______. Ans. Distortion of the spray pattern 430. The horsepower and speed capability utilized by the engine without interruption is the __________. Ans. Continuous rating 431. In a diesel engine, the fuel consumption is expressed in ______. Ans. Grams per horsepower per hour 432. The refrigerating ring of a 4 stroke engine piston is installed at the _________-. Ans. 288,000BTU 433. A ton of refrigerating is equivalent to ___________. Ans. 200 BTU / Min 434. It is a ductile and malleable metal usually corroded by air or water is the _______.

60

Ans. Aluminum 435. Te ability of a material to permanently deform without rupture under tensile load is called ___________. Ans. Ductility 436. The characteristic of a material to suddenly break with little or no prior deformation is called ___________. Ans. Brittleness 437. The ability of metal to resists indentation, abrasion, wear and cutting is called____. Ans. Hardness 438. Which of the following is the property of a material tat enables it to resists strain when stress is applied? Ans. Strength 439. The material that composed of a large amount of chromium is the ________. Ans. Stainless steel 440. Material that can be easily bent, cut and does NOT exhibit great tensile strength as compared with other materials is the __________. Ans. Mild steel 441. A metal tat has strong reaction to magnet is the ___________-. Ans. Steel 442. Rapid identification of the metal can be determined through the following physical observations: I Surface appearance II Reaction to magnet III Length of the metal Ans. I and II 443. Metals usually used in machinery parts are stronger than mild steel is the ______. Ans. Medium carbon steel 444. The ferrous metal that is commonly used as cutting tools is the _______. Ans. High carbon steel 445. A metal alloy that is more resistant to corrosion is the _________. Ans. Stainless steel

61

446.

Corrosion to resistant metal is an alloy with large amount of nickel and _______. Ans. Chromium

447.

For marine use, which of these alloys is more resistant to acid and scaling? Ans. Stainless steel

448.

A kind of iron that has a composition of about 93% iron is the_____. Ans. Pig iron

449. Reheating a hardened metal to a temperature lower than the temperature and then cooling it is known as ________. Ans. Tempering 450. The process of using zinc, metal that is resistant to atmospheric corrosion when using as coating for steel is called_____________. Ans. Galvanizing 451. The metal tat is used as an alloying material in the manufacture of various special steels is the____________. Ans. Vanadium 452. The variable gas pressure within the cylinders and the connecting rod mechanism during the working cycle creates ________. Ans. Torsional vibration 453. An excessive vibrations created by the main propulsion machinery are determined to the _________. Ans. Electronic equipment 454. In securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should closed the ________. Ans. Cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hose and regulators is zero 455. The steps you should do when using an oxyacetylene outfit for welding, is to _______. Ans. Open the acetylene cylinder valve only to turn and leaver the wrench on the valve stem 456. Regarding oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and two pressure gages. One pressure gage indicates cylinder pressure and the other is used to indicate which the________. Ans. Hose pressure 457. If the welding is being done on mold steel with a shielded metal arc electrode and getting only shallow penetration, you should ________.

62

458.

Ans. Increase the amperage Soft solders have relatively low melting points and consist mainly of_________ Ans. Lead Base alloy

459.

The metals usually used in incandescent lights aboard ship are the ______. Ans. Platinum

460.

A material usually used in grinding wheel aboard ship is the __________. Ans. Silicon

461.

The composition of babbit metal includes________-. I Tin II Lead III Antimony IV Copper

Ans. I, II, III and IV 462. Which of these are atmospheric hazards in an enclosed space? I Presence of hydrocarbon II Existence of toxic III Adequate ventilation IV Deficiency in oxygen Ans. I, II and IV 463. The type of its used in assembling a rotating shaft and bearing is the ______. Ans. Clearance fits 464. The type of fits be observe when assembling the end bell and housing of an electric motor is the________. Ans. Transitional fits 465. What type of fits is necessary in the assembly of mating parts with the use of hydraulic press? Ans. Interference fits 466. Air being drawn into the system of a refrigeration system will result in? A. Lower suction pressure B. Higher suction pressure C. Frosting on the suction side of the compressor Ans. A 467. Which of the following is a result of dirty tubes in the condenser? A. Lower back pressure for the compressor B. Lower condensing pressure of the refrigerant C. Higher back pressure for the compressor

63

Ans. C 468. In a hot gas defrosting method, refrigerant is directed from ________. A. Compressor discharge directly to evaporator B. Evaporator inlet bypassing the cooling coil to evaporate outlet C. Receiver directly to evaporator Ans. A 469. Which is the probable caused of compressor short cycling on the low pressure side of a refrigeration system? A. System is overcharge B. Improper adjustment C. Dirty expansion valve Ans. C 470. The reason for high discharge pressure is _________. A. Closed discharge valve B. Damage compressor discharge valve C. Closed liquid receiver valve Ans. A 471. The thermal expansion valve is triggered to open by _________. A. Compressor cutting in B. Rise in temperature of the cooling coils C. Drop in temperature of cooling coils Ans. B 472. What occurs if the temperature in the refrigerating space rises above normal? A. The automatic defroster will activate. B. The solenoid valve will open. C. The thermal expansion valve will close. Ans. B 473. While in port, the watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration compressor has blown the shaft seal. In this situation, he should ________. A. Secure the compressor at once and close the suction and discharge valves B. Tighten the shaft seal packing to reduce the leakage, slow the compressor and operate the expansion valve by hand until repair can be made Ans. A 474. Which of the following results is caused by lower boiling point of a refrigerant? A. Lower compression pressure B. Lower compression in compressor outlet

64

C. Lower temperature in evaporator chamber Ans. C

475.

An eight cylinder, four stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 650 mm bore and a 1400 mm stroke. What will be developed indicated metric horsepower if the average mean effective pressure is 30 kg/cm2 at a speed of 100 RPM? A. 1,689 kW B. 9,111 kW C. 12,338 kW Ans. C Formula: Spring constant = A x 1 = 300,000 kg/m2 2 (0.000105 ) (100) metric 4,500 2 IHP (4 stroke) = MEP (Spring constant) (RPM) = 1548.55 x 8 CYL

476.

A seven cylinder, 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 750 mm bore and a 2000 mm stroke. What indicated power will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 14.8 kg/cm2 at a speed of 96 RPM? A. 3,906 kW B. 7,182 kW C. 14,363 kW Ans. C

477.

What is the metric brake horse power developed per cylinder by an 83% efficient, six cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a cylinder constant of 0.998 and a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at 100 RPM? A. 1,497 kW B. 1,242 kW C. 926 kW Ans. B

478. What is the average piston speed of a seven-cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a 580 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke operating at 100 RPM? A. 4.5 m/sec B. 5.7 m/sec C. 9.0 m/sec Ans. B 479. A piston is at bottom dead center when it is __________. A. Opening the exhaust ports B. Farthest from the cylinder head Ans. B 480. While a piston is said to be at top dead center, it is __________. A. Farthest from the cylinder head B. Nearest to the cylinder head

65

Ans. B 481. The cubic inch displacement of a cylinder is determined by the diameter of the piston and the __________. A. Volume of the clearance space B. Weight of the piston C. Length of the stroke Ans. C 482. Displacement of an engine is equal to the cylinder _________. A. Area times the stroke B. Area times the stroke, times the number of cylinders C. Volume times the stroke Ans. B 483. Engine displacement is equal to piston __________. A. Area times the piston stroke B. Area times the piston stroke times the number of cylinders C. Volume times the piston stroke Ans. B 484. The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers to the ratio between the ________. A. Cylinder volumes at top dead center and at bottom dead center B. Engine cylinder size to piston size Ans. A 485. When compression ratio of a diesel engine is increased while maintaining the designed rate of fuel flow will result in ________.

A. Increased horsepower
B. Reduced efficiency Ans. A 486. Which of the following relationships should occur between the temperature developed in a combustion space, and the compression ratio of the engine? A. Higher compression ratios create higher temperature B. Higher temperatures create higher compression ratios Ans. A 487. The ratio of the brake horsepower to the indicated horsepower of a diesel engine is its __________. A. Thermal efficiency B. Mechanical efficiency C. Brake thermal efficiency

66

Ans. B 488. The most important factor in engine performance is the actual power output at the end of the crankshaft available for doing work. This is known as ___________. A. Indicated horsepower B. Brake horsepower C. Friction horsepower Ans. B 489. Diesel engine attained its maximum horsepower ___________. A. When the engine RPM is pulled down by overload B. At rated engine RPM C. At 95% of rated engine RPM Ans. B 490. RPM? What is the average piston speed of an engine with a 12 inch stroke, operating at 900

A. 1500 ft/min B. 1800 ft/min 491. Ans. B The term PLAN/33,000 is equal to the __________.

A. IHP
B. BHP Ans. A 492. In the diesel engine, after ignition of the fuel occurs, but before the piston reaches TDC, there is little change in the cylinder __________.

A. Volume
B. Pressure Ans. A 493. The greatest temperature drop in a small appliance using HFC 134a is across the _________. A. Evaporator B. Capillary tube C. Receiver Ans. B 494. The component of a refrigerating system in which the refrigerant vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as the __________. A. Condenser B. Accumulator

67

C. Evaporator Ans. C 495. The refrigerant enters the compressor in an operating refrigeration system under normal condition as a _________. A. Liquid B. Wet saturated gas C. Superheated vapor Ans. C 496. In which of the listed refrigeration system components does superheating of the refrigerant take place? A. Expansion valve B. Evaporator C. Receiver Ans. B 497. The refrigerant gas returning to the compressor should be __________.

A. Superheated
B. Saturated Ans. A 498. In a refrigeration system, the low pressure side is considered to exist from the ________. A. Expansion valve to the compressor B. Receiver to the expansion coil C. Condenser to expansion valve Ans. A 499. In a compression refrigeration cycle, the temperature of the liquid refrigerant experiences its greatest decrease in the _______. A. Compressor B. Expansion valve C. Condenser Ans. B 500. When refrigerant leaves the receiver, it flows next on to the ___________. A. Evaporator coil B. Liquid strainer C. Compressor Ans. B 501. Refrigerant enters the condenser as a __________. A. High pressure liquid B. Low pressure vapor

68

C. High pressure vapor Ans. C 502. In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant temperature decreases the most in the _________. A. Evaporator B. Condenser C. Expansion valve Ans. C 503. In a refrigeration system, leaving the metering device is a __________. A. Sub-cooled vapor B. Saturated liquid/vapor mixture Ans. B 504. Which of the following instruments can be used to measure the rate of air flow? A. Thermometer B. Anemometer Ans. B 505. Which of the pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a hydraulics system before a second action would be permitted? A. Counterbalance valve B. Unloading valve C. Sequence valve Ans. C 506. Which of the listed pressure-control valves is used in a hydraulic system to prevent the stray movements of a vertical load until required? A. Pressure reducing valve B. Counterbalance valve C. Unloading valve Ans. B 507. Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower than the required operating pressure will result in ________. A. Accelerated action of the system component B. Overheating of the system C. Overspeeding of the hydraulic pump Ans. B 508. As a general rule of thumb, the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a capacity when the normal level, approximately equal to _________.

69

A. Two to three times the normal flow rate through the system B. The flow rate through the system C. Ten times the flow rate through the system Ans. A 509. A reservoir as used in hydraulic systems aboard the ship is used to store hydraulic oil. Another function is to _____________. A. Act as a shock absorber B. Maintain the stored oil under pressure C. Act as a base or foundation for the power unit Ans. C 510. An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainer to help reduce the possibility of ____________.

A. Pump cavitations
B. Spongy actuator movements Ans. A 511. Some fluid filters used is hydraulic systems are designed to cope with increasing pressure differentials by _____________. A. Automatically bypassing the fluid via an internal valve arrangement B. Diverting the pump discharge directly back to the suction Ans. A 512. Which of the following statements describes one of the functions of the ballasting system? A. To store reserve feed or potable water for extended cruises. B. To stabilize the ship by flooding certain designed tanks with seawater. Ans. B 513. A vessel over gross tons serving in coastwise trade and wishing to deballast its fuel tanks to a port facility must have a ________. A. Special outlet or adapter fitted to the discharge outlet/s on the weather deck B. Deballasting pump which is separate and independent of the ballast pump Ans. A 514. The term arriving ballast refers to ______________. A. Brackish water ballast B. Dirty ballast C. Clean ballast Ans. C

70

515.

A segregated ballast system is a system where ___________. A. Ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams B. All ballast lines, tanks and other independent of those used for oil Ans. B

516. A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by __________. A. Circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and debris B. Holding the slops onboard until they can be discharge to a shore reception facility Ans. B 517. When the oily water separator is in operation and processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water level? A. The water level in the oily water separator tank is found in the upper section of the tank. B. The water level in the tank is founding the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control valve. Ans. A 518. When operating the oily water separator, why is it necessary to prevent detergents mixing with the bilge water? A. The use of detergents is encouraged as they effectively clean separator internals while processing oily water mixtures. B. The detergents may cause the oily and water to become an emulsion which this unit is not capable of separating. Ans. B 519. Under what condition would the oily water separator fail to effectively process a mixture of oily water? A. When the oily water mixture is an emulsion the effectiveness of the separator is greatly reduced. B. Without detergents the effective ness of the separator is greatly reduced. Ans. A 520. The compound gauge indicates a slight vacuum while the oily water separator is in the oil discharge mode. The separator is __________. A. Operating correctly without the need for any adjustment B. Fouled and needs cleaning C. Operating correctly, but requires the gauge to be replaced Ans. C 521. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to _________. A. Reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump B. Prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction

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Ans. A 522. The flame screens installed on the sewage system tank vents prevent explosions by _______. A. Allowing the escape of flammable vapors B. Dissipating the heat of fire Ans. B 523. The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage particles is known as ____________. A. Detension B. Maceration Ans. B 524. In the sewage treatment, the term maceration refers to the process of ________. A. Breaking up solid matter into fine particles B. Precipitating nondecomposed waste in a collection tank Ans. A 525. Sewage treatment system aboard U.S. inspected vessels must be approved by the __________. A. Environmental Protection Agency B. U.S. Coast Guard C. American Bureau of Shipping Ans. B 526. Prior to entering a shipboard compartment containing spilled sewage, you should test the atmosphere in the compartment. For which of the following reasons should you be testing the atmosphere? A. Oxygen B. All are correct Ans. B 527. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by ________. A. Clogged suction strainer B. Defective intake valves Ans. A 528. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because _________. A. They are essentially self priming and reduce a high suction lift B. Stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps

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Ans. A 529. Why are removable sleeves installed in a centrifugal pump shafts? A. They increase the strength of the shaft. B. They can be economically replaced as they wear out. Ans. B 530. Which statement represents an advantage of rotary pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps? A. Rotary pumps eliminate discharge slippage liqu8id, while this does not hold true for the reciprocating pump. B. Rotary pump are capable of pumping more fluid than reciprocating pump of the same weight. Ans. B 531. Excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing is the result of _________. A. Opening a valve too quickly B. A scored valve stem Ans. B 532. What is the primary function of centrifugal pump volute? A. Limit the end trust. B. Initiate flow Ans. A 533. What type of pumps are generally used for small to medium discharge rate? A. Dynamic pressure pumps B. Roto dynamic pumps C. Positive displacement pumps Ans. C 534. In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by a / an _________. A. Letter B. All answers are correct Ans. A 535. When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should be ________. A. Recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor B. Consistently recorded through the Oil Record Book in one specified unit (cubic meter) Ans. B

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536.

Each completed pages of Oil Record Book must be signed by the __________. A. Chief Mate B. Master Ans. B

537.

If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book , you should ________. A. Completely black it out and make the correct entry alongside B. Draw a single line through the wrong entry and initial it Ans. B

538. When making a entries in the Oil Record Book, the date, operational code, and item number shall be inserted in the appropriate columns. Furthermore, then required particulars shall be ___________. A. Signed by the oiler who enters them in the Oil Record Book B. Recorded chronologically in the blank space Ans. B 539. The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for __________. A. Not less than 3 year and be readily available for inspection B. 6 months and then submitted to the nearest Marine Safety Office for review Ans. A 540. Which of the equipment listed is the most effective in processing bilges slops for overboard discharge A. A 15 PPM oily water separator. B. A magnetic duplex strainer Ans. A 541. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations, the minimum number of bolts permitted in an ANSI standard flange on an oil hose is ___________. A. Three B. Four Ans. B 542. Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be discharge overboard without being processed through an oily water separator? A. Cargo tank ballast B. Segregated ballast Ans. B

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543. If leak in an oil hose coupling can not be stopped by tightening the coupling bolts, you should _____________. A. Spread absorbent materials on deck beneath the leak B. Notify the terminal operator, then shutdown and repair the leak Ans. B 544. What do you call the devices that utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to entrain another fluid and thereby move it in one place to another? A. Mixed flow pumps B. Jet pumps Ans. B 545. which of the following methods applies to how the vacuum is created by a jet pump or an eductor? A. Centrifugal force converted into potential energy B. A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid C. A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle Ans. C 546. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber and the _________. A. Diffuser B. Siphon Ans. A 547. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the ___________. A. Discharge and being smaller than the suction end B. Small size of impeller C. Lack of moving parts Ans. C 548. Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo pumps is correct? A. A pump room is not necessary. B. The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft. Ans. A 549. When operating with a negative suction ahead, which of the following types of pumps will require priming? A. Reciprocating B. Centrifugal Ans. B

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550. One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the ___________. A. Stuffing box diameter B. Direction of rotation of the screws C. pitch of the screws Ans. C 551. One of the disadvantages of screw-type positive displacement rotary pumps is that they have_________. A. High internal velocities B. Performance characteristic sensitive to viscosity change Ans. B 552. Lost of pump efficiency may be the result of _________. A. Air entering the pump through a pin hole leak in the discharge manifold B. A leak in a gasket on the suction side of the pump Ans. B 553. When raising steam in a cold boiler, the air vent is to be closed when _____. A. Steam has formed and air has been vented. B. Economizer drain is closed C. All burners are firing normally Ans. A 554. A test conducted on safety valves to determine its discharge capacity and to ensure if valve is of sufficient size to adequately protect the boiler shell or drum from bursting due to excessive steam pressure is __________. A. Hydrostatic test B. Accumulation test Ans. B 555. In the most boilers, the primary reason the first few rows of generating tubes, called screen or furnace row tubes, are made larger in diameter than the rest of the generating tubes is because ____________. A. They require more water flow since they are exposed to the greatest heat B. They must screen the superheater from the direct radiant heat of the burners Ans. A 556. Which of the listed boiler components is used to equalize the distribution of water to the generating tubes and provide an area for the accumulation of loose scale and other solid matter present in the boiler water? A. Water drum only B. Water drum and headers

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Ans. B 557. In scotch boiler, which mounting is used to speed up circulation and caused even heating of the boiler when started up from cold? A. Salinometer cock B. Hydrokineter valve Ans. B 558. The thermal energy produced by an internal combustion engine is transformed into_____________. A. External energy B. Mechanical energy Ans. B 559. Which of the factors listed has the greatest effect on the mechanical efficiency of a diesel engine? A. Temperature of the intake air B. Friction within the engine Ans. B 560. Persistent knocking of one cylinder of a diesel engine ceases when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. This problem may be a result of __________. A. Low loading of that cylinder B. Faulty combustion in that cylinder Ans. B 561. Poor combustion in a diesel engine can be caused by __________. A. High compression pressure B. Low intake air temperature Ans. B 562. Exhaust gases in a two stroke/cycle diesel engine are discharge through ______. A. Exhaust ports or valves B. Direct to the atmosphere Ans. A 563. The highest pressure in the diesel engine cylinder normally occurs_________. A. At TDC B. Before TDC C. After TDC Ans. C

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564.

The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called ________. A. yaw B. sway C. heave D. surge Ans. D

565.

the horizontal port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called ________. A. yaw B. sway C. surge D. heave Ans. B

566.

Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is known as ______. A. yaw B. surge C. sway D. roll Ans. A

567.

The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as ____. A. surge B. sway C. heave D. pitch Ans. C

568.

Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel _________.

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A. pitch B. surge C. sway D. heave Ans. C 569. Heave is the motion of a vessel along the ________ axis. A. longitudinal B. transverse C. vertical D. centerline Ans. C 570. Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel. A. Pitch B. Surge C. Sway D. Roll Ans. D 571. Horizontal fore and aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as _____. A. pitch B. surge C. sway D. roll Ans. B 572. Yawing is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis _________. A. longitudinal

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B. transverse C. vertical D. centerline Ans. C 573. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is __________. A. pitching B. rolling C. heaving D. swaying Ans. B 574. Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis _________. A. longitudinal B. transverse C. vertical D. centerline Ans. A 575. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis _______. A. longitudinal B. transverse C. vertical D. centerline Ans. B 576. A. B. C. D. Refrigerant recovery cylinders are color coded _________. yellow top and gray body gray top and yellow lower body light blue top and yellow lower body gray top and light blue lower body

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Ans. A 577. Portable tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the ____________. A. B. C. D. fire main inert gas scrubber muckling supply system pump room sea chest

Ans. A 578. When using a portable tank cleaning machine the hoses may be disconnected when ____________. A. B. C. D. the machine is not inside the tank the machine is inside the tank a sailor is standing by the machine the hose has been partially drained

Ans. A 579. The main operating characteristics of a diesel engines which distinguishes from other internal combustion engine. A. B. C. D. methods of supplying air cooling system methods of igniting fuel value mechanism

Ans. C 580. When starting a turbine driven boiler feed pump with the re-circulating valve open, which of the following valves should be remain closed? A. B. C. D. pump discharge check valve pump suction valve turbine steam supply valve turbine exhaust value

Ans. A 581. If the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor is stopped. Which of the following types of pumps will most likely be damage? A. B. C. D. centrifugal gear propeller turbine

Ans. B 582. Which of the following problems listed will occur when the economizer temperature is below the acid dew point of the flue gases? A. Hairline fractures

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B. Efficiency loss C. External corrosion D. Hydrogen embrittlement Ans. C 583. A. B. C. D. The center volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the ______________. center of floatation metacentric height center of buoyancy center of gravity.

Ans. C 584. A vessel having a concentration of weight toward the top of the vessel is said to be _________. A. B. C. D. Stiff Tender Buoyant Neutral

Ans. B 585. Which of the following listed conditions will occur to the ships center of gravity if 200 tons of steel is transferred to the ships cargo hold from shore side? A. B. C. D. The reserve buoyancy will rise The center of gravity will remain in the same position Center of gravity will be lowered The reserve buoyancy will remain the same

Ans. C 586. A. B. C. D. A disadvantage of a 4 stroke /cycle diesel engine is __________. higher working temperature of piston and cylinder the use of scavenge ports fewer power strokes per resolution of the crankshaft part of the fuels is burned as the piston is moving away from top dead center

Ans. C 587. A. B. C. D. The color of R-22 cylinder bottle is _________. green blue gray red

Ans. C 588. Fire doors in accommodation and stairway enclosure are released by a/an ____.

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A. Hydraulic directional value that automatically releases the door in the event of a disruption to the control power system B. Spring-loaded catch that automatically fits to release the door in the event of the presence of a fire C. Method that automatically releases the door in the event of a disruption of control system power D. Pneumatic heat sensor Ans. C 589. During a fire, by what means a passage door in accommodation is release in the event of a disruption of control system power? A. Automatic B. Hand wheel C. Spring loaded catch D. Hydraulic/Pneumatic Ans. A 590. Fire door that is held open by magnets maybe found in the _______. A. wheelhouse B. galley C. engineroom D. stairway enclosure Ans. D 591. What is the effect of feedwater temperature being excessively cool?

A. Decrease boiler efficiency

B. Corrode the pipes Ans. B 592. Rows of tubes installed along the walls, floor, and roof of the furnace are called ______.

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A. screen tubes B. down comers C. waterwalls D. water headers Ans. C 593. In refrigeration plant, one purpose of the receiver is to _________. A. cool the refrigerant gas B. superheat the refrigerant liquid C. store the refrigerant D. condense the refrigerant Ans. C 594. Which of the following is the priority call __________? A. muster call B. muster station C. master call D. master station

Ans. B

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