1. Rotation of the plane of polarized light is monosaccharides except a. Glucose b. Glyceraldehyde c. Fructose d. Dihydroxyacetone 2. Ascorbic acid is an example of a.

Sugar acid b. Sugar alcohol d. Deoxy-sugar 3. An invert sugar is e. Amino sugar e. None of the above

caused by solutions of all of the following

6. Cane sugar is

a. Cellobiose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Lactose

7. Malt sugar is

e. None of the above a. Cellobiose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Lactose

c. Sugar phosphate

8. Starch is an example of a. Galactosans b. Mannosans d. Glucosans

e. None of the above

a. An equimolar mixture of glucose b. An equimolar mixture of ac. An equimolar mixture of ad. The sugar which changes its dextrorotatory fructose and 13-fructose glucose and 13-glucose and fructose

c. Glucosaminans e. Fructosans a. Glucosans

9. Glycogen is an example of b. Galactosans c. Mannosans e. Fructosans d. Glucosaminans 10. Starch is an example of

optical activity from levo- to

4. A disaccharide formed of two glucose units is a. Lactose

e. None of the above

a. Structural polysaccharides b. Structural polysaccharides c. Nutrient polysaccharides present d. Nutrient polysaccharides present e. None of the above in plants in animals present in plants present in animals

b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Amylose 5. Milk sugar is

e. Amylopectin a. Cellobiose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Lactose

11. Which of the following has a free anomeric carbon atom a. Glucose c. Lactose b. Mannose d. Sucrose

e. None of the above

e. Fructose

12. A polysaccharide indigestible by man is a. Cellobiose b. Glycogen d. Cellulose e. Amylose a. Glucose

18. Ribitol is

a. Deoxy sugar

c. Amylopectin

b. Amino sugar d. Sugar acid

c. Sugar alcohol 19. Inulin is a simple polysaccharide built up of a. Glucosamine b. Galactose c. Fructose d. Aldose

13. A branch component of starch is b. Amylopectin c. Amylose d. Maltose

14. Which of the following statements characterizes glucose form a. It usually exists in the furanose b. It is a ketose atom

e. None of the above

20. The end products of glycogen hydrolysis by acid is a. Dextrin

b. Maltose

c. Amylose 21. The richest site for fructose in the body is a. Mammary gland b. Seminal fluid d. Prostate c. Thyroid gland 22. D-glucose and D-mannose are epimers with respect to carbon atom number a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 23. Which of the following polysaccharides is not a polymer of glucose a. Amylose c. Inulin b. Glycogen d. Amylopectin a. Mannitol b. Sorbitol c. Dulcitol d. 1 d. Glucose

c. Carbon 2 is the anomeric carbon d. It forms part of the disaccharide e. It is oxidized to form sorbitol sucrose

15. Which of the following contains ketone group a. Ribulose b. Glucose c. Mannose e. Lactose

d. Galactose 16. Which of the following is non fermentable sugar? a. Maltose b. Sucrose

c. Glucose e. Lactose

d. Fructose 17. Hydrolysis of sucrose yields

24. Reduction of glucose produces

a. Two moles of glucose b. Glucose and fructose c. Galactose and fructose d. Glucose and mannose

d. Glucuronic acid

25. Gluconic acid, saccharic acid and glucose by

glucuronic acid are produced from a. Reduction

32. Ribulose is an example of a. Aldopentose b. Ketohexose c. Ketopentose

b. Treatment with acids c. Oxidation d. Treatment with bases a. Sucrose b. Lactose

d. Deoxy sugar 33. Cellulose is

e. Sugar alcohol a. Formed of -glucose

26. Galactose is present in the structure of

b. Not digested in human intestine c. A simple polysaccharide 34. Dextrose is d. All of the above a. An aldopentose b. An aldohexose c. A ketohexose d. A ketopentose a. Oxidation b. Reduction

c. Lecithin

27. Which statement is incorrect Epimers

d. Glycogen

a. Glucose and mannose are b. - and -glucose are Anomers c. Glucose and galactose are Anomers

35. Sorbitol can be obtained from fructose by

28. The invert sugar is a. Maltose b. Sucrose

d. Ribose and xylose are epimers

c. Hydrolysis

c. Hydrolytic products of sucrose 29. Sorbitol is

36. A reducing disaccharide is a. Glucose c. Maltose b. Mannose d. Fructose

d. Acetylation

d. Hydrolytic products of maltose a. A sugar alcohol

b. Obtained from glucose d. All of the above

c. Obtained from fructose 30. By complete acid hydrolysis of starch we obtain a. Maltose

37. Glucose and mannose are epimers, this means that a. They are mirror image to each b. One is aldose, the other is a ketose c. They differ only in the configuration to one carbon furanose other

b. -glucose c. -glucose d. All of the above a. Glucose c. Ribose e.

d. One is pyranose the other is 38. Starch is

31. The blood sugar is b. Fructose d. Galactose

a. A heterogeneous polysaccharide b. Composed of -glucose d. All of the above c. Not digested by amylase e. None of the above

39. The grape sugar is a. Fructose b. Sucrose c. Glucose 40. Lactose is

46. Glucose and lactose are similar to each other in that both are a. Reducing

d. Mannose a. A non-reducing sugar fructose

b. Able to give the same osazone c. Present in milk d. All of the above a. Starch

b. Formed of -glucose and c. both (a) and (b)

47. Which of the following is a disaccharide? b. Cellulose d. Ribose

41. Honey is the natural example for a. Sucrose b. Maltose d. Lactose

d. None of the above

c. Glycogen e. Lactose

48. Which carbohydrate will you find in greatest abundance in potatoes? a. Starch b. Cellulose c. Sucrose e. Lactose d. Glycogen 49. D-glucuronic acid is an example of a. Aldonic acid b. Aldaric acid c. Uronic acid

c. Invert sugar 42. Reducing property of monosaccharide is tested by a. Seliwanoff's test b. Molischs test c. Fehling test d. Rotheras test

43. Inulin is a polymer of a. Glucose b. Levulose

e. Shape of osazone crystals

d. Saccharic acid

c. Galactose d. Mannose

50. Reduction of monosaccharides yields a. Sugar alcohols b. Sugar acids c. amino sugars

e. None of the above

44. .glucose is present in structure of a. Dextrins b. Dextran

d. Deoxy-sugars

51. Hydrogen gas in presence of a metal can reduce fructose to a. Mannitol b. Ribitol c. Glycerol d. Glucose e. None of the above

e. None of the above

c. Glycogen

45. Amylase enzyme can hydrolyse a. Starch b. Dextrins

d. All of the above

c. Glycogen

d. All of the above

52. Cellulose is made up of the molecules of a. alpha Glucose b. c. Both of above Beta Glucose

a. Galactose and glucose b. Maltose and glucose c. Fructose only

d. None of the above 53. The epimer of glucose is: a. Fructose c. Ribose b. Galactose d. Deoxyribose 54. Alpha and Beta forms of D-glucose are referred to as: a. Epimers

59. Starch and glycogen are both polymers of: a. Fructose b. Glucose-1-phosphate c. Mannose d. Glucose

d. Fructose and glucose

60. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate? a. Amylose c. Heparin

b. Hyaluronic acid d. Palmitic acid a. D-fructose b. D-glucose c. Lactose d. Glycogen

b. Anomers c. Enediols d. Tautomers 55. Which of the following does not give a positive test for a reducing sugar? a. Ribose b. Galactose c. Maltose 56. Cellulose is a: d. Sucrose

61. The predominant carbohydrate of muscle

62. Lactose is also called: a. Blood sugar c. Milk sugar b. Invert sugar d. Animal starch a. Galactose b. Mannose c. Ribose d. Fructose a. Ribose

a. Branched polymer containing or 1 > 4 and on 1 > 6 glycosidic linkages

63. An example of pentose is:

b. Straight chain polymer consisting c. Polymer containing glucose, d. Mucopolysaccharide galactose and glucosamine of B 1 > 4 glycosidic units

64. An example of Hexose is: b. Ribulose

57. In order that a compound possesses optical activity it must be: a. Colored b. Symmetrical c. Inorganic d. Asymmetric

c. Xylulose

65. A mucopolysaccharide with blood anticoagulant activity is: a. Chondroitin sulphate B c. Keratan sulphate II d. Heparin

d. Mannose

b. Chondroitin sulphate D

58. Hydrolysis of sucrose yields:

66. Beta 1-4 glycosidic bond is present in : a. maltose b. lactose c. sucrose

73. A disaccharide made up of two glucose units : a. maltose b. sucrose c. dextrin d. lactose

67. Number of stereo-isomers of glucose is : a. 4 b. 8

d. none of the above

74. A carbohydrate found only in milk : a. glucose b. lactose

c. 16

d. none of the above 68. A homopolysaccharide made up of fructose is : a. inulin

c. galactose 75. A carbohydrate ,known commenly as invert sugar : a. lactose d. maltose

b. dextrin

c. cellulose

b. sucrose

d. glycogen

c. fractose 76. The homopolysaccharide among the following is : a. heparin d. glucose

69. In fructofuranose ,the anomeric carbon is a. carbon 1 b. carbon 2 c. carbon 3 70. A carbohydrate found in the DNA : a. ribose b. ribulose d. carbon 4

b. hyaluronic acid d. cellulose

c. dermatan sulphate 77. The heteropolysaccharide among the following is : a. inulin

c. deoxyribose 71. Ribulose is a :

b. starch

d. all of the above a. ketotetrose

c. heparin

78. In straight chain structure of D-glucose, OH group is present on the left hand side of carbon atom number : a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 79. The following causes levorotation : a. D-fructose b. L-glucose d. 5

d. cellulose

b. aldotetrose

c. ketopentose

72. In D-glyecraldehyde, -OH group is atom number : a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1,2 & 3

d. aldopentose

present on the right hand side of carbon

c. both of them

d. None of them

80. The carbon atom which becomes

asymmetric when the straight chain form of monosaccharide changes into ring form is called : a. anomeric carbon atom b. epimeric carbon atom c. isomeric carbon atom d. none of the above

86. Sugar present in seminal fluid is: a. glucose b. fructose d. maltose

c. galactose 87. All the following polysaccharides have glucose as their monomer EXCEPT a. Starch c. Inulin b. dextrin d. glycogen

81. In straight chain structure of D-ribose, OH group is present on the right hand side of carbon atom number : a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. all of the above 82. In glucopyranose the anomeric carbon atom is number: a. 2 b. 1 c. 5 83. In alpha-D glucopyranose, -OH groups attached to carbon atoms of numbers: a. 1,2 & 3 b. 1,2 & 5 c. 1,2 & 4 84. Sugar present in DNA is a. ribose b. xylulose d. 2,3 & 4 d. 6

88. End product of starch on acid hydrolysis is a. glucose

b. fructose c. maltose d. dextrin

89. End product of enzyme hydrolysis of starch is a. glucose

b. fructose c. maltose d. dextrin

projecting below the plane of the ring, are

90. Beta 1,4 glycosidic linkages are present in a. Glycogen b. starch d. inulin c. cellulose

c. Arabinose

91. All the following are a. Cellulose b. starch c. glycogen d. heparin

85. Sugar present in RNA is: a. Ribose b. Xylulose

d. deoxyribose

homopolysaccharides EXCEPT

c. Arabinose

d. Deoxyribose

92. All the following are

heteropolysaccharides EXCEPT a. Hyaluronic acid c. Inulin b. chondroitin sulphate d. Heparin

d. alpha 1,6 glycosidic linkage at 96. One of the following polysaccharides is called animal starch: a. glucose c. dextrin b. heparin d. glycogen branching

93. Which of the following poly saccharine is a naturally occurring anti coagulant? a. Hylauronic acid c. heparin b. chondroitin sulphate d. keratosulphate

97. Glucose on oxidation with H2O2 gives: a. Hyaluronic acid c. Glucaric acid 98. Sorbitol is: d. Mucic acid a. A sterol b. Glucuronic acid

94. One of the following carbohydrates is not digested in the human intestinal tract a. Starch b. cellulose c. lactose d. sucrose

b. An amino alcohol c. A sugar alcohol d. A glycerol derivative

99. The functional group responsible for the which carbon atom? a. 6 b. 5 c. 2 d. 1

reducing property of glucose is present on

95. Amylopectin differ from amaylose by a. alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkage b. beta 1,4 glycosidic linkage branching

c. alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkage at

Answers
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B 39. C 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. D 46. A 47. E 48. A 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. B 54. B 56. B 55. D 57. D 58. D 59. D 60. D 61. D 62. C 63. C 40. D 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. A 82. B 83. B 81. D

8. D 9. A 10. D 11. C 13. B 12. D 14. D 15. A 16. E 17. B

84. D 85. A 86. B

49. C

87. C 88. A 89. C 90. C 92. C 93. C 94. B 95. D 96. D 97. B 98. C 91. D

18. C 19. C 21. B 22. B 24. B 26. B 27. B 20. D

23. C 25. C

99. D

64. D 65. D 66. D 67. C 68. A 69. B

28. C 30. B

29. D 31. A

32. C 34. B 35. B

33. D

70. C 71. C 72. B 74. B 75. B 73. A

36. C 37. C 38. E

76. D

7. A lipid containing sphingosine is 1. True statements about lipids include the following except source a. They are an intracellular energy b. They are poorly soluble in water c. They are structural components d. They are composed of only 2. Hydrogenation of oil is formation of membranes a. Lecithin b. Ganglioside c. Cardiolipin d. Cephalin

8. Adipose tissue fats are mainly a. Phospholipids b. Triglycerides c. Lipoproteins d. Sulfolipid

carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

9. Addition of choline to phosphatidic acid will produce a. Lysolecithin

a. The basis of artificial fat b. Oxidation reaction of lipids d. All of the above

b. Choline plasmalogen c. Phosphatidyl serine d. Lecithin

c. The basis for soap formation 3. An unsaturated fatty acid with 3 double bonds is a. Stearic acid

10. The double bond in cholesterol is present between the following 2 carbons a. 4 and 5 b. 5 and 6 c. 7 and 8 d. 22 and 23

b. Lignoceric acid c. Linoleic acid 4. Lecithin contains b. Glycerol d. Choline d. linolenic acid a. Two fatty acids c. Phosphoric acid e. All of these a. Linoleic

11. Fatty acids that are dietary essentials in a. Palmitic acid b. Stearic acid c. Oleic acid

humans include which of the following

5. An essential fatty acid is b. Linolenic

12. A substance not present in the hydrolytic products of lecithin is b. Glycerol a. Saturated fatty acid c. Phosphoric acid 13. The free fatty acid of blood are a. Metabolically inert b. Mainly bound to B-lipoproteins c. Stored in the fat depots d. Mainly bound to serum albumin d. Ethanolamine

d. Linoleic Acid

c. Arachidonic 6. A non-essential fatty acid is a. Oleic b. Linoleic d. All of these

c. Linolenic

d. Arachidonic

14. An unsaturated fatty acid with 3 double bonds is a. Stearic acid

20. Hydrolysis of a mixture of phospholipids may yield all the following except a. Serine b. Choline

b. Lignoceric acid c. Linoleic acid d. Linolenic acid

c. Galactose d. Glycerol e. Phosphate

15. Plasma lipoproteins can be separated by a. Electrophoresis c. Both of these b. Ultracentrifugation d. None of these a. Oleic

21. A substance not present in the hydrolytic products of lecithin is b. Glycerol a. Saturated fatty acid c. Phosphoric acid 22. A fatty acid not synthesized in man is a. Oleic b. Palmitoleic c. Linoleic d. Palmitic d. Ethanolamine

16. A non-essential fatty acid is b. Linolenic

c. Arachidonic d. All of these

17. A 18 carbon fatty acid not synthesized in the body is a. Lignoceric c. Stearic

23. Which of the following is not a phospholipid a. Cerebroside c. Lecithin

b. Palmitoleic d. Linoleic

b. Plasmelogen d. Splingomyelin

18. A compound normally used to conjugate bile acids is a. Serine

24. An anti-oxidant is a substance that a. Prevents saponification lipids b. Used to produce rancidity of c. Used to protect lipids against d. Used for hardening of oils a. Structural constituents of cell b. Components having high energy c. Soluble in non-polar solvents d. All of the above value membrane rancidity

b. Glucuronic acid c. Fatty acids d. Calcium e. Glycine

19. Fatty acids that must be obtained from the diet by humans include a. Oleic b. Plamitoleic c. Palmitic d. Stearic e. Linoleic

25. Lipids are:

26. An example for simple lipid is: a. b. Cephalin d. Glycerol

Triglyceride (T riacylglycerol)

33. which is not constituent of gangliosides: a. Sialic acid b. Glycerol

c. Fatty acids 27. Which one of the following is not a compound lipid? b. Waxes a. Plasmalogen c. Lecithin

c. Sphingosine

34. Which of the following is a. Linoleic Acid c. Oleic Acid

d. Long-chain fatty acid

monounsaturated fatty acids b. Alpha linolenic Acid d. Arachidonic Acid

28. Cholesterol is an:

d. Sphingomyelin a. Compound lipid b. Simple lipid c. Derived lipid

35. Which of the following is a precursor to prostaglandins a. Linoleic Acid c. Oleic Acid

29. Respiratory distress syndrome occurs due In deciency of: a. Plasmalogen c.

d. Aliphatic alcohol

b. Alpha linolenic Acid d. Arachidonic Acid

36. All the following are essential together except a. Omega 3

b. Svinsvmyin

30. Which is a major costituent of lung surfactantl? a. Dipalmitoyl lecithin

d. Phosphatidyl serine

Dipalmimoyl lecithin

b. Linoleic acid d. Stearic acid

c. Arachidonic acid 37. Which of the following is the variable element of fat a. Triacylglycerol in blood b. Stored glycogen c. True fat

b. Cholesbeml d. Glycerol

c. Phosphalidic add 31. Carbohydrate moiety present in cerebroside in: a. fructose c. Ribose

38. 1 gram of fat is oxidised into a. 9.3 Kcal b. 4.1 Kcal c. 5.6 Kcal 39. The precursor compound of glycerophospholipids is b. Triacylglycerol d. Glycogen a. Dipalmitoilglycerol c. Phosphatidic acid d. 2.1 Kcal

d. Glycerophospholipids

b. Galactose d. Mannose

32. Sphingosine, as amino alchol in a a. Ganglioside c. Cephalin

constituent of all the following except: b. Cerebroside d. Sphingomyelin

40. The L-isomer of glycerol phosphate is found in a. Plant sterols

45. Cardiolipin

a. Used to test for syphilis bound to glycerol

b. Natural phosphoglycerols c. Blood lipoproteins d. Tissue lipid bilayer

b. 2 molecules of phosphatidic acid c. Found in large amounts in inner d. First isolated from heart mitochondrial membrane

41. The amphipathic property of

phospholipids is because they have

a. Phosphoryl bases as polar heads b. Hydrocarbon non polar tails water c. Leads to formation of micelles in d. All of the above

46. Which of the following is the constant element of fat a. Triacylglycerol in blood b. Stored glycogen c. True fat

e. Important clotting factor

42. All are correct about lecithin except a. The base here is choline b. Present in animals cell membrane

47. Which of the following is the chemical reaction of breaking glycerophospholipids

d. Glycerophospholipids

c. One of the most important d. Dipalmitoyl form is important for 43. All of the following are true about dipalmitoyl lecithin except palmitate alveoli a. Postition 1, 2 is occupied by b. Found in extracellular fluid of c. Its loss decreases surface tension of alveolar fluid leading to alveolar collapse lung surfactant clotting factors

a. Hydrolysis by Phospholipases b. Polyunsaturated Fatty acid peroxidation

48. The membrane-bound permeability in a. Heart b. Lung d. Liver

c. Phosphodiesterase reaction

glycerophospholipids control cell

c. Nerves

d. Its loss leads to respiratory 44. All are true about cephalin except a. Abundant in animal cell b. Base is ethanolamine membranes distress syndrome

49. All the following are the functions of non-membrane bound glycerophospholipids except

a. In bile for solubilisation of cholesterol, digestion and absorption of dietary lipids

c. Has 2 forms 3 & 2 cephalin surfactant factors

d. Takes part in formation of lung e. One of the important clotting

b. In plasma lipoproteins

c. Mediators of hormone action alveoli

d. Increase surface tension in lung

50. All of the following are hydrolytic a. Sphingosine b. Glycerol

products of sphingophospholipids except

56. All the following are true about cerebrosides except a. They are neutral because they as their polar heads group of ceramide

c. Higher fatty acid d. Phosphoric acid e. Base

contain neutral sugar molecules

b. The sugars are bound to hydroxyl c. Glucocerebroside is the major nervous tissue

51. All the following statements about Ceramide are true except a. The parent structure of

glycosphingolipid in brain and

membrane components found in

b. The fatty acid moiety is saturated c. The amino group of sphingosine to the fatty acid or mononunsaturated

brain and myelin sheath of nerves

d. The bond between sugers and hydroxyl groups is Beta-1,1 glycosidic link

57. The USF include all except a. Steroids c. FSVs b. Carotenoids d. Glycerols

is connected by a hydrogen bond

52. The most abundant sphingophospholipids in animals are a. Glycosphingolipids b. Ceramides d. Sulfatides c. Sphingomyelins. 53. The sphingomyelin polar head group is: a. Phosphoryl choline b. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine c. Phosphatidyl inositol d. Phosphoryl Co-A

58. All of the following are true about USF except

e. High molecular weight alcohols

a. They include steroids and FSVs b. Can be hydrolysed by alkali of fat by saponification Fraction of fats c. Can be separated from other types d. It stands for Unsaponifiable

59. Which of the following is not correct about the steroid nucleus a. Its nucleus is called ene ring

54. The following occur in the outer leaflet of plasma membrane a. Sphingophospholipids b. Glycerophospholipids c. Glycolipids d. Steroids

cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthr

b. There is a methyl group at C10 c. The total number of carbon atoms d. The 6 carbon atoms of the saturated including the methyl groups is 17 hexagonal ring are completely and C13

55. All the following are functions of cell surface glycolipids except b. Tissue immunity a. Cell to cell communication c. Blood group antibodies d. Species specificity

60. Which of the following is incorrect about sterols a. They are a type of steroids

63. Which is incorrect about the chemistry of cholesterol a. Hydroxyl group at C3 c. Its formed of 29C

b. They have a hydroxyl group at C3 c. They have an aliphatic side chain d. Ergosterol is an animal sterol plant sterol at C17

b. Aliphatic side chain at C17 d. A double bond between C5 & C6

while 7-dihydrocholesterol is a

64. Which of the following compounds is a. 7-dihydrocholesterol b. Cholesterol c. Ergosterol

converted by UV rays into cholecalciferol

61. The main sterol in the body is a. 7-dihydrocholesterol b. Cholesterol c. Ergosterol

62. All of the following are true about cholesterol except a. Its a major constituent of plasma b. Its a precursor of sex hormones, c. Synthesized by the body and major source Co-A cortical hormones & Vit. D membrane

d. 22-dihydroergosterol

65. The extra methyl group in plant sterols is at a. C29 b. C3 c. C24 66. All of the following is true about plant sterols except a. They have a double bond between b. Ergocalciferol is formed by c. Yeast is the main source of d. D3 is more potent than D2 pro-vit D4 ergocalciferol photolysis from plants C22 & C23 d. C17

d. 22-dihydroergosterol

found in plant fats which are the

d. Formed in the body from acetyl

e. 22-dihydroergosterol is called

1. D 3. D 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. B 10. B 4. E 2. A

Answers

41. d 42. c 43. c 45. e

40. b

44. d 46. d 47. a 48. c

9. D 11. C

49. d 50. b 51. c 52. c 54. c 55. c 57. d 58. b 59. c 56. c

12. D 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. A 18. E 19. E

53. a

17. D

21. D 22. C 23. A 25. d 27. b 28. c 29. c 26. a 24. c

20. C

60. d 61. b 62. c 63. c 65. c

64. a 66. d

31. b 33. b 35. d 36. d 38. a 39. c 37. c 34. c 32. c

30. a

1. Which of the following is most found in protein molecule? a. Carbon b. Hydrogen c. Oxygen d. Nitrogen 2. No of naturally occuring aminoacids is : a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 3. All of the following are aliphatic amino acids except : a. Glycine b. Alanine c. Proline d. Lysine 4. One of the following is neutral amino acid : a. Arginine b. Lysine c. Glutamine d. Valine 5. All of the following are hydroxy containing amino acids except : a. Serine b. Threonine c. Valine d. Tyrosine

6. One of the following is optically non active amino acid a. Valine b. Tyrosine c. Glycine d. Threonine 7. All of the following are polar amino acids except : a. Serine b. Glutamate c. Arginine d. Alanine 8. All of the following are essential amino acids except : a. Lysine b. Aspartate c. Tryptophan d. Hisitidine 9. Lysine : a. Basic Only ketogenic b. Ketogenic glucogenic c. Acidic glucogenic d. Non essential 10. All of the following are primary aminoacids except : a. Cysteine b. Cystine c. Alanine d. Arginine

11. Which of the following is precursor of T3 and T4 : a. GABA b. Dopa c. B- Alanine d. Di-iodotyrosine 12. Zwitter ion are : a. Basic b. Acidic c. Neutral d. Carry both -ve & +ve charges e. Both c and d 13. The unit of peptides is : a. Moiety b. Residue c. Polypeptide d. Both a and b 14. Lactic acid is buffered by : a. L.Carnosine b. Glutathione c. Casenogin d. Dopa 15. N terminal of glutathione is : a. Glycine b. Cysteine c. Glutamate d. Aspartate 16. Which of the following is BLOOD iron carrier? a. Haemoglobin b. Albumin c. Transferrin d. Globulin

17. Storage form of iron : a. Transferrin b. Ferritin c. Myosin d. Actin 18. Which of the following protien is found in bone : a. Keratin b. Ossein c. Mucin d. Actin 19. Type of bonds between C terminal and N terminal is : a. Covalent b. Disulphide bond c. Peptide d. Ionic e. Both a and c 20. Type of bond between nitrogen and carbonyl group : a. Hydrogen bonds b. Covalent bond c. Peptide bond d. Disulphide bond 21. All of the following are non covalent except : a. Hydrophobic interactions b. Disulphide bond c. Hydrogen bond d. Electrostatic bond

22. Primary structure of proteins refers to : a. Coiling and folding in form of specific structure b. Number of amino acids in a chain c. 3D structure d. Alpha and Beta sheets 23. Denaturation involves : a. Peptide bonds b. Primary structure of protein c. Secondary structure d. Function e. Both c and d 24. Tertiary structure of proteins involves EXCEPT : a. Domains b. Globular c. Fibrous d. Beta sheets 25. All of the following are simple proteins except : a. Histones b. Albumin c. Keratins d. Glycoprotein 26. Which of the following is sulphur highly containing protein : a. Collagen b. Keratin c. Ossein d. Reticulin

27. Casenogen is a. Chromoprotein b. Phosphoprotein c. Glycoprotein d. Lipoprotein 28. X-ray is a chemical agent for protein denaturation a. True b. False 29. Increase viscosity of proteins is due to a. Denaturation b. Isoelectric point c. Both d. None 30. Separation of low molecular weight protein from high one is : a. Dialysis b. Cromotography c. Electrophoiesis d. Ultracentrifugation 31. a. b. c. d. e. Example of basic essential amino acids Arginine Histidine Lysine All of the above None of the above

32. a. b. c. d. e. 33. a. b. c. d. 34. a. b. c. d. e. 35. a. b. c. d. e. 36.

Example of non-protein amino acid Glycine Alanine Tryptophan All of the above None of the above Example of non-protein amino acid Alanine Citrulline Phenylalanine Leucine Glutathione is an example for Amino acid Dipeptide Polypeptide Protein Tripeptide The active group of glutathione is Amino group Sulfhydryl group Carboxylic group Imino group Peptide linkage The peptide bond is a. Covalent bond b. Non-covalent bond c. Weak bond d. Responsible for secondary structure of protein e. Between sulfhydryl groups

37.

First order of protein structure refers to a. Bending of protein chain b. Number and sequence of amino acids c. Three dimensional structure of protein d. Site of disulfide bonds e. Non-covalent bonds in protein molecule

38.

Second order of protein structure refers to a. Number and sequence of amino acids b. Three dimensional structure of protein c. Proteins formed of more than one monomer d. Bending of protein molecule e. Dependence on covalent bonds

39.

Third structure of protein structure refers to a. Number and sequence of amino acids b. Three dimensional structure of protein c. Proteins formed of more than one monomer d. Bending of protein molecule e. Dependence on covalent bonds

40.

Fourth structure of protein structure refers to a. Proteins formed of more than one monomer b. Myoglobin is an example. c. Depends on covalent bonds d. None of the above e. All of the above 45.

d. A protein of low biological value e. Poor in essential amino acids Globulin is a. A basic protein b. A protein of low molecular weight c. Heat coagulable protein d. Easily soluble in water e. A fibrous protein 46. Keratin is a. Protein of tendons b. Rich in sulfur c. Poor in cysteine d. Conjugated protein e. Soluble in water 47. Collagen contains high percentage of a. Glycine b. Tryptophan c. Phenyl alanine d. Serine e. Valine 48. Caseinogen is a. Simple protein b. Derived protein c. Phosphoprotein d. Rich in sulfur containing amino acids e. Presentin plasma

41.

Covalent bond is a. A weak bond b. A true chemical bond c. A hydrogen bond d. Responsible for secondary structure of protein e. Liable to be destroyed

42.

Example of essential aromatic amino acids a. Threonine b. Alanine c. Phenyl alanine d. Glycine e. Cysteine

43.

Protein of high biological value a. Contains essential amino acids b. Is poor in essential amino acids c. Is of plant source d. Contains amino acid glycine e. Is a basic protein

44.

Albumin is a. Insoluble in water b. Heat coagulable protein c. A plant protein

49.

On electrophoresis for plasma proteins using buffer of pH 8.6 a. The proteins are neutral b. The proteins carry negative charge c. The proteins carry positive charge d. The proteins are easily precipitated e. The proteins are denaturated 54. 53.

d. Alcohol precipitation Example of essential sulphur containing amino acids a. Lysine b. Cysteine c. Cystine d. Alanine e. Methionine The bonds present in the primary structure of protein are a. Peptide bonds b. Hydrogen bonds c. Disulfide bonds d. All of these 55. A protein rich in proline and hydroxy proline is a. Globin b. Collagen c. Casein d. Histone 56. The buffering property of proteins is due to the presence of a. Acidic and basic groups b. Hydrogen bonds c. Indole groups d. Hyrophobic bonds

50.

Albumins are separated by a. 1/2 saturated ammonium sulfate b. Full saturated ammonium sulfate c. 20% saturated ammonium sulfate d. 60% saturated ammonium sulfate e. 10% saturated ammonium sulfate

51.

Albumins and globulins are defined as: a. Derived protein b. Conjugated protein c. Fibrous protein d. Globular protein e. Lipoprotein

52.

Plasma proteins are separated by a. Dialysis b. Electrophoresis c. Filtration

57.

Arginine, lysine and ornithine are a. Obtained by hydrolysis of proteins b. Essential amino acids c. Basic amino acids d. Derived from butyric acid

62.

A protein that gives positive biuret test is a. Albumin b. Globulin c. Casein d. All of these

63.

A basic amino acid present in protein structure is a. Histidine b. Citruline c. Ornithine d. All of these

58.

Glycine Is characterized by a. Absence of an asymmeteric carbon b. Absence of optical activity c. The shortest amino acid d. All of these 64.

Example of amino acid containing guanido group a. Arginine b. Lysine c. Histidine d. Valine e. Leucine

59.

Ornithine is a. A basic amino acid b. An essential amino acid c. Present in protein structure d. All of these

60.

Albumin, globulin and casein are a. Milk proteins b. Plasma proteins c. Egg proteins d. Meat proteins 65.

Keratin is a. A scleroprotein b. Rich in cystine c. A simple protein d. All of these

61.

Cysteine, cystine and methionine are a. Essential amino acids b. Present in protein structure c. Acidic amino acids d. All of these

66.

A fibrous protein is a. Albumin b. Myosin c. Casein d. Globulin

67.

Glycine is a. A non-optically active amino acid b. Present in structure of glutathione c. A neutral amino acid d. All of these

72.

Example of branched amino acid a. Valine b. Leucine c. Isoleucine d. All of the above e. None of the above

68.

Proteins associated with nucleic acid in nucleo-protein are a. Albumin b. Globulin c. Keratin d. Histones

73.

Example of hydroxy containing amino acids a. Serine b. Phenyl alanine c. Tryptophan d. Proline e. Glutamic acid

69.

ln proteins, the alpha-helix and Beta-pleated sheet are examples of a. Primary structure b. Secondary structure c. Tertiary structure d. Quaternary structure

74.

Example of amino acids containing imino group a. Glycine b. Valine c. Proline d. Lysine e. Phenyl alanine

70.

A tetra peptide contains the following number of preptide bonds a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five

75.

Example of an amino acid containing sulfhydryl group a. Alanine b. Cysteine c. Proline d. Tryptophan e. Lysine

71.

A globular protein is a. Actin b. Myosin c. Collagen d. Albumin

76.

Example of non-optically active amino acid a. Proline b. Alanine c. Glycine d. Phenylalanine

80.

All amino adds are optically active except: a. b. c. d. Serine Glycine Tryptophan Threonine '

77.

Which of the following statements about amino acids is not true? a. Amino acids are ampholytes b. Aminoacids are linked through peptide bonds to form proteins c. Amino acids are not Crystalline compounds d. Leucine is a purely ketogenic amino acid

81.

Which of the following amino acids possesses an imino group? a. b. c. d. Tryptophan Hydroxylysine Tyrosine Proline

82.

An amino acid which contains a disulphide bond is: a. b. c. d. Lysine Methionine Homocysteine Cystine a. b. c. d. Globulin Fibrous protein Tripeptide Conjugated protein

78.

The amino acids found in biological proteins are of: a. D-Configuration and dextrorotatory b. L-Configuration and levorotatory c. D-Configuration and levo/dextrorotatory d. L-Configuration and dextro/laevoratatory Which amino acid doesnt occur in proteins of biological system? a. b. c. d. Ornithine Arginine Cystine Histidine 84. 83.

Chemically keratin is a:

The most abundant protein in the human body is: a. b. c. d. Collagen Keratin Myosin Albumin

79.

85.

Denaturation of proteins is often characterised by: a. Loss of biological activity b. Always being irreversible c. Being greater the lower the temperature d. Changes in primary structure

90.

With the exception of glycine, all amino acids found in proteins are: a. b. c. d. Optically active Dextrorotatory Of L-configuration Levorotatory

86.

Decarboxylation of amino acids will result in the formation of: a. b. c. d. Amines Imino acids Basic amino acids Amides

91.

Essential amino acids are so named because: a. They are essential for life process b. Cannot be synthesized in the body c. Deficiency leads to genetic diseases d. Important in cell growth

87.

The number of amino acid residues in one spiral of alphahelix of proteins is usually: a. b. c. d. 2.6 3.6 4.6 5.6 93. 92.

Casein is a: a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. Lipoprotein Mucoprotein Phosphoprotein Chromoprotein Lysine Tyrosine Glycine Leucine

88.

Which of the following is not found in proteins? a. b. c. d. Citrulline Arginine Methionine Cysteine

Which is a basic amino acid?

94.

An amino acid containing imidazole group ls: a. b. c. d. lsoleucine Arginine Proline Histidine

89.

The only amino acid containing indole ring is: a. b. c. d. Tryptophan Tyrosine Histidine Phenylalanine

95.

The major linkage between amino acids in protein is the: a. b. c. d. Hydrogen bond Ionic bond Sulphide bond Peptide bond

98.

Aspartic acid is a (an): a. b. c. d. Monoamino dicarboxylic acid Diamino monocarboxylic acid Aromatic amino acid Imino acid

96.

An example of a chromoprotein is: a. b. c. d. Casein Hemoglobin Peptone Collagen 100. 99.

All amino acids are optically active except: a. b. c. d. Glycine Serine Threonine Tryptophan

97.

When a peptide bond is formed there is removal of : a. b. c. d. CO2 H 2O NH3 H+

Amino acid which synthesizes many hormones is: a. b. c. d. Valine Phenylalanine Alanine Histidine

Answers
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. E 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. E 24. D 25. D 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. E 33. B 34. E 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. B 51. D 52. B 53. E 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. D 63. A 64. A 65. D 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. D 70. B 71. B 72. D 73. D 74. A 75. C 76. B 77. D 78. C 79. D 80. A 81. B 82. D 83. D 84. B 85. A 86. A 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. A 91. A 92. B 93. C 94. A 95. D 96. D 97. B 98. B 99. A 100. 101. A b

1- Group of organic catalysts, protein in nature, present inside the living cells a- Enzymes b- Catalysts c- Hormones d- None of the above 2- All of the following is true regarding enzymes except .. a- Heat labile b- Colloidal c- Dialyzable d- High molecular weight 3- Organic substance on which the enzyme acts . a- Substrate b- Co-Enzyme c- Product d- None of the above 4- All of the following can be considered as a co Enzyme for transfer of H except .. a- Biotin b- ATP c- FAD d- Folic acid 5- One of the following can be considered as a co Enzyme for transfer of groups other than H except .. a- Biotin b- ATP c- FAD d- Folic acid

6- One of the following is considered a feature of Enzymes except a- Globular Proteins b- Undergo Denaturation c- Simple Proteins d- Non-Specific 7- Enzyme acts on a special type of bond at specific site and attached to specific groups a- Group Specifity b- Absolute Specifity c- Relative Specifity d- Optical Specifity 8- D-amino acid Oxidase represents a- Group Specifity b- Absolute Specifity c- Relative Specifity d- Optical Specifity 9- Pancreatic Lipase represents . a- Group Specifity b- Absolute Specifity c- Relative Specifity d- Optical Specifity 10- Special sequence of amino acids in the protein molecule of the enzyme to which the substrate is attached. a- Catalytic Site b- Active site c- Allosteric Site d- None of the above

11- All sequences of amino acids which affect the activity of the enzyme a- Catalytic Site b- Active site c- Allosteric Site d- All of the above 12- Substrate induces a conformational change in the catalytic site . a- Lock and key model b- Flexible model of catalytic site c- Rigid model of catalytic site d- None of the above 13- Concentration of the product increases directly by time . a- Maximum Velocity b- End velocity c- Initial Velocity d- None of the above 14- Increase in substrate concentration leads to .. a- Increase of velocity b- Increase in enzyme activity c- Increase of V max d- All of the above 15- Substrate concentration which produces half maximal velocity (Vmax.) . a- Full Concentration b- Null Concentration c- Michaels Concentration d- All of the above

16- Increase in enzyme concentration . the rate of reaction a- Increase b- Decrease c- No effect d- Permissive effect 17- Complete irreversible loss of enzyme activity occurs at a- 37 degree C b- 45 degree C c- 0 degree C d- 60-65 degree C 18- Temperature at which the enzymatic reaction velocity is maximal a- Optimum Temperature b- 37 degree C c- 65 degree C d- A and b together e- None of the above 19- Optimum PH for Trypsin is a- 6.8 b- 8.4 c- 8 d- 2 20- Optimum PH for Alkaline Phosphatase a- 6.8 b- 8.4 c- 8 d- 2

21- All of the following inhibits enzymatic activity except a- Physical Agents b- Heating c- Shaking d- Red and Blue lights 22- Pepsin is activated through .. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators 23- Glyceraldehyde 3-P dehydrogenase is activated through .. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators 24- Metaloenzymes is activated through .. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators 25- Tyrosinase requires a- ZN ++ b- CU ++ c- CL d- MG ++ 26- Phosphofructokinase enzyme is activated through .. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators

27- Activation by Phosphorylation excludes one of the following . a- Hormone sensitive lipase b- Glycogen Phosphyrlase c- Glycogen Synthetase d- None of the above 28- Competitive inhibition includes all of the following except a- Chemical structure of the inhibitor closely resembles that of the substrate. b- Combines Reversibly with the enzyme c- When both the substrate and the inhibitor are present they compete for the same binding site. d- V max is decreased e- Is removed by increases the concentration of inhibitor 29- Reversible noncompetitive Inhibition includes all of the following except a- I combine with the enzyme away from the catalytic site. b- The I is not similar to the substrate in structure. c- The I can combine with the free enzyme or with the enzyme substrate d- increase the Km 30- Phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase Resembles . a- Reversible Non Competitive Inhibition b- Irreversible noncompetitive Inhibition c- Allosteric inhibition d- Competitive inhibition

31- Increased product concentration the enzyme activity a- Increases b- Decreases c- No effect d- Permissive effect 32- Substances which stimulate gene expression into protein . a- Inducer b- Suppressor c- Repressors d- Co-Enzymes 33- Concerning Isoenzyme . a- Have quaternary structure and the individual subunits in each isoenzyme are different from the others b- They act on the different substrate and will give the same product c- They have different affinity to the substrate. d- They are present in different tissues. 34- HMMM is present in .. a- Heart b- Kidney c- Liver d- Muscles 35- HHMM is present in a- Kidney b- Muscles c- Heart d- None of the above e-

36- Non Functional plasma enzymes include all of the following except .. a- Transaminases ( AST & ALT ) b- Alkaline Phosphatase c- Lipoprotein lipase d- None of the above 37- Increased in bone metastasis a- Alkaline phosphatase b- Creatine kinase c- LDH d- None of the above 38- Increased in Prostatic Carcinoma a- Alkaline phosphatase b- Creatine kinase c- LDH d- None of the above 39- Decreased in Galactosemia a- Streptokinase b- Digestive enzymes c- Galactosyl transferase d- -chymotrypsin 40- Treatment of intraocular hemorrhage is done by a- Streptokinase b- Digestive enzymes c- LDH d- -chymotrypsin 41- The oxidation process occurs by a- Addition of oxygen. b- Removal of hydrogen. c- Loss of electron d- All of the above

42- Redoxes that use oxygen as a hydrogen receptor are called .. a- Oxidases b- Hyper peroxidases c- Dehydrogenases d- Oxygenases 43- Catalase is specifically abundant in all of the following except .. a- Liver b- Kidney c- Erythrocytes d- Milk and leucocytes 44- Enzymes utilizing H2O2 as substrate . a- Oxidases b- Hyper peroxidases c- Dehydrogenases d- Oxygenases 45- LDH depends on . In dehydrogenation a- Nicotinamide b- FAD c- C.AMP d- None of the above 46- Enzymes which catalyze transfer of functional groups (G) other than hydrogen between a pair of substrates . a- Transferase b- Oxygenases c- Dehydrogenases d- Hydrolases

47- All of the following are included in Transferase class of enzymes except . a- Transaminase b- Hydrolase c- Transglycosayl d- None of the above 48- Split terminal peptide linkage splitting one amino acid at a time is .. a- Estrases b- Endoeptidases c- Exopeptidases d- Glycosidases 49- Fumerase is an example of . a- Transferase b- Hydrolase c- Oxidase d- Lyases 50- Lipase is an example of . a- Transferase b- Estrases c- Oxidases d- Lyases 51- Enzymes link two molecules using energy from ATP a- Lyases b- Hydrolase c- Ligase d- Redox 52- Carboxylase is an example of . a- Transferase b- Estrases c- Oxidases d- Ligases

Choose (A) for true and (B) For false of the following 53- Pepsin acts on peptide bonds between amino groups of aromatic amino acid and carboxylic group of another amino acid 54- Enzymes are usually specific in action 55- In Absolute specificity the enzyme acts at different rates on one type of bond in Compounds chemically related 56- Enzymes may be considered to lower energy barriers for chemical reactions 57- Increase in the substrate concentration will lead to decrease in enzyme activity 58- Increase in enzyme concentration increase the rate of reaction 59- Some enzymes containing SH groups requires Minerals to be activated 60- In Competitive inhibition Vmax of the enzyme is not decreased 61- Inducers are substances which inhibit gene expression 62- Isoenzyme is oligomeric enzyme

Model Answers:
1- A 2- C 3- A 4- C 5- C 6- D 7- A 8- D 9- C 10- A 11- B 12- B 13- C 14- A 15- C 16- A 17- D 18- D 19- C 20- B 21- D 22- A 23- B 24- C 25- B 26- D 27- C 28- D 29- D 30- A 31- B 32- A 33- B 34- D 35- A 36- A 37- A 38- B 39- C 40- D 41- D 42- A 43- D 44- B 45- A 46- A 47- B 48- C 49- D 50- B 51- C 52- D 53- A 54- A 55- B 56- A 57- B 58- A 59- B 60- A 61- B

1.

All the following about passive transport is true except: a. Occurs through intermolecular spaces in the membrane or in combination with a carrier protein b. The motion of molecules is from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration c. Occurs by the aid of the kinetic energy of the molecules d. Needs energy input from the cell

2. All the following molecules move into the cells passively except a. Oxygen & CO2 b. Electrolytes c. Glucose d. Proteins e. Amino acids 3. Which is true about trans-membrane channels: a. Oxygen passes through its specific channel from outside the cell to the inside b. The acetylcholine sodium gated channel needs a specific ligand to open c. All sodium channels are ligand gated d. The fat soluble vitamins have their own channel to pass through the membrane 4. True or false a. The greater the surface area of the membrane the higher the rate of diffusion. b. Great concentration difference of the substance on both sides of the membrane decreases the rate of diffusion. c. The higher the difference in pressure of the fluids on both sides of the membrane, the less the rate of diffusion. d. Ions pass from negatively charged medium to positively charged one even if there is no concentration difference. e. The rate of diffusion increases by increasing the permeability of the membrane. f. Membrane permeability is the rate of transport through a unit area of the membrane for a given concentration difference. g. A large number of channels through which the substance can diffuse increases the rate of diffusion h. The permeability and rate of diffusion is directly proportional to the degree of the resistance of the channel to the moving substance is directly proportional i. j. Permeability of the membrane is inversely related to the molecular weight of the substance Increase in temperature leads to increase in permeability

k. The greater the thickness of the membrane the lesser will be its permeability

5. All the following statements about facilitated diffusion are true except: a. It is called carrier-mediated diffusion b. Non-polar molecules as fat soluble vitamins need their own carrier c. In most cases the carrier is a lipoprotein d. Occurs in cases of large sized particle and lipid insoluble (polar) molecules 6. All the following statements about primary active transport is true except a. Occurs only through the lipid layer of the cell membrane b. Requires energy from ATP breakdown c. Doesnt need a specific carrier protein d. The sodium-potassium (Na+-K+) pump 7. Choose the false statement about the sodium potassium pump.... a. Its action is not affected by the sodium and potassium leak channels b. Pumps sodium ions outward of the cell and potassium ions to the inside c. The concentration of K+ inside the cell is 30 times higher than that outside d. It operates more or less continuously to drive Na+ out of the cell and pump K+ back into the cell, against their concentration gradient. 8. The Na+ K+ pump has all the following properties except: a. Is formed of two separate globular proteins b. Needs 2 ATP molecules per pump to operate c. Has 3 receptor sites for sodium ions on the inside of the cell. d. Has 2 receptor sites for potassium ions on the outside surface. e. It has an ATPase activity. 9. All the following are functions of Na+ K+ pump except: a. It is responsible for maintaining sodium & potassium conc. differences across the cell membrane needed for excitable tissue action thus its said to be electrogenic b. Maintains intracellular potassium necessary for protein metabolism. c. Its responsible for initiating the receptor action potential d. It maintains a negative electrical voltage inside the cells. e. It keeps the osmotic equilibrium and controls cell volume. 10. All the following are true about secondary active transport except: a. The carrier has two sites that must be occupied before acting b. Both molecules move against their concentration gradient c. They are all coupled systems d. They have two types co-transport and counter transport carriers

11. True or false: a. Glucose and amino acids move with sodium into the cells (Co-transported) b. Calcium moves outside the cell using sodiums energy c. Sodium and hydrogen carrier is a co-transport system 12. Match I. 1 gram molecular weight of osmotically active solute of the un-dissociated solute II. Ability of a solution to change the shape of cells by altering their internal water volume III. Determined by the number of particles per unit volume of fluid IV. Diffusion of a solvent, such as water, through a selectively permeable membrane to the other side in which there is higher concentration of the solute to which the membrane is impermeable a. Tonicity b. Osmotic c. Osmosis d. Osmolarity

pressure

V. It is the process that forces water and solutes through a membrane or capillary wall by the hydrostatic pressure VI. Number of osmoles per kilogram of solvent VII. Osmolar concentration expressed as osmoles/L of solution (The total concentration of all solute particles) from the diluted side. 13. True or false VIII. The pressure needed in the concentrated solution to prevent water movement

e. Osmolality f. Osmole

g. Filtration

a. The normal osmolality of the extracellular and intracellular fluids is about 300 milliosmoles/kilogram of water. b. Cells placed in 0.9% saline or 5% glucose solution swell rapidly c. A strong saline solution is hypertonic so a cell placed in it will lose water and shrink. d. 0.5 Saline is hypotonic e. The driving force for filtration is a pressure gradient that pushes solute-containing fluid (filtrate) from a higher-pressure area to a lower-pressure area. f. The resting membrane potential ranges from -50 to -100 where the minus sign indicates that the outside of the cell is negative compared to its inside g. The membrane of the cell is more permeable to sodium than potassium h. In most cells, Cl does not contribute to the resting membrane potential because, even though the membrane is permeable to Cl, its entry is resisted by the negative charge of the interior due to protein anions.

14. All of the following are causes participating in resting membrane potential except: a. Selective permeability across the cell membrane: b. Active Na+-K+ pump. c. Permeability of membrane to K+ because of leakage channel d. Motion of protein anions to the outside of the cells 15. Match 1. Water 2. Proteins 3. Fats 4. Minerals 16. Match 1. Intracellular fluid 2. Extracellular fluid 3. Interstitial fluid 4. Intravascular fluid 17. True or false The amount of body water decline with age and is affected by the quantity of body fat Transcellular fluid is found in pleura and joint cavities Homeostasis is the ability of the body to maintain constant conditions in its internal environment inspite of changes in the surroundings. Homeostasis depends on nervous and endocrinal systems for communication All homeostatic systems have 3 components and 2 pathways Most of homeostatic control mechanisms are negative feedback mechanisms In negative feedback systems, the output is opposite to the original stimulus thus reduces its intensity The negative feedback mechanisms prevent sudden severe changes within the body An Example of negative feedback mechanism is the body reaction to high blood CO2 level In positive feedback mechanisms, the response enhances the original stimulus Cascades create a vicious cycle The range of maintenance of physiological function in positive feedback is bigger than that of negative feedback Negative feedback maintains the physiological function within narrow ranges Childbirth is an example for positive feedback mechanisms a. of body water b. 1/12 of body water c. 2/3 of body water d. 1/3 of body water a. 15% b. 60% c. 7% d. 18%

Answers
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. T-F-F-F-T-T-T-F-F-T-T 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. T-T-F 12. F A B C G E D - B 13. T - F T F T F F - T 14. D 15. B D A C 16. C D A B 17. All are true

1. Elbow joint is a type of: a. Synovial pivot joint b. synovial condylar joint c. fibrous syndesmosis d. none of the above 2. Epiphyseal plate is a type of a. secondary cartilagenous joint b. Primary cartialgenous joint c. Plane joint d. Gomphosis joint 3. The urinary bladder is located in a. left iliac fossa b. hypogastric region c. the pelvic cavity d. both b & c 4. The peritoneum is a : a. Mucous membrane b. Cutaneous membrane c. serous membrane d. None of the above 5. Inferior tibio-fibular joint is a a. synovial polyaxial joint b. synovial biaxial ellipsoid joint c. fibrous joint d. syndesmosis joint e. both c & d 6. A type of secondary cartilagenous is: a. knee joint b. wrist joint c. sutures of the skull joint d. symphysis pubis joint 7. The parietal pleura membrane : a. lines the fibrous pericardial b. lines the chest wall c. covers the lung d. covers the heart

8. The visceral pleura membrane a. covers the lung b. covers the heart muscle c. lines the chest wall d. lines the fibrous 9. There are more than forming the skeleton a. 150 b. 216 c. 200 d. 125 10. Patella is a type of : a. sesmoid bone b. irregular bone c. flat bone d. pneumatic bone 11. The growing end of the humerus a. the upper end b. the lower end c. all of the above d. none of the above 12. The non growing end of the femur is: a. the upper end b. The lower end c. All of the above d. None of the above 13. The membrane(s) that line the cranial cavity are/is called : a. The visceral pleura b. The parietal pleura c. The visceral pericadium d. The parietal pericardium e. None of the above

14. The thoracic and the abdominal cavities are separated by : a. the diaphragm b. the meninges c. the dura mater d. the pia mater 15. The left lumbar region includes a. The right kidney b. The spleen c. the liver d. the left kidney 16. The left iliac fossa includes: a. the ascending colon b. the descending colon c. the left kidney d. the spleen 17. The chamber of the heart that receives the deoxygenated blood is : a. the right artium b. the left artium c. the left ventricle d. the right ventricle 18. The chamber of the heart that the deoxygenated blood is: a. the right atrium b. the left atrium c. the left ventricle d. the right ventricle 19. The blood vessel which carry deoxygenated blood from the heart is a. the aorta b. the superior vena cava c. the four pulmonary veins d. the pulmonary artery

20. The ratio between the thickness thewall of the left ventricle to the right ventricle is : a. 1:1 b. 2:1 c. 3:1 d. 1:3 21. Enter(s) the liver: a. only one artery called hepatic artery b. only one vein called hepativ vein c. hepatic artery & portal artery d. hepatic artery & portal vein 22. Systemic circulation is the ofthe blood from..and its return to a. the right artium to the the left ventricle b. the left ventricle to the right artium c. the right ventricle to the left artium d. the left artium to the right ventricle 23. The root of the teeth & alveolarmargin of maxilla or mandible typeof : a. fibrous sutures joints b. fibrous syndesmosis joint c. fibrous gomphosis d. fibrous joint 24. All of the following are types synovial uniaxial joints except: a. elbow joint b. superior radio-ulnar c. knee joint d. radio-carpal joint

25. Carpometacarpal joint of the a type of: a. biaxial saddle joint b. uniaxial hinge joint c. primary cartilagenous joint d. synovial biaxial 26. The valve between the right and the right ventricle is called a. a.mitral valve b. b.tricuspid valve c. c.semilunar valve d. d.septum 27. Both right and left coronary arteriessupply the heart withblood and arise from . a. a.oxygenated & ascending aorta b. b.deoxygenated & descending aorta c. c.deoxygenated & ascending aorta d. oxygenated & descending aorta

28. The anterior interventricular branch of the : a. a.the aorta b. b.the palmonary artery c. c.the right coronary d. d.the left coronary artery 29. The movement occurs only the feet where the planter surface of foot faces medially is called: a. supination b. pronation c. inversion d. eversion 30. The normal resting position forearm is called: a. supination b. pronation c. inversion d. eversion

31. Match 1. Primary cartilaginous joint 2. Secondary cartilaginous joint 3. Plane synovial joint 4. Poly axial joint 5. Fibrous joint 6. Pivot joint 32. Match 1. Flexion 2. Abduction 3. Extension 4. Adduction 5. Supination 6. Inversion 7.Eversion 33. Match 1. Rotation 2. Pronation 3. Circumduction 4. Medial rotation 5. Eversion 6. Lateral rotation 7. Inversion 34. Match 1. The left hypochondriac region 2. The left lumbar region 3. The left iliac fossa 4. The umbilical region 5. The epigastric region 6. The right lumbar region a. The right kidney b. The duodenum c. The spleen d. The left kidney e. The descending colon a. b. c. d. e. f. The anterior surface of the bone faces laterally Is the movement around the long axis of the bone The planter surface of the foot faces laterally. The anterior surface of thebone faces medially Occurs in the hip & the shoulder bones. Where the radius and the ulna are crossed and the thumb is a. Means bending b. The planter surface of the foot faces medially forearm c. Is the normal resting position of the d. Means straightening . e. Means movement away from the median plane median plane f. Means movement towards the a. Intercarpal joint b. Shoulder joint c. Sutures of the skull d. Symphysis pubis e. Superior radioulnar joint

medial

35. Match 1. The hypogastric region 2. The right hypochondriac region 3. The right iliac region 4. The epigastric region 5. The umbilical region a. The stomach b. The urinary bladder (full) c. The urinary bladder (empty) d. The liver e. The duodenum f. Illeocaecal junction

36. Match 1. Long bones 2. Short bones 3. Flat bones 4. Irregular bones 5. Pneumatic bones 6. Sesamoid bones 37. Match 1. Superior vena cava 2. Inferior vena cava 3. The pulmonary artery 4. The aorta 5. The four pulmonary veins 38. Match 1. The right atrium 2. The right ventricle 3. The left atrium a. Present between the right atrium and right ventricle b. Has the thickest wall c. Receives the oxygenated bloof from veins 4. The left ventricle the lungs through the 4 pulmonary a. An artery that carries deoxygenated blood parts b. Pumps oxygenated blood to body c. Carries deoxygenated blood from upper body parts lung d. Carry the oxygenated blood from the e. Carries deoxygenated blood from lower body parts a. Skull b. Vertebrae c. Ilium d. Metacarpal bones e. Patella

d. Pumps the deoxygenated blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery

5. The tricuspid valve

e. Receives deoxygenated blood from body parts

39. Match 1. The mitral valve 2. Pulmonary valve 3. The aortic valve 4. Semi-lunar valves a. Present at the beginning of the pulmonary artery arteries b. Present at the beginning of big c. Prevents backflow to left atrium during heart contraction d. Present at the beginning of the aorta

40. Match 1. Sutures of the skull 2. Roots of the teeth 3. Distal tibio-fibular joint 4. The growing ends of long bones 5. Symphysis pubis 6. Elbow joint 7. Superior radi-ulnar joint 8. Knee joint 9. Wrist joint 10. Carpometacarpal joint of thumb 11. Hip joint 12. Intercarpal joints a. Primary cartilaginous b. Fibrous gomphosis c. Synovial uniaxial hinge d. 2ry cartilaginous e. Fibrous syndesmosis f. Fibrous sutures g. Synovial plane h. Synovial biaxial ellipsoid i. j. l. Synovial uniaxial condylar Synovial uniaxial pivot Synovial polyaxial

k. Synovial biaxial saddle

41. Which of the following is true of the anatomical position? scapula. a. The humerus is proximal to the b. The radius is medial to the ulna. c. The vertebral arch is ventral to d. The femur is superior to the e. The phalanges of the foot are cranial to the metatarsals. fibula. the vertebral body.

42. If the body were sectioned along a ___ plane, it would be divided into ___ portions.

a. sagittalanterior and posterior b. sagittalsuperior and inferior d. coronalright and left c. coronalsuperior and inferior e. horizontalsuperior and inferior

43. Which of the following is true of a median plane of the hand? a. It becomes a horizontal plane 90 degrees.

47. In endochondral ossification, bone

replaces most of an initial cartilage the part of a bone ossified from the primary ossification center? a. Diaphysis b. Epiphysis

when the hand is medially rotated

model. Which of the following refers to

b. It becomes a coronal plane when the brachium (upper arm) is abducted 90 degrees. laterally rotated 90 degrees and c. It is the same as a frontal plane. d. It remains a median plane position. regardless of limb or body

c. Metaphysis e. Condyle

d. Epiphyseal plate 48. A 16-year-old boy crashes his mountain of the following damaged structures emanating from the fractured tibia? a. Nerves in compact bone b. Nerves in trabecular bone receptors

bike and suffers a fractured tibia. Which would most likely produce the acute pain

44. A radiologist wishes to image the body in a plane parallel to both scapulae. Which desired sectioning? of the following choices best describes the a. Horizontal section c. Frontal section

e. It is oriented mediolaterally.

c. Surrounding muscle and tendon d. Periosteal nerves 49. Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous joint? a. Humeroulnar joint e. Vascular nerves

b. Transverse section d. Sagittal section

45. A young boy uses his right hand to screwin a new light bulb. Which of the home movement of his forearm? a. Flexion b. Abduction c. Pronation d. Adduction following terms best describes the screw-

e. Oblique section

b. Middle radioulnar joint c. Intervertebral disc joint d. Cranial sutural joint e. Tibiotalar joint

50. Synovial joints allow free movement classifi ed into multiple subtypes

between their bony elements. They are according to the shape of the articulating surfaces and/or the degree of movement allowed. Which of the following synovial a. Pivot

46. Bones are often classified according to Which of the following choices is an example of a flat bone? a. Humerus b. Sternum c. Hamate d. Maxilla e. Patella

e. Supination

their shape and/or developmental pattern.

joint types permits multiaxial movement? b. Ball and socket c. Condyloid d. Saddle e. Hinge

51. A physician delivers an intramuscular injection into the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Which of the following

e. Epidermis, superficial fascia, dermis, deep fascia, epimysium 52. A physician discovers that his 72-yearthat normally carries oxygen-depleted most likely damaged? old patient is leaking blood from a vessel blood. Which of the following vessels is a. Pulmonary trunk b. Pulmonary veins c. Abdominal aorta d. Coronary arteries e. Common carotid arteries

sequences describes the correct order of tissue layers pierced by the needle, passing from superficial to deep?

a. Epidermis, dermis, superficial fascia, epimysium, deep fascia b. Dermis, epidermis, superficial fascia, deep fascia, epimysium c. Dermis, epidermis, superficial fascia, epimysium, deep fascia d. Epidermis, dermis, superficial fascia, deep fascia, epimysium

Answers
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. E 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. E 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. A 31. -/D/A/B/C/E 32. A/E/D/F/C/B/33. B/F/E/D/C/A/34. C/D/E/B/-/A 35. B/D/E/A/E 36. -/D/C/B/A/E 37. C/E/A/B/D 38. E/D/C/B/A 39. C/A/D/B 40. F/B/E/A/D/C/J/I/H/K/L/G 41. D 42. E 43. D 44. C 45. E 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. D 52. A

1. The mechanism of DNA and RNA synthesis are similar in all the following except a. They involve release of pyrophosphate from each nucleotide added b. They require activated nucleotide precursor c. The direction of synthesis is 5'->3' d. =They both require a primer 2. Another name for reverse transcriptase is a. DNA dependent DNA polymerase b. DNA dependent RNA polymerase c. =RNA dependent DNA polymerase d. RNA dependent RNA polymerase 3. In eukaryotes, the 40 S pre-initiation complex contains all the following initiation factors except a. eIF-1 b. eIF-2 c. eIF-3 d. =eIF-4

4. The first amino acyl tRNA which initiatestranslation in eukaryotes is a. =Mehtionyl tRNA b. Formylmethionyl tRNA c. Tyrosinyl tRNA d. Alanyl tRNA 5. All the following statements about recognition of a codon on mRNA by an anticodon on tRNA are correct except a. The recognition of the third base of the codon is not very precise b. Imprecise recognition of the third base results in wobble c. Wobble is partly responsible for the degeneracy of the genetic code d. =Wobble results in incorporation of incorrect amino acids in the protein 6. All the following statements about charging of tRNA are correct except a. It is catalysed by amino acyl tRNA synthetase b. =ATP is converted into ADP and Pi in this reaction c. The enzyme recognizes the tRNA and the amino acid d. There is a separate enzyme for each tRNA

7. All the following statements about tRNA are correct except a. A given tRNA can be charged with only one particular amino acid b. =The amino acid is recognized by the anticodon of tRNA c. The amino acid is attached to end of tRNA d. The anticodon of tRNA finds the complementary codon on mRNA 8. Non-coding sequence are present in the genes of a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. =Eukaryotes d. All of these 9. All the following statements about genetic code are correct except a. It is degenerate b. It is unambigous c. It is universal d. =It is overlapping 10. Genetic code is said to be degenerate because a. It can undergo mutations b. A large proportion of DNA is non-coding c. One codon can code for more than one amino acids d. =More than one codons can code for the same amino acids 11. Codons are present on a. Non-coding strand of DNA b. =hnRNA c. tRNA d. None of these 12. Anticodons are present on a. Coding strand of DNA b. mRNA c. =tRNA d. rRNA 13. The anticodon region is an important partof the structure of a. rRNA b. =tRNA c. mRNA d. hnRNA 14. All of the following statements about post-transcriptional processing of tRNA are true except a. Introns of some tRNA precursors are removed b. CCA is added at 3 end c. =7-Methylguanosine triphosphate cap is added at 5 end d. Some bases are methylated

15. Introns in genes a. Encode the amino acids which are removed during posttranslational modification b. Encode signal sequences which are removed before secretion of the proteins c. =Are the non-coding sequences which are not translated d. Are the sequences that intervene between two genes 16. The mammalian DNA polymerase involved in error correction is a. DNA polymerase b. =DNA polymerase c. DNA polymerase d. DNA polymerase 17. Primase activity is present in a. DNA polymerase II b. =DNA polymerase c. =DNA polymerase d. =DNA polymerase 18. A consensus sequence on DNA, called TATAbox, is the site for attachment of a. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase b. =DNA-dependent RNA polymerase c. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase d. DNA topoisomerase II

19. Newly synthesized tRNA undergoes posttranscriptional modifications which includeall the following except a. Splicing b. folding and base-pairing c. cleavage d. =Addition of C-C-A terminus at 5 end 20. Post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA involves all of the following except a. Addition of 7methylguanosine triphosphate cap b. Addition of polyadenylate tail c. =Insertion of nucleotides d. Deletion of introns 21. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is the precursor of a. =mRNA b. rRNA c. tRNA d. None of these 22. In mammals, synthesis of mRNA is catalysed by a. RNA polymerase I b. =RNA polymerase II c. RNA polymerase III d. RNA polymerase IV

23. Mammalian RNA polymerase III synthesises a. rRNA b. mRNA c. =tRNA d. None of these 24. In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from a. DNA to DNA b. DNA to protein c. RNA to protein d. =DNA to RNA 25. A plasma cell : a. Has a small central nucleus b. Has an acidophilic cytoplasm c. Shows pseudopodia and microvilli d. All of the above e. =None of the above 26. Mammalian RNA polymerase I synthesises a. mRNA b. =rRNA c. tRNA d. hnRNA 27. Non-sense codons bring about a. Amino acid activation b. Initiation of protein synthesis c. =Termination of protein synthesis d. Elongation of polypeptide chains

28. The elongation step of protein synthesis results in the splitting of how many high energy bonds? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. =4 29. Polysomes don't contain a. Protein b. =DNA c. mRNA d. rRNA 30. Which pathway is correct for catabolism of purines to form uric acid? a. GuanylateAdenylateXanthi nehypoxanthine Uric acid b. GuanylateinosinateXanthi nehypoxanthine Uric acid c. AdenylateInosinateXanthi ne hypoxanthine Uric acid d. =AdenylateInosinatehypox anthine XanthineUric acid 31. Synthesis of GMP from IMP requires a. ammonia and ATP b. =NAD+ and ATP c. ammonia and GTP d. GTP and NADP+

32. Two nitrogen of the pyrimidines ring are obtained from a. Glutamine and Carbamoyl-p b. =Asparate and Carbamoyl-p c. Glutamate and ammonia d. Glutamine and ammonia 33. In humans, the principal metabolic product of pyrimidines is a. Uric acid b. Allantoin c. Hypoxanthine d. =-alanine 34. Using written convention which one of thefollowing sequences is complimentary to TGGCAGCCT? a. =ACCGTCGGA b. ACCGGCGGA c. AGGCTGCCA d. TGGCTCGGA 35. A key substance in the committed step of pyrimidines biosynthesis is a. Ribose-5-phosphate b. =Carbamoyl phosphate c. Glutamine d. ATP 36. In humans, the principal break down product of purines is a. ammonia b. Allantin c. Alanine d. =Uric acid

37. Inosine is the biological precursor of a. Cytosine and Uric acid b. =Adenine and Guanine c. Orotic acid and Uridylic acid d. Adenosine & Thymidine 38. Glycine contributes to the following C and N of purine nucleus : a. C1, C2 and N7 b. C8, C8 and N9 c. =C4, C5 and N7 d. C4, C5 and N9 39. The four nitrogen atoms of purines are derived from a. Urea and ammonia b. ammonia, Asparate and Glutamate c. =Aspartate, Glutamine and Glycine d. ammonia, glycine and glutamate 40. Which one of the following contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings? a. =Aspartate b. Carbanoyl phosphate c. Carbon dioxide d. Tetrahydrofolate 41. tRNA has a. =Clover leaf structure b. anticodon arm c. poly A tail at the 3 end d. Cap at 5 end

46. Which one of the following statements 42. Uric acid is the catabolic end product of a. Porphyrine b. =Purines c. Pyrimidines d. Pyridoxine 43. Carbon 6-of purine skeleton comes from a. =Atmospheric carbon dioxide b. 1 carbon moiety carried by folate c. Betoine d. Methionine 44. Which one of the following causes frame shift mutation? a. Transition b. Transversion c. =Deletion d. Substitution of purine to pyrimidine 45. In the biosynthesis of DNA, the joining enzyme ligase requires a. GTP b. =ATP c. CTP d. UTP in a. Humans b. Birds c. =Bacteria d. Bacteriophage correctly describes eukaryotic DNA? a. They involve release of pyrophosphate from each nucleotide precursor and Mg2+ b. The direction of synthesis is 3'->5' c. =They require a primer 5 3 d. None of these 47. Which one of the following binds to specific nucleotide sequences? a. =RNA polymerase b. Repressor c. Inducer d. Restriction 48. Sulphur isn't present in a. Thiamine b. Lipic acid c. =Thymine d. Biotin 49. Restriction enzymes have been found

50. Anticodon sequence are seen in a. =tRNA and transcribed DNA strand b. tRNA and complementary DNA strand c. mRNA d. mRNA and complementary DNA strand 51. The total RNA in cell tRNA constitutes a. 110% b. =1020% c. 3050% d. 5080% 52. Which one of the following is not a constituent of RNA? a. =Deoxyribose b. Uracil c. Adenine d. Guanine 53. In DNA, genetic information is located in a. Purine bases b. Pyrimidine bases c. =Purine and pyrimidine bases d. sugar 54. A Gene is a. A single protein molecule b. A group of chromosomes c. An instruction for making a protein molecule d. =A bit of DNA molecule

55. In RNA, apart from ribose and phosphate, all following are present except a. Adenine b. Guanine c. =Thymine d. Cytosine 56. Elongation of a peptide chain involves all the following except a. mRNA b. GTP c. =met-tRNA d. Elongation factors 57. Genetic information in human beings is stored in a. RNA b. =DNA c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these 58. If in a nucleic acid there are more than 8000 nucleotides it is most likely a. RNA b. =DNA c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these 59. All following are naturally occurring nucleotides except a. Cyclic AMP b. ATP c. =DNA d. IMP

60. The genetic code operates via a. The protein moiety of DNA b. The base sequences of DNA c. =The nucleotide sequence of mRNA d. The base sequence of tRNA 61. Codons are in a. DNA b. =mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA 62. Genes are a. RNA b. =DNA c. lipoproteins d. Chromoproteins 63. mRNA ready for protein synthesis has the poly _______ tail. a. G b. =A c. U d. C 64. The mRNA ready for protein synthesis has the ________ cap. a. ATP b. CTP c. =CH3-GTP d. UTP 65. RNA synthesis requires a. RNA primer b. RNA template c. =DNA template d. DNA primer

66. RNA directed DNA polymerase is a. Replicase b. Transcriptase c. PolymeraseIII d. =Reverse transcriptase 67. Translation results in the formation of a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. =A protein molecule 68. A mRNA of eukaryotes can code for a. =Only one polypeptide b. Two polypeptides c. Three polypeptides d. Five polypeptides 69. A synthetic RNA having the sequence of UUUUUU (Poly U) will give a protein having poly ______. a. Alamine b. =Phenyl alanine c. Glycine d. Methionine 70. The mitochondrial DNA is a. Like the nuclear DNA in structure b. Single stranded, linear c. =Double stranded, circular d. Single stranded, circular

71. In addition to the DNA of nucleus there DNA is a. =Mitochondria b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Plasma membrane 72. Okasaki fragments are small bits of a. RNA b. DNA c. =DNA with RNA heads d. RNA with DNA heads 73. Translation is the formation of a. DNA from a parent DNA b. mRNA from a parent mRNA c. pre mRNA from DNA d. =protein through mRNA 74. DNA is a. Usually present in tissues as a nucleo protein and cannot be separated from its protein component b. =A long chain polymer in which the internucleotide linkages are of the diester type between C-3 and C-5 c. Different from RNA since in the latter the internucleotide linkages are between C-2 and C-5 d. Hydrolyzed by weak alkali (pH9 to 100C)

75. Which of the following contains a deoxy sugar? a. RNA b. =DNA c. ATP d. UTP 76. RNA does not contain a. Adenine b. =OH methyl cytosine c. Uracil d. d-ribose 77. Acid hydrolysis of ribonucleic acid would yield the following major products : a. d-deoxyribose, cytosine, adenine b. d-ribose, thymine, Guanine c. d-ribose, cytosine, uracil, thymine d. =d-ribose, uracil, adenine, guanine, cytosine 78. How many high-energy phosphate bondequivalents are required for amino acidactivation in protein synthesis? a. 1 b. =2 c. 3 d. 4

79. Which of the following statements about nucleic acid is most correct? a. Both pentose nucleic acid and deoxypentose nucleic acid contain the same pyrimidines b. =Both pentose nucleic acid and deoxypentose nucleic acid Contain the same purines c. RNA contains cytosine and thymine d. DNA and RNA are hydrolysed by weak alkali 80. The structural stability of the double helix of DNA is as cribbed largely to a. Hydrogen bonding between adjacent purine bases b. Hydrophobic bonding between staked purine and pyrinuidine nuclei c. Hydrogen bonding between adjacent pyrimidine bases d. =Hydrogen bonding between purine and pyrimidine bases 81. This compound has a double helical structure. a. =Deoxyribonucleic acid b. Ribonucleic acid c. Flavine-adevine dinucleotide d. Nicotinamide adamine dinucleotide

82. From DNA the genetic message is transcribed into this compound : a. Protein b. =mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA 83. Among the different types of RNA, which one has the highest Percentage in the cell? a. mRNA b. =rRNA c. tRNA 84. A polyribosome will have about _______ individual ribosomes. a. 20 b. =10 c. 5 d. 2 85. What is the sub-cellular site for the biosynthesis of proteins? a. Chromosomes b. Lymosomes c. =Ribosomes d. Centrosomes 86. ATP is required for a. Fusion of 40S and 60S of ribosome b. Accommodation tRNA amino acid in a site of ribosome c. Movement of ribosome along mRNA d. =formation of tRNA amino acid complex

87. GTP is not required for a. Capping of mRNA b. Fusion of 40S and 60S of ribosome c. Accommodation of tRNA amino acid d. =Formation of tRNA amino acid complex 88. A Eukaryotic ribosome is made up of ________ sub units. a. =40S and 60S b. 40S and 50S c. 40S and 80S d. 60S and 80S 89. mRNA is complementary copy of a. 5-3 strand of DNA b. =3-5 strand of DNA c. Antisense strand of DNA d. tRNA 90. If DNA of a cancer cell is introduced into a normal cell, the recipient cell a. Destroys the DNA b. Loses its ability to divide c. Dies d. =Changes into a cancer cell 91. A cancer cell is characterized by a. Uncontrolled cell division b. Invasion of neighbouring cells c. Spread to distant sites d. =All the above

92. Twenty cycles of PCR can provide an amplification of a. =1000000 b. 10000 c. 200000 d. 2000 93. Which of the following may be used as a cloning vector? a. Prokaryotic plasmid b. bacteriophage c. Cosmid d. =All the above 94. For production of eukaryotic protein by recombinant DNA technology in bacteria, the template used is a. Eukaryotic gene b. hnRNA c. =mRNA d. All of these 95. A particular protein in a mixture can be detected by a. Southern blotting b. Northern blotting c. =Western blotting d. None of these 96. An antibody probe is used in a. Southern blotting b. Northern blotting c. =Western blotting d. None of these

97. A radioactive isotope labelled DNA probe is used in a. Southern blotting b. Northern blotting c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these 98. A particular RNA in a mixture can be identified by a. Western blotting b. Eastern blotting c. =Northern blotting d. Southern blotting 99. Fragments of DNA can be identified by the technique of a. Western blotting b. Eastern blotting c. Northern blotting d. =Southern blotting 100. The normal function of restriction a. Excise introns from hrRNA b. Polymerize nucleotides to form RNA c. Remove primer from okazaki fragments d. =Protect bacteria from foreign DNA endonucleases is to

101.

All of the following statements

about restriction endonucleases are true except : a. They are present in bacteria b. They act on double stranded DNA c. They are used in recombinant DNA d. =They always produce sticky ends 102. Restriction endonucleases split a. RNA b. Single stranded DNA c. =Double stranded DNA d. DNA-RNA hybrids 103. A frame-shift mutation changes the reading frame because the genetic code a. Is degenerate b. Is overlapping c. =Has no punctuations d. Is universal 104. Insertion of a base in a gene can a. Change in reading frame b. Garbled amino acid sequence in the encoded protein c. Premature termination of translation d. =All of these cause

105.

If the codon UAC on mRNA

109.

A silent mutation is most likely to a. Substitution of the first base of a codon b. =Substitution of the third base of a codon c. Conversion of a nonsense codon into a sense codon d. Conversion of a sense codon into a nonsense codon

changes into UAG as a result of a base substitution in DNA, it will result in a. Silent mutation b. Acceptable mis-sense mutation c. =Nonsense mutation d. Frameshift mutation 106. Haemoglobin S is an example of a. Silent mutation b. Acceptable mis-sense mutation c. Unacceptable mis-sense mutation d. =Partially acceptable mis-sense mutation 107. Amino acid sequence of the encoded protein is not changed in a. =Silent mutation b. Acceptable mis-sense mutation c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these 108. The effect of a mis-sense mutation a. Acceptable b. Partially acceptable c. Unacceptable d. =All of these can be a/an

result from

110. a

Substitution of a base can result in a. Silent mutation b. Mis-sense mutation c. Nonsense mutation d. =All of these

111.

Degeneracy of the genetic code a. Base triplets that do not code for any amino acids b. Codons consisting of only two bases c. Codons that include one or more of the unusual bases d. =Multiple codons for a single amino acid

denotesthe existence of

112.

A point mutation results from a. =Substitution of a base b. Insertion of a base c. Deletion of a base d. All of these

113.

The proteins destined to be

117.

After formation of a peptide bond,

transported out of the cell have all the following features except a. They possess a signal sequence b. After synthesis, they are delivered into Golgi apparatus c. Ribosomes synthesizing them are bound to endoplasmic reticulum d. =They are tagged with ubiquitin 114. Puromycin causes premature a. Prokaryotes b. Eukaryotes c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these 115. Erythromycin binds to the a. Inhibits binding of amino acyl tRNA b. Inhibits Peptidyl transferase activity c. =Inhibits translocation d. Causes premature chain termination 116. Peptidyl transferase activity of the large prokaryotic ribosomal subunits is inhibited by a. Rifampicin b. Cycloheximide c. =Chloramphenicol d. Erythromycin prokaryotic ribosome chain termination in

mRNA is translocated along the ribosome by a. eEF-1 and GTP b. =eEF-2 and GTP c. Peptidyl transferase and GTP d. Peptidyl transferase and ATP 118. Peptidyl transferase activity is a. 40 S ribosomal subunit b. =60 S ribosomal subunit c. eEF-2 d. Amino acyl tRNA 119. eIF-1A and eIF-3 are required a. For binding of amino acyl tRNA to 40 S ribosomal subunit b. For binding of mRNA to 40 S ribosomal subunit c. For binding of 60 S subunit to 40 S subunit d. =To prevent binding of 60 S subunit to 40 S subunit 120. The first amino acyl tRNA approaches 40 S ribosomal subunit in association with a. eIF-1A and GTP b. =eIF-2 and GTP c. eIF-2C and GTP d. eIF-3 and GTP present in

121.

The codon which serves as a. =AUG b. UAG c. UGA d. UAA

125.

The eukaryotic nuclear a. =Is a linear and unbranched molecule b. Is not associated with a specific membranous c. Is not replicated semiconservatively d. Is about of the same size as each prokaryotic

translation start signal is

chromosomal DNA

122.

Genetic information flows from a. DNA to DNA b. =DNA to RNA c. RNA to cellular proteins d. DNA to cellular proteins 126.

The function of a repressor protein

123.

In the process of transcription in a. Initiation requires rho protein b. RNA polymerase incorporates methylated c. =Both the sigma unit and core enzymes of RNA d. Primase is necessary for initiation

in anoperon system is to prevent synthesis by binding to a. The ribosome b. =A specific region of the operon preventing c. The RNA polymerase d. A specific region of the mRNA preventing 127. All pribnow boxes are variants of a. =5TATAAT 3 b. 5GAGCCA 3 c. 5UAACAA 3 d. 5TCCTAG 3 128. 5-Terminus of mRNA molecule is a. Guanosine tri-phosphate b. =7-Methylguanosine triphosphate c. Adenosine tri-phosphate d. Adenosine diphosphate capped with

bacterial cells

124.

The correct statement concerning a. RNA polymerase use nucleoside diphosphates b. RNA polymerase require primers and add c. DNA polymerases can add nucleotides at both d. =All RNA and DNA polymerases can add

RNA and DNA polymerases is

the sequence :

129.

The first codon to be translated on a. =AUG b. GGU c. GGA d. AAA

134.

The amino terminal of all

mRNA is

polypeptide chain at the time of synthesis in human is tagged to the amino acid residue : a. =Methionine b. Serine c. N-formyl methinine d. N-formal serine 135. Initiation of protein synthesis a. =40S ribosomal unit on mRNA b. 60S ribosomal unit c. Charging of tRNA with specific amino acid d. Attachment of aminoacyl tRNA on mRNA 136. Initiation of protein synthesis a. =40S ribosomal unit on mRNA b. 60S ribosomal unit c. Charging of tRNA with specific amino acid d. Attachment of aminoacyl tRNA on mRNA 137. Initiation of protein synthesis a. ATP b. AMP c. GDP d. =GTP requires begins with binding of begins with binding of

130.

AUG, the only identified codon for a. A releasing factor for peptide chains b. A chain terminating codon c. Recognition site on tRNA d. =A chain initiating codon

methionine is important as

131.

In biosynthesis of proteins the a. =UAA, UAG and UGA b. UGG, UGU and AGU c. AAU, AAG and GAU d. GCG, GCA and GCU

chain terminating codons are

132.

The formation of initiation

complex during protein synthesis requires a factor : a. =IF-III b. EF-I c. EF-II d. IF-I 133. Genetic code is a. =Collection of codon b. Collection of amino acids c. Collection of purine nucleotide d. Collection of pyrimidine nucleotide

138.

The enzyme amino acyl tRNA a. Dissociation of discharged tRNA from 80S b. =Charging of tRNA with specific amino acids c. Termination of protein synthesis d. Nucleophilic attack on esterified carboxyl

142.

The newly entering amino acyl a. EF-II b. Ribosomal RNA c. mRNA d. =EF-I

synthetaseis involved in

tRNA into a site requires

143.

The tRNA in the A site carries out a

nucleophilic attack on the esterified carboxyl group of the peptidyl tRNA occupying the P site. This reaction is catalysed by -amino group of the new amino acyl a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. =Peptidyl transferase d. DNA ligase 144. The nucleophilic attack on the esterified carboxyl group of the peptidyl-tRNA occupying the P site and the group of the new amino acyl tRNA, the number of ATP required by the amino acid on the charged tRNA is -amino a. =Zero b. One c. Two d. Four

139.

In the process of activation of

amino acids for protein synthesis, the number of high energy phosphate bond equivalent utilised is a. 0 b. 1 c. =2 d. 4 140. Translation results in a product a. =Protein b. tRNA c. mRNA d. rRNA 141. In the process of elongation of chain binding of amino acyl tRNA to the A site requires a. =A proper codon recognition b. GTP c. EF-II d. GDP known as

148.

Tetracylin prevents synthesis of a. Blocking mRNA formation from DNA

polypeptide by

145.

Degeneracy of genetic code a. Codons do not code for specific amino acid b. =Multiple codons must decode the same amino c. No anticodon on tRNA molecule d. Specific codon decodes many amino acids 149.

b. Releasing peptides from mRNA-tRNA complex c. Competing with mRNA for ribosomal binding d. =Preventing binding of amino acyl tRNA The gene which is transcribed a. Structural b. =Regulator c. Promoter d. Operator 150. The enzyme DNA ligase a. Introduces super-helical twists b. =Connects the end of two DNA chains c. Unwinds the double helix d. Synthesises RNA primers 151. Restriction endonucleases a. Cut RNA chains at specific locations b. Excise introns from hnRNA c. Remove Okazaki fragments d. =Act as defensive enzymes to protect the host bacterial DNA from DNA of foreign organisms during repression is

implies that

146.

Translocation of the newly formed

peptidyl tRNA at the A site into the empty P site involves a. =EF-II, GTP b. EF-I, GTP c. EF-I, GDP d. Peptidyl transferase, GTP 147. In eukaryotic cells a. Formylated tRNA is important for initiation of b. =Cyclohexamide blocks elongation during c. Cytosolic ribosomes are smaller than those d. Erythromycin inhibits elongation during

152.

The most likely lethal mutation is a. Substitution of adenine for cytosine b. =Insertion of one nucleotide c. Deletion of three nucleotides d. Substitution of cytosine for guanine

155.

Positive control of induction is best

described as a control system in which anoperon functions a. Unless it is switched off by a derepressed b. Only after a repressor protein is inactivated by an inducer c. Only after an inducer protein, which can be inactivated by a

153.

In the following partial sequence

corepressor, switches it on d. =Only after an inducer protein, which is activated by an inducer, switch it on 156. Genetic code is a. Overlapping b. =Non-overlapping c. Not universal d. Ambiguous 157. Interferon a. Is virus specific b. Is a bacterial product

of mRNA, a mutation of the template DNA results in a change in codon 91 to UAA. The type of mutation is 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 GUC GAC CAG UAG GGC UAA CCG a. Mis-sense b. =Silent c. Nonsense d. Frame shift

154. of

Restriction endonucleases

c. Is a synthetic antiviral agent d. =Requires expression of cellular genes 158. Repressor binds to DNA sequence

recognize and cut a certain sequence a. Single stranded DNA b. =Double stranded DNA c. RNA d. Protein

andregulate the transcription. This sequenceis called a. Attenuator b. Terminator c. Anti terminator d. =Operator

163. 159. Okazaki fragment is related to a. =DNA synthesis b. Protein synthesis c. mRNA formation d. tRNA formation 160. The region of DNA known as a. DNA polymerase b. DNA topoisomerase c. =DNA dependent RNA polymerase d. Polynucleotide phosphorylase 161. Reverse transcriptase is capable of a. =RNA DNA b. DNA RNA c. RNA RNA d. DNA DNA 162. Peptidyl transferase activity is a. Elongation factor b. A charged tRNA molecule c. =Ribosomal protein d. A soluble cytosolic protein 166. located in 165. synthesising 164. TATA BOX is the site for binding of

Ultraviolet light can damage a a. Ultraviolet light can damage a DNA strand covalently bounded dimer b. =Two adjacent pyrimidine residues to form covalently bonded dimer c. Disruption of phosphodiesterase linkage d. Disruption of non-covalent linkage In nucleotides, phosphate is a. Salt bond b. Hydrogen bond c. =Ester bond d. Glycosidic bond Cyclic AMP can be formed from a. AMP b. ADP c. =ATP d. All of these A substituted pyrimidine base of a. 5-Iododeoxyuridine b. Cytisine arabinoside c. =5-Fluorouracil d. All of these

DNA strand causing

attached to sugar by

pharmacological value is

167.

mRNA is complementary to the a. Coding strand b. Ribosomal RNA c. tRNA d. =Template strand

172.

Alkalis cannot hydrolyse a. mRNA b. tRNA c. =rRNA d. DNA

nucleotide sequence of

173.

Codons are present in a. Template strand of DNA b. =mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA

168.

In DNA, the complementary base a. Guanine b. Cytosine c. Uracil d. =Thymine 174.

of adenine is

Amino acid is attached to tRNA at a. 5-End b. =3-End c. Anticodon d. DHU loop

169.

In DNA, three hydrogen bonds are a. Adenine and guanine b. Adenine and thymine c. =Guanine and cytosine d. Thymine and cytosine 175.

formed between

In prokaryotes, the ribosomal a. 30 S and 40 S b. 40 S and 50 S c. =30 S and 50 S d. 40 S and 60 S

subunits are

170.

Nuclear DNA is present in a. Histones b. Non-histones c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these 176.

combination with

The smallest RNA among the a. rRNA b. hnRNA c. mRNA d. =tRNA

following is

171.

Number of guanine and cytosine a. mRNA b. tRNA c. =DNA d. None of these 177.

residues is equal in

The number of adenine and a. =DNA b. mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA

thymine bases is equal in

178.

In DNA replication the enzyme a. DNA directed polymerase b. =Unwinding proteins c. DNA polymerase d. DNA ligase

183.

Transfer RNA transfers a. Information from DNA to ribosomes b. Information from mRNA to cytosol c. =Amino acids from cytosol to ribosomes d. Proteins from ribosomes to cytosol

required in the first step is

179. is

The number of hydrogen bonds

between adenine and thymine in DNA a. One b. =Two c. Three d. Four 180. The complementary base of a. Thymine b. Cystosine c. Guanine d. =Uracil 181. Extranuclear DNA is present in a. Ribosomes b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Lysosomes d. =Mitochondria 182. Mitochondrial DNA is present in a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. =Eukaryotes d. All of these 186. 185. adenine in RNA is 184.

Nucleotides required for the

synthesis of nucleic acids can be obtained from a. Dietary nucleic acids and nucleotides b. De novo synthesis c. Salvage of pre-existing bases and nucleosides d. =De novo synthesis and salvage De novo synthesis of purine a. Mitochondria b. =Cytosol c. Microsmes d. Ribosomes The nitrogen atoms for de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides are provided by a. Aspartate and glutamate b. Aspartate and glycine c. =Aspartate, glutamine and glycine d. Aspartate, glutamate and glycine nucleotide occurs in

187.

The smallest unit of DNA capable

191.

5-Phosphoribosyl-1-

of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is a. Operon b. Repressor gene c. =Cistron d. Replicon 188. For de novo synthesis of purine a. One nitrogen atom b. One nitrogen and one carbon atom c. Two carbon atoms d. =One nitrogen and two carbon atoms 189. For de novo synthesis of purine a. =Nitrogen 1 b. Nitrogen 3 c. Nitrogen 7 d. Nitrogen 9 190. In the purine nucleus, carbon 6 is a. Glycine b. =CO2 c. Aspartate d. Glutamine nucleotides, aspartate provides

pyrophosphate is required for the synthesis of a. Purine nucleotides b. Pyrimidine nucleotides c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these 192. Inosine monophophate is an intermediate during the de novo synthesis of a. =AMP and GMP b. CMP and UMP c. CMP and TMP d. All of these 193. of a. TMP b. CMP c. AMP d. =GMP 194. In the pathway of de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, all the following are allosteric enzymes except a. PRPP glutamyl amido transferase b. Adenylosuccinate synthetase c. IMP dehydrogenase d. =Adenylosuccinase Xanthosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo synthesis

nucleotides, glycine provides

contributed by

195.

All of the following enzymes are

199.

An allosteric inhibitor of a. =AMP b. ADP c. GMP d. GDP

unique to purine nucleotide synthesis except a. =PRPP synthetase b. PRPP glutamyl amido transferase c. Adenylosuccinate synthetase d. IMP dehydrogenase 196. PRPP synthetase is allosterically a. AMP b. ADP c. GMP d. =All of these 197. An allosteric inhibitor of PRPP a. AMP b. ADP c. GMP d. =All of these 198. Termination of the synthesis of the RNA molecule is signalled by a sequence in the template strand of the DNA molecule, a signal that is recognized by a termination protein, the a. =Rho () factor b. factor c. factor d. factor glutamylamido transferase is inhibited by

adenylosuccinatesynthetase is

200.

An allosteric inhibitor of IMP a. AMP b. ADP c. =GMP d. GDP

dehydrogenaseis

201.

After termination of the synthesis

of RNA molecule, the core enzymes separate from the DNA template. The core enzymes then recognize a promoter at which the synthesis of a new RNA molecule commences, with the assistance of a. Rho () factor b. factor c. factor d. = factor 202. Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by a. rRNA b. =mRNA c. tRNA d. Polysomes

203.

HDL is synthesized and secreted a. Pancreas b. =Liver c. Kidney d. Muscle

209.

2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine is a. Thymine b. cytosine c. =uracil d. Guanine

from :

210.

The chemical name of guanine is a. 2,4-Dioxy-5methylpyrimidine b. =2-Amino-6-oxypurine c. 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine d. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine

204.

In mammalian cells, rRNA is a. Ribosomes b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. =Nucleolus d. nucleus 211.

produced mainly in the

The carbon of the pentose in ester

205.

Mature RBCs don't contain a. glycolytic enzymes b. HMP shunt enzymes c. =Pyrimidine nucleotide d. ATP

linkage with the phosphate in a nucleotide structure is a. C1 b. C3 c. C4 d. =C5 212. The most abundant free nucleotide a. =ATP b. NAD c. GTP d. FAD 213. The nucleic acid base found in a. adenine b. cytosine c. guanine d. =uracil mRNA but not in DNA is in mammalian cells is

206.

All the following bases are a. cytosine b. =adenine c. thymine d. uracil

pyrimidine except :

207.

A pyrimidine nucleotide is a. GMP b. AMP c. =CMP d. IMP

208.

Adenine is a. =6-Amino purine b. 2-Amino-6-oxypurine c. 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine d. 2, 4-Dioxypyrimidine

214.

In RNA molecule Caps a. Allow tRNA to be processed b. =Are unique to eukaryotic mRNA c. Occur at the 3 end of tRNA d. Allow correct translation of prokaryotic mRNA

218.

2,4-dioxy pyrimidine is : a. guanine b. cytosine c. =uracil d. thymine

219.

In RNA molecule a. Guanine content equals cytosine b. Adenine content equals uracil c. Adenine content equals guanine d. =Guanine content does not necessarily equal its cytosine content.

215.

In RNA molecule guanine content

does not necessarily equal its cytosine content nor does its adenine content necessarily equal its uracil content since it is a a. =Single strand molecule b. Double stranded molecule c. Double stranded helical molecule d. Polymer of purine and pyrimidine ribonucleotides 216. The sugar moiety present in RNA is a. Ribulose b. =Ribose c. Arabinose d. Deoxyribose 217. in : a. Cardiac muscles b. Superficial epithelial cells c. Nerve cells d. Both A & B e. =Both A & C Lipofuscin is more frequently seen 221. 220. a

The structure of tRNA appears like a. Helix b. Hair pin c. =Clover leaf d. Coil Although each specific tRNA

differs from the others in its sequence of nucleotides, all tRNA molecules contain a base paired stem that terminates in the sequence CCA at a. =3 Termini b. 5 Termini c. Anti-codon arm d. 35 -Termini

222.

DNA rich in A-T pairs have a. 1 Hydrogen bond b. =2 Hydrogen bonds c. 3 Hydrogen bonds d. 4 Hydrogen bonds

227.

Infantile convulsions due to lesser

formation of gamma amino butyric acid from glutamic acid is seen in the deficiency of a. Glutamate-dehydrogenase b. =Pyridoxine c. Folic acid d. Thiamin 228. Compound used as chemotherapy a. alloxan b. 5 fluorouracil c. thiouracil d. 6 mercaptopurine e. =b & d 229. Intestinal nucleosidases act on a. Purine base only b. Phosphate only c. Sugar only d. =Purine or pyrimidine bases and sugars 230. In purine biosynthesis carbon atoms at 4and 5 position and N at 7 position arecontributed by a. =Glycine b. Glutamine c. Alanine d. Threonine nucleosidesand produce of cancer

223.

In DNA molecule a. Guanine content does not equal cytosine content b. Adenine content does not equal thymine content c. Adenine content equals uracil content d. =Guanine content equals cytosine content

224.

DNA rich in G-C pairs have a. 1 Hydrogen bond b. 2 Hydrogen bonds c. =3 Hydrogen bonds d. 4 Hydrogen bonds

225.

In a DNA molecule the thymine

concentration is 30%, the guanosine concentration will be a. 10% b. =20% c. 30% d. 40% 226. In a DNA molecule, the guanosine content is 40%, the adenine content will be a. =10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40%

231.

2,6,8 trioxypurine is a. adenine b. =uric acid c. guanine d. None of the above

235.

A nucleotide consists of a. A nitrogenous base like choline b. Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar +phosphate c. =Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar d. Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous

232.

All of the following are about a. considered as soluble RNA b. =constitutes 5% of all RNA c. composed of 74 to 95 nucleotides d. carry amino acids to mRNA 236.

tRNA except

A purine nucleotide is a. =AMP b. UMP c. CMP d. TMP

233.

Which of the following in the 237. a. aspartate b. CO2 c. glutamic acid d. glutamine e. =b &d

structure of both purine & pyrimidine

An allosteric inhibitor of IMP a. AMP b. ADP c. =GMP d. GDP

dehydrogenase is

234.

A nucleoside consists of a. Nitrogenous base b. =Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar c. Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous d. Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar +phosphate

238.

The available PRPP is used a. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides b. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides c. =Salvage of purine bases d. Salvage of pyrimidine bases

preferentially for

239.

The end product of purine a. Inosine b. Hypoxanthine c. Xanthine d. =Uric acid

catabolism in man is

240.

The enzyme common to a. Adenosine deaminase b. =Xanthine Oxidase c. Guanase d. None of these

245.

The nitrogen atoms of pyrimidine a. Glutamate b. Glutamate and asparate c. Glutamine d. =Glutamine and asparate

catabolism of all the purines is

nucleusare provided by

241.

Daily uric acid excretion in adult a. 2-6 mg b. 20-40 mg c. 150-250 mg d. =40-600 mg

246.

The carbon atoms of pyrimidine a. Glycine and asparate b. =CO2 and aspartate c. CO2 and glutamate d. CO2 and glutamine

men is

nucleusare provided by

242.

Dietary purines are catabolised in a. Liver b. Kidneys c. =Intestinal mucosa d. All of these

247.

Nitrogen at position 1 of a. Glutamine b. Gluatamate c. Glycine d. =Asparate

pyrimidine nucleuscomes from

243.

De novo synthesis of pyrimidine 248. a. Mitochondria b. =Cytosol c. Microsomes d. Ribosomes

nucleotides occurs in

GMP is an allosteric inhibitor of all a. PRPP synthetase b. PRPP glutamyl amido synthetase c. IMP dehydrogenase d. =Adenylosuccinate synthetase

the following except

244.

An enzyme common to de novo 249.

synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides and urea is a. Urease b. =CPS c. Asparate transcarbamoylase d. Argininosuccinate

Nitrogen at position 3 of a. =Glutamine b. Glutamate c. Glycine d. Aspartate

pyrimidine nucleuscomes from

250.

Nitrogen at position 1 of a. =Glutamine b. Glutamate c. Glycine d. Asparate

255.

Melting temperature of DNA is the a. Solid DNA becomes liquid b. Liquid DNA evaporates c. DNA changes from double helix into supercoiled DNA d. =Native double helical DNA is denatured

pyrimidine nucleuscomes from

temperature at which

251.

Direction of RNA synthesis is a. =5 3 b. 3 5 c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these 256.

In mammalian cell cycle, synthesis a. =S phase b. G1 phase c. Mitotic Phase d. G2 phase

of DNA occurs during

252.

Synthesis of RNA and a DNA a. Replication b. Translation c. =Transcription d. Mutation 257.

template is known as

Reverse transcriptase catalyses a. Synthesis of RNA b. Breakdown of RNA c. =Synthesis of DNA d. Breakdown of DNA

253.

Satellite DNA contains a. =Highly repetitive sequences b. Moderately repetitive sequences c. Non-repetitive sequences d. DNA-RNA hybrids 258.

All of the following statements

about RNA-dependent DNA polymerase are true except : a. It synthesizes DNA using RNA as a template b. It is also known as reverse transcriptase c. It synthesizes DNA in 53 direction d. =It is present in all the viruses

254.

Melting temperature of DNA is a. A and T content b. =G and C content c. Sugar content d. Phosphate content

increased by its

259.

DNA polymerase delta possesses a. Polymerase activity b. 35 Exonuclease activity c. 53 Exonuclease and polymerase activities d. =35 Exonuclease and polymerase activities

264.

Helicase causes a. Rewinding of DNA and require ATP as a source of energy b. Rewinding of DNA but do not require any source of energy c. =Unwinding of DNA and require ATP as a source of energy d. Unwinding of DNA but do not require any source of energy

260.

AMP is an allosteric inhibitor of a. PRPP synthetase b. Adenylosuccinate synthetase c. =Both (a) and (b) d. None of these 265. DNA

For unwinding of double helical a. =Energy is provided by ATP b. Energy is provided by GTP c. Energy can be provided by either ATP or GTP d. No energy is required

261.

Reverse transcriptase activity is a. DNA polymerase b. DNA polymerase c. =Telomerase d. DNA polymerase II 266.

present in the eukaryotic :

During replication, the template a. At one of the ends b. At both the ends c. =At multiple sites d. Nowhere

262.

DNA fragments are sealed by a. DNA polymerase II b. =DNA ligase c. DNA gyrase d. DNA topoisomerase II

DNA is unwound

263.

The unwound strands of DNA are a. =Single strand binding protein b. Double strand binding protein c. Rep protein d. DNAA protein

267.

In RNA, the complementary base a. Cytosine b. Guanine c. Thymine d. =Uracil

held apart by

of adenine is

268.

RNA primer is formed by the a. Ribonuclease b. DNA polymerase delta c. =DNA polymerase alpha d. DNA polymerase gamma

272.

Okazaki pieces are made up of a. RNA b. DNA c. =RNA and DNA d. RNA and proteins

enzyme

273.

Formation of RNA primer : a. =Precedes replication b. Follows replication c. Precedes transcription d. Follows transcription

269.

After formation of replication fork a. Both the new strands are synthesized discontinuously b. =One strand is synthesized continuously and the other discontinuously c. Both the new strands are synthesized continuously d. RNA primer is required only for the synthesis of one new strand 275. 274.

Direction of DNA synthesis is a. =5 3 b. 3 5 c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these Replication of DNA is a. Conservative b. =Semi-conservative c. Non-conservative

270.

Okazaki pieces are formed during a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. =DNA 276.

the synthesis of

Synthesis of DNA is also known as a. Duplication b. =Replication c. Transcription d. Translation

271.

The first reaction unique to purine 277. a. PRPP synthetase b. =PRPP glutamyl amido transferase c. Phosphoribosyl glycinamide synthetase d. formyl transferase

nucleotide synthesis is catalysed by

Deoxyribonucleotides are formed a. Ribonucleosides b. Ribonucleoside monophosphates c. =Ribonucleoside diphosphates d. Ribonucleoside tri-phosphates

by reduction of

278.

Increased urinary excretion of a. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase b. OMP decarboxylase c. Mitochondrial ornithine transcarbamoylase d. =All the above

281.

All of the following statements a. It is a catabolite of purines b. It is excreted by the kidneys c. =It is undissociated at pH above 5.8 d. It is less soluble than sodium urate

orotic acid can occur in deficiency of

about uric acid are true except

279.

All of the following occur in orotic a. =Increased synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides b. Increased excretion of orotic acid in urine c. Decreased synthesis of cytidine tri-phosphate d. Retardation of growth

282.

Free purine bases which can be a. Adenine and guanine b. Adenine and hypoxanthine c. Guanine and hypoxanthine d. =Adenine, guanine and hypoxanthine

aciduria except

salvaged are

283.

The following abnormality can a. Deficiency in G-6-P (type I, von Gerk's) b. elevation of glutathione reductase c. resistance of PRPP synthetase to allosteric inhibition d. =All the above

cause primary gout :

280.

All of the following statements a. Uric acid stones may be formed in kidneys b. Arthritis of small joints occurs commonly c. =Urinary excretion of uric acid is decreased d. Inflammation of big toe occurs 284.

about primary gout are true except

Free ammonia is liberated during a. Cytosine b. Uracil c. Thymine d. =All of these

the catabolism of

285.

-Aminoisobytyrate is formed a. Adenine b. Guanine c. =Thymine d. xanthine

289.

All of the following statements

from catabolism of

about thioredoxin reductase are true except : a. =It requires NADH as a coenzyme b. Its substrates are ADP, GDP, CDP and UDP c. It is activated by ATP d. It is inhibited by dADP 290. Tetrahydrofolate is required as a a. UMP b. CMP c. =TMP d. All of these 291. During de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides, the first ring compound to be formed is a. Carbamoyl aspartic acid b. =Dihydro-orotic acid c. Orotic acid d. Orotidine monophosphate 292. All the enzymes required for de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides are cytosolic except a. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase b. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase c. Dihydro-orotase d. =Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase coenzyme for the synthesis of

286.

Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate a. Glutamine b. =PRPP c. ATP d. Aspartate

synthetase is activated by

287.

Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate a. =UTP b. CTP c. PRPP d. TMP

synthetase is inhibited by

288.

De novo synthesis of pyrimidine a. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase b. Aspartate transcarbamoylase c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

nucleotides is regulated by

293.

The enzyme required for salvage a. Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase b. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl c. =Both (A) and (B) d. None of these

297.

Conversion of uridine diphosphate

of free purine bases is

into deoxyuridine diphosphate requires all the following except a. Ribonucleotide reductase b. Thioredoxin c. =Tetrahydrobiopterin d. NADPH 298. The first pyrimidine nucleotide to be formed in de novo synthesis pathway is a. =UMP b. CMP c. CTP d. TMP 299. Aspartate contributes the following carbon atoms of the pyrimidine nucleus : a. C2 and C4 b. C5 and C6 c. C2, C4 and C6 d. =C4, C5 and C6 300. The carbon atom at position 2 of a. =CO2 b. Glycine c. Aspartate d. Glutamine 301. Deoxycytidine kinase can salvage a. Adenosine b. Adenosine and deoxyadenosine c. Adenosine and guanosine d. =Adenine and adenosine pyrimidine nucleus is contributed by

294. is

For the synthesis of TMP from

dump, a coenzyme is required which a. N10- Formyl tetrahydrofolate b. N5- Methyl tetrahydrofolate c. =N5, N10- Methylene tetrahydrofolate d. N5- Formimino tetrahydrofolate 295. CTP synthetase forms CTP from a. CDP and inorganic phosphate b. CDP and ATP c. =UTP and glutamine d. UTP and glutamate 296. For synthesis of CTP and UTP, the a. Amide group of Asparagine b. =Amide group of glutamine c. -Amino group of glutamine d. -Amino group of glutamate amino group comes from

302.

Adenosine kinase can salvage a. Adenosine b. =Adenosine and deoxyadenosine c. Adenosine and guanosine d. Adenon and adenosine

303.

Salvage of purine bases is a. Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase b. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl c. =Availability of PRPP d. None of these

regulated by

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. E 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. B

36. D 37. B 38. C 39. C 40. A 41. A 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. C 49. C 50. A 51. B 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. C 56. C 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. C 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. C 65. C 66. D 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. C

71. A 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. B 76. B 77. D 78. B 79. B 80. D 81. A 82. B 83. B 84. B 85. C 86. D 87. D 88. A 89. B 90. D 91. D 92. A 93. D 94. C 95. C 96. C 97. C 98. C 99. D 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. D D C C D C

106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.

D A D B D D A D C C C B B D B A B C D A B A B A D A A A A A A D B C A

141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175.

A D C A B A B D B B D B B B D B D D A C A C B C C C D D C C C C B B C

176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201.

D A B B D D C C D B C C D A B C A D D A D D A A C D

202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. 217. 218. 219. 220. 221. 222. 223. 224. 225. 226. 227.

B B C C B C A C B D A D B A B E C D C A B D C B A B

228. 229. 230. 231. 232. 233. 234. 235. 236. 237. 238. 239. 240. 241. 242. 243. 244. 245. 246. 247. 248. 249. 250. 251. 252. 253.

E D A B B E B C A C C D B D C B B D B D D A A A C A

254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260. 261. 262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267. 268. 269. 270. 271. 272. 273. 274. 275. 276. 277. 278. 279.

B D A C D D C C B A C A C D C B D B C A A B B C D A

280. 281. 282. 283. 284. 285. 286. 287. 288. 289. 290. 291. 292. 293. 294. 295. 296. 297. 298. 299. 300. 301. 302. 303.

C C D D D C B A C A C B D C C C B C A D A D B C

1. The first product of fertilization is: a) Oocyte b) Zygote c) Macula d) Blastocyst 2. All of the following concerning male testis are true except: a) Contains 1-3 seminefrous tubules (structural unit) b) Divided into 250 lobes. c) Formed of Sertoli cells and spermatogonia d) Spermatogonia are supporting cells and assist in the release of mature sperms 3. Which of the following is the narrowest part of the female uterine tube? a) Ampulla b) Fimbriated end c) Interstitial part d) Isthmus 4. Which of the following is not considered one of the female external genitalia? a) Mons pubis b) Labia minora c) Vestibule d) Uterus

5. All of the following are steps of spermatogenesis except: a) Spermatogonium divides by mitotic division giving spermatogonia. b) Secondary spermatocyte gives 2 spermatids by mitotic division. c) Spermatids are converted to spermatozoa by spermiogenesis d) None of the above 6. Concerning oogenesis which of the following is not true: a) It is differentiation of an oogonia present in the medulla into mature ova. b) Oogenesis passes into two stages of maturation. c) In the prenatal maturation process the oogonia is surrounded by follicular cells derived from the epithelial covering of the ovary d) Zona pellucid in the postnatal maturation phase is secreted by granulose cells. 7. T or F: In oogenesis the primary oocyte is arrested at the prophase of the first meiotic division due to the presence of the Meiosis stimulatory factor.

8. Which of the following concerning mature ovum is not true? a) The ooplasm contains nutritive material that nourishes the embryo. b) Nucleus of the ovum is called germinal spot while nucleolus is named germinal vesicle. c) The ovums life span is 1-3 days. d) The ovum has 2 membranes surrounding it. 9. The sperm in comparison to the ovum is: a) Larger in size b) Has more abundant cytoplasm c) Less motile d) Has 2 types of chromosomes 10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the follicular stage of the ovarian cycle? a) Formation of the membrane granulosa. b) Secretion of the zona pellucid c) Formation of the follicular antrum d) None of the above 11. One of the following is not a factor from the factors causing ovulation: a) Increase in the levels of luetenizing hormone. b) Degeneration of the ovarian surface c) Increase in the intrafollcular pressure. d) Muscular contraction of the ovarian wall. e) None of the above

12. Concerning luteal phase of the ovarian cycle which of the following is true: a) Occurs at about day 14 b) Formation of the corpus luteum occurs in this phase. c) In this phase the corpus luteum secretes estrogen hormone mainly. d) All of the above 13. One of the following hormones helps in maintaining the corpus luteum if fertilization occurs: a) Human chorionic somatomammotropin. b) Human chorionic gonadotropin c) Estrogen d) Progestrone 14. The only layer which is not shed during menstruation is: a) Stratum basale b) Stratum compactum c) Stratum spongiosum d) None of the above. 15. All of the following are contents of the menstrual flow except: a) RBC and WBC b) Desquamated endometrium c) Cervical mucus and vaginal cells. d) None of the above

16. The stage of the menstrual cycle that is under the influence of progesterone hormone is: a) Progestational phase b) Proliferative phase c) Menstural phase d) All of the stages 17. HCG hormone is secreted by which of the following: a) Syncitiotrophoblast b) Cytotrophoblast c) Corpus luteum d) Corpus haemorragicum 18. Fertilization is the process of formation of a: a) Zygote b) Macula c) Blastocyst d) None of the above 19. Fertilization of an ovum occurs in: a) Ampulla of fallopian tube b) Isthmus of fallopian tube c) Infundibulum of fallopian tube d) None of the above 20. Sperm must undergo the following reaction/s to be able to fertilize an ovum: a) Capacitaion b) Acrosome reaction c) A & B d) None of the above

21. One the following is not a result of fertilization: a) Restoration of diploid number of chromosomes b) Determination of the chromosomal sex of the embryo c) Meiotic cell division of the zygote d) A & C 22. Embryonic stem cells are derived from: a) Inner cell mass b) Outer cell mass c) Zona pellucida d) Morula 23. Implantation occurs at the day after fertilization: a) 4th b) 5th c) 6th d) 7th 24. Ectopic pregnancy is: a) Abnormal fertilization b) Normal fertilization c) Abnormal implantation d) Normal implantation 25. The type of placenta that lies in the lower segment but does not encroach on the internal os of the cervical canal is: a) Placenta paritalis b) Placenta marginalis c) Placenta centralis d) None of the above

26. One of the following is not a part of the deciduas: a) Decidua basalis b) Decidua centralis c) Decidua paritalis d) Decidua marginalis 27. One of the following changes does not occur in the 2nd week of development of the embryo: a) Trophoblast differentiate into 2 layers b) Inner cell mass differentiate into 3 layers c) Primary mesoderm splits into somatopleuric and splancopleuric primary mesoderm d) None of the above 28. One of the following structures is not an Ectodermal derivative: a) Enamel of teeth b) Internal ear c) Lens of eye d) Urogenital system 29. The urinary system is a derivative of one of the following layers: a) Paraximal mesoderm b) Intermediate mesoderm c) Lateral mesoderm d) None of the above

30. Folding of the embryo occurs by the end of the week: a) 2nd b) 3rd c) 4th d) 5th 31. Which of the following is a result of folding of the embryo? a) Embryo is constricted at the yolk sac b) Brain forms most of the cephalic part of the embryo c) Formation of the umbilical cord and the allantois d) Heart becomes ventral in position e) All of the above 32. Which of the following is a major characteristic of meiosis I? a) Splitting of the centromere b) Pairing of homologous chromosomes c) Reducing the amount of DNA to 1N d) Achieving the diploid number of chromosomes e) Producing primordial germ cells

33. A normal somatic cell contains a total of 46 chromosomes. What is the normal complement of chromosomes found in a sperm? a) 22 autosomes plus a sex chromosome b) 23 autosomes plus a sex chromosome c) 22 autosomes d) 23 autosomes e) 23 paired autosomes 34. Which of the following describes the number of chromosomes and amount of DNA in a gamete? a) 46 chromosomes, 1N b) 46 chromosomes, 2N c) 23 chromosomes, 1N d) 23 chromosomes, 2N e) 23 chromosomes, 4N 35. Which of the following chromosome compositions in a sperm normally results in the production of a genetic female if fertilization occurs? a) 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes b) 22 homologous pairs of chromosomes c) 23 autosomes plus an X chromosome d) 22 autosomes plus a Y chromosome e) 22 autosomes plus an X chromosome

36. In the process of meiosis, DNA replication of each chromosome occurs, forming a structure consisting of two sister chromatids attached to a single centromere. What is this structure? a) A duplicated chromosome b) Two chromosomes c) A synapsed chromosome d) A crossover chromosome e) A homologous pair 37. A young woman enters puberty with approximately 40,000 primary oocytes in her ovary. About how many of these primary oocytes will be ovulated over the entire reproductive life of the woman? a) 40,000 b) 35,000 c) 400 d) 48 e) 12 38. How much DNA does a primary spermatocyte contain? a) 1N b) 2N c) 4N d) 6N e) 8N

39. During meiosis, pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs, which permits large segments of DNA to be exchanged. What is this process called? a) Synapsis b) Nondisjunction c) Alignment d) Crossing over e) Disjunction 40. During ovulation, the secondary oocyte resides at what specific stage of meiosis? a) Prophase of meiosis I b) Prophase of meiosis II c) Metaphase of meiosis I d) Metaphase of meiosis II e) Meiosis is completed at the time of ovulation 41. Concerning maturation of the female gamete (oogenesis), when do the oogonia enter meiosis I and undergo DNA replication to form primary oocytes? a) During fetal life b) At birth c) At puberty d) With each ovarian cycle e) Following fertilization

42. When does a secondary oocyte complete its second meiotic division to become a mature ovum? a) At ovulation b) Before ovulation c) At fertilization d) At puberty e) Before birth 43. How soon after fertilization occurs within the uterine tube does the blastocyst begin implantation? a) Within minutes b) By 12 hours c) By day 1 d) By day 2 e) By day 7 44. Which of the following events is involved in cleavage of the zygote during week 1 of development? a) A series of meiotic divisions forming blastomeres b) Production of highly differentiated blastomeres c) An increased cytoplasmic content of blastomeres d) An increase in size of blastomeres e) A decrease in size of blastomeres

45. Which of the following structures must degenerate for blastocyst implantation to occur? a) Endometrium in progestational phase b) Zona pellucida c) Syncytiotrophoblast d) Cytotrophoblast e) Functional layer of the endometrium 46. Which of the following is the origin of the mitochondrial DNA of all human adult cells? a) Paternal only b) Maternal only c) A combination of paternal and maternal d) Either paternal or maternal e) Unknown origin 47. Individual blastomeres were isolated from a blastula at the 4-cell stage. Each blastomere was cultured in vitro to the blastocyst stage and individually implanted into four pseudopregnant foster mothers. Which of the following would you expect to observe 9 months later? a) b) c) d) e) Birth of one baby Birth of four genetically different babies Birth of four genetically identical babies Birth of four grotesquely deformed No births

48. In oogenesis, which of the following events occurs immediately following the completions of meiosis II? a) Degeneration of the zona pellucida b) Sperm penetration of the corona radiata c) Formation of a female pronucleus d) Appearance of the blastocyst e) Completion of cleavage 49. Which of the following components plays the most active role in invading the endometrium during blastocyst implantation? a) Epiblast b) Syncytiotrophoblast c) Hypoblast d) Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm e) Extraembryonic visceral mesoderm 50. Between which two layers is the extraembryonic mesoderm located? a) Epiblast and hypoblast b) Syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast c) Syncytiotrophoblast and endometrium d) Exocoelomic membrane and syncytiotrophoblast e) Exocoelomic membrane and cytotrophoblast

babies

51. During week 2 of development, the embryoblast receives its nutrients via a) Diffusion b) Osmosis c) Reverse osmosis d) Fetal capillaries e) Yolk sac nourishment 52. Which of the following are components of the definitive chorion? a) Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and epiblast b) Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and cytotrophoblast c) Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and syncytiotrophoblast d) Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast e) Extraembryonic visceral mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast 53. At what location does the amniotic cavity develop? a) Between the cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast b) Within the extraembryonic mesoderm c) Between the endoderm and mesoderm d) Within the hypoblast e) Within the epiblast

54. At the end of week 2 of development (day 14), what is the composition of the embryonic disk? a) Epiblast only b) Epiblast and hypoblast c) Ectoderm and endoderm d) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm e) Epiblast, mesoderm, and hypoblast 55. Which germ layers are present at the end of week 3 of development (day 21)? a) Epiblast only b) Epiblast and hypoblast c) Ectoderm and endoderm d) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm e) Epiblast, mesoderm, and hypoblast 56. Which process establishes the three definitive germ layers? a) Neurulation b) Gastrulation c) Craniocaudal folding d) Lateral folding e) Angiogenesis

57. The first indication of gastrulation in the embryo is a) Formation of the primitive streak b) Formation of the notochord c) Formation of the neural tube d) Formation of extraembryonic mesoderm e) Formation of tertiary chorionic villi 58. Intermediate mesoderm will give rise to the a) Neural tube b) Heart c) Kidneys and gonads d) Somites e) Notochord 59. The lateral mesoderm is divided into two distinct layers by the formation of the a) Extraembryonic coelom b) Intraembryonic coelom c) Cardiogenic region d) Notochord e) Yolk sac 60. The epiblast is capable of forming which of the following germ layers? a) Ectoderm only b) Ectoderm and mesoderm only c) Ectoderm and endoderm only d) Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm e) Mesoderm and endoderm only 61. A male newborn has a hemangioma on the left frontotemporal region of his face and

scalp. The cells forming the hemangioma are derived from which of the following cell layers? a) Ectoderm only b) Mesoderm only c) Endoderm only d) Ectoderm and mesoderm e) Endoderm and mesoderm 62. Which structure is derived from the same embryonic primordium as the dorsal root ganglia? a) Gonads b) Kidney c) Pineal gland d) Liver e) Adrenal medulla 63. Which structure is derived from the same embryonic primordium as the kidney? a) Gonads b) Epidermis c) Pineal gland d) Liver e) Adrenal medulla 64. Chromosomes move apart during meiosis in which stage? a) Leptotene b) Zygotene c) Pachytene d) Diplotene e) Diakinesis

65. Supporting cells of spermatogenesis are called: a) Spermatid

69. Which of the following has a haploid no. of chromosomes: a. Primary spcrmatocyte b. Lst polar body c. Primary oocyte d. Secondary oocyte e. Spermatid 70. All are derived from primordial germ cells, except: a. Corona radiata b. Ovum c. 2nd polar body d. Spermarid e. 1st polar body 71. Acrosome cap is derived from: a. Mitochondria b. Golgi apparatus c. Microtubules d. ER e. Nucleus 72. Which of the following is derived from granulosa cells: a. 1st polar body b. Zona pellucida c. 2nd polar body d. Ovum e. Corona radiata

b) Secondary spermatocyte c) Sertoli cells d) All of the above

66. When blood vessels appear in the core of the villus it is called: a. Primary villus b. Secondary villus c. Tertiary villus d. Definitive villus e. None of the above 67. Structure not forming placental barrier is: a. Fibrinoid tissue b. Connective tissue c. Cytotrophoblast d. Syncytiotrophoblast e. Endothelium of maernal blood vessels 68. Gastrulation is: a. Differentiation of blastocyst into bilaminar disc b. Differentiation of morula into blastocyst c. Differentiation of bilaminar disc into trilaminar disc d. Folding of trilaminar disc e. None of the above

e) None of the above

73. True regarding ectopic pregnancies are: a. The implantation site is outside the uterine cavity b. 95% occur in fallopian tubes c. Ruptured ectopic is associated with shock d. Previous PID causes increased risk of ectopic pregnancy e. All of the above 74. True regarding fertilization is/are: a. Occurs in ampulla of fallopian tube b. Ovum is viable for 12-24 hrs after ovulation c. Second polar body forms after fertilization d. Fertilization induces chemical changes in zona pellucida, preventing polyspermy e. All of the above 75. True statement is/are, except: a. Menstrual flow occurs on

76. True regarding ovulation are all, except: a. Ovulation entails rupture of b. Ovulation follows LH surge progesterone secretion ovulation secondary follicle

c. Ovulation precedes increased d. Oestrogen secretion precedes e. None of the above

77. All are true regarding 4th month of gestation, except: a. Large scale ossification occurs b. Hair follicles form c. Fetus has high growth rate occurred

d. Sexual dimorphism has not e. Gonadal differentiation occurs

78. Following are true of embryonic period, except: a. Major organ systems are b. Lanugo hair appears established

c. Sensitivity to teratogens high e. Limb buds appear

b. Maintenance of endometrium

degeneration of corpus luteum depends on availability of oestrogen depends on progesterone increased maternal hCG depends on oestrogen

d. Gastrulation and neurulation occur 79. All are true about cytotrophoblast, except: a. Cytotrophoblastic cells from a b. Cytotrophoblastic cells have c. Abundant mitochondria d. Abundant smooth ER e. Glycogen granules seen prominent nucleoli highly proliferative epithelium

c. Secretory phase of endometrium d. Missed period occurs due to

e. Initial phase of endometrial cycle

80. All are true about syncytiotrophoblast except: a. It develops from cytotrophoblast b. Microvilli seen on outer surface c. Nuclei of this layer divide

d. Cytoplasm contain abundant e. Syncytiotrophoblast is an invasive cell layer membrane bond vcsiclcs

constantly but not the cytoplasm

Answers
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. F 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. E 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. C 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. D 29. B 30. B 31. E 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. E 36. A 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. E 44. E 45. B 46. B 47. C 48. C 49. B 50. E 51. A 52. D 53. E 54. B 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. B 60. D 61. B 62. E 63. A 64. D 65. C 66. C 67. E 68. C 69. E 70. A 71. B 72. E 73. E 74. E 75. B 76. E 77. D 78. B 79. D 80. C

1. All of the following are functions of the cell membrane except: a. Maintaining the structural integrity b. Absolute permeability c. Regulating cell-cell interactions d. Recognizing, via receptors, antigens and foreign cells as well as altered cells 2. Transducing intracellular physical or chemical signals into extracellular events is one of the functions of the plasma membrane. a. True b. False 3. The cell membrane appears as a trilaminar structure, with outer and inner electron lucent lines and a middle electron dense zone in between a. True b. False 4. All of the following are characters of the phospholipids entering in the structure of the cell membrane except: a. Each phospholipid molecule consists of one polar hydrophilic head and two non polar hydrophobic tails. from glycerol conjugated to a nitrogenous compound c. The polar heads projecting towards the centre of the membrane while the non polar tails face the tissue b. The polar heads are mainly derived of the cell

fluid at the outer surface and the intracellular fluid at the cytoplasmic surface of the membrane. d. The non-polar tail of the phospholipid molecule consists of two long-chain fatty acids 5. responsible for the partial permeability of the cell membrane a. Unsaturated fatty acid b. Phospholipids c. Glycerol conjugated to nitrogenous compound d. None of the above 6. responsible for increasing the fluidity of the cell membrane a. Unsaturated fatty acid b. Phospholipids c. Glycerol conjugated to nitrogenous compound d. None of the above 7. enhance the mechanical stability and flexibility of the membrane a. Unsaturated fatty acid b. Phospholipids c. Glycerol conjugated to nitrogenous compound d. Cholesterol

8. All of the following are true about integral proteins except: a. Channels serve to transport ions (Na+, K+) actively across the membrane. b. Enzymes Membrane proteins posses various enzymatic activity for example: c. Linkers serve to anchor the intracellular cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix. d. Structural proteins form junctions between neighboring cells. 9. Which of the following is true about peripheral membrane proteins: a. They are embedded into lipid bilayer but they exhibit a loose association with membrane surface through ionic interaction mainly with integral proteins. b. They are usually located on the c. Functionally, they regulate cell signaling and many other important d. They arent also associated with the the cytoskeletal apparatus cellular events, extracellular surface

10. All of the following describing the fluid mosaic model except: a. The membrane as being composed of a sea of lipids in which globular protein molecules are floating like icebergs. b. c. this molecular arrangement is static protein displacement is restricted by either their attachment to cytoskeletal elements or by the in epithelial cells 11. Functions of the cell coat include: a. Protects the cell surface. b. Serves for cellular recognition. c. Shares in cell adhesion. e. All of the above of exocytosis: d. Acts as receptor sites for hormones. 12. Which of the following are mechanisms a. Pinocytosis b. Phagocytosis c. Regulated secretion d. Receptor mediated endocytosis 13. All of the following are true about pinocytosis except: a. It is a non selective process b. for uptake of fluid containing ions and small protein molecules c. The pinocytotic vesicles formed are d. This process is most evident in the endothelium of blood vessels. large and have smooth surface. d. All of the above presence of occluding junctions as

14. . is the ingestion of large solid particles, such as bacteria and cell debris a. Pinocytosis b. Phagocytosis c. Regulated secretion 15. Cargo receptors are found in .. a. Pinocytosis b. Phagocytosis c. Regulated secretion 16. Individuals suffering from early receptors d. Receptor mediated endocytosis atherosclerosis have defect in .. a. LDL b. HDL d. Receptor mediated endocytosis

20. All of the following are true concerning ribosomes except: a. Small subunit that contains a single molecule of ribonucleic acid (RNA) b. large subunit that consists of two molecules of RNA and about 40 associated proteins c. large subunit that consists of one molecule of RNA and about 40 associated proteins d. RNA molecules are synthesized in the nucleus while the proteins in the cytoplasm 21. Free ribosomes are aggregated in clusters of 10 or more connected by rRNA thread forming polysomes. a. True b. False 22. . Responsible for synthesis of the special proteins for secretion a. Free ribomsomes c. Both b. Attached ribosomes 23. Protein secreting sell are rich in all of the following except: a. Rough endoplasmin reticulum c. Ribosomes b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. Golgi apparatus 24. All protein synthesis is initiated in th ER a. True b. False and 30 associated small proteins.

17. Secretary granules are present in of exocytosis a. Regulated secretion b. Constitutive secretion 18. which of the following are examples of regulated secretion: a. plasma cells secreting immunoglobulins b. Fibroblasts secreting collagen. c. Pancreatic acinar cells d. None of the above organelles except: a. Nucleus b. endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Ribosomes

19. All of the following are membranous

25. All of the following are functions of rough endoplasmic reticulum except: a. participate in the synthesis of lysosomal proteins secretory, plasma membrane and b. the site of protein postc. detoxification and conjugation of noxious substances d. acts as quality checkpoint in the process of protein production 26. all of the following are functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum except: a. the major site of membrane lipids (phospholipids and cholesterol) b. Abundant in the liver cells c. participates in the contraction process of muscle cells glycogen in the liver release of Na ions 27. protein secreting cells exhibit cytoplasmic eosinphilia while steroid secreting cells exhibit cytoplasmic basophilia a. true b. false d. participates in the synthesis of e. responsible for sequestration and synthesis. translational modification

29. All of the following contain abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum except: a. Testis b. Ovaries c. Stomach e. Liver d. Fibroblasts 30. Cholesterol functions in the plasmalemma to a. increase fluidity of the lipid bilayer b. decrease fluidity of the lipid bilayer c. facilitate the diffusion of ions through the lipid bilayer d. assist in the transport of hormones across the lipid bilayer e. bind extracellular matrix molecules 31. The cell membrane consists of various components, including integral proteins. These integral proteins a. are not attached to the outer leaflet b. are not attached to the inner leaflet c. include transmembrane proteins face d. are preferentially attached to the Ee. function in the transport of cholesterolbased hormones 32. Which one of the following transport processes requires energy? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Passive transport c. Active transport d. Simple diffusion

28. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is formed of flattened cisternae while the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is formed of interconnecting branching tubules a. true b. false

33. Which one of the following substances is unable to traverse the plasma membrane by simple diffusion? a. 02 b. N2 c. Na+ d. Glycerol e. CO2 34. One of the ways that cells communicate with each other is by secretion of various molecules. The secreted molecule is known as a. a receptor molecule c. a spectrin tetramer d. an integrin e. an anticodon 35. Which of the following statements concerning plasma membrane components is true? a. All G proteins are composed of three subunits. b. The glycocalyx is usually composed c. Ion channel proteins are energydependent (require adenosine triphosphate). e. d. Gated channels are always open. blood cell plasma membrane Ankyrin binds to band 3 of the red of phospholipids. b. a signaling molecule

36. The nuclear pore complex a. permits free communication cytoplasm b. is bridged by a unit membrane pore sites permits passage of transport 37. Which one of the following nucleotides is present only in ribonucleic acid (RNA)? a. Thymine b. Adenine c. Uracil d. Cytosine e. Guanine 38. Anticodons are located in a. messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) b. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) c. transfer RNA (tRNA) (snRNP) e. heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) d. small nuclear ribonucleoprotein c. is located only at specific nuclear proteins via receptor rmediated between the nucleus and the

39. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is duplicated in the cell cycle during the a. G2 phase b. S phase c. M phase d. G1 phase e. Go phase

40. Which of the following organelles divides by fission? a. Golgi complex b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum c. Peroxisome e. Centriole 41. Which of the following not seen in the routine histological sections: a. Cell membrance b. ER c. Golgi apparatus d. Ribosomes 42. Golgi apparatus can be seen by .. a. Silver stain b. Osmium stain c. Histochemical demonstration of enzymes d. All of the above 43. All of the following are true about the cis face of golgi apparatus except: a. convex in shape, directed to the cell interior b. It is called mature face c. related to small transport vesicles d. closest to the rER d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

44. which of the following is true about the trans face of golgi apparatus: a. convex in shape, directed to the cell interior b. It is called mature face c. related to small transport vesicles d. closest to the rER 45. TGN is located between the rER and the cis face of the Golgi apparatus. a. True 46. Which of the following is a function of golgi apparatus: a. Post-transitional modifications of proteins through removal, adding or modification of sugars previously synthesized in rER. b. Packaging and sorting of different c. Routing vesicles to the right destination inside the cell 47. All of the following is true about the early endosomes except: a. a part in the pathway of the receptor mediated endocytosis. complexes. d. All of the above macromolecules into vesicles b. False

b. They contain the receptor ligand c. The membrane of the endosomes actively pumps H ions into its endosomes to more than 6 d. Ligand move to late endosome exterior. This elevating the pH of

48. Which of the following is true about late endosomes: a. They are regular vesicles that located deep within the cytoplasm b. They receive ligands from early c. They receive vesicles containing network endosomes and have acidic pH 5.5 lysosomal enzymes from cis Golgi d. They begin to degrade the ligand before full receipt of the lysosomol 49. Lysosomes are clathrin coated vesicles + late endosomes a. Ture b. False 50. All of the following are true except: a. Small particles + lysosomes = multivesicular bodies b. Large particles + lysosomes = phagolysosomes c. Non functional organelles + lysosomes = autophagosomes d. Early endosomes + clathrin coated vesicles = lysosomes 51. Lipofucsin pigment is a character of aging cell: a. True b. False enzymes near the Golgi complex

52. Gaucher's disease results in accumulation of glycoproteins and TaySachs disease results in accumulation of lipids in lysosomes of neurons. a. True b. False 53. All of the following contain mitochondria except: a. Liver b. RBCs c. Terminal keratinocytes d. Bones e. B&C 54. The ribosomes contribute to the acidophilia of the cytoplasm while the mitochondria contribute to its basophilia a. True b. False 55. Mitochondria can be stained by all of the following except: a. H&E b. Silver stain c. Iron hematoxylin stain d. Janus green stain

56. All of the following are true about mitochondria except: a. The outer membrane is involved in synthesis and metabolism of mitochondrial lipids b. Outer membrane is folded into numerous cristae containing porin protein c. Inner membrane is highly impermeable d. Protein complexes act as proton pumps that transport H+ from the matrix into the intermembrane space 57. The inner mitochondrial membrane contains all of the following except: a. respiratory electron carrier protein complexes b. ATP synthtase c. Porin proteins d. Proton pumps 58. All of the following are contents of the matrix space except: a. pyruvate and fatty acids b. mitochondrial DNA c. few ribosomes d. ATP synthase

59. Almost all the mitochondria of fertilized eggs are contributed by a. Oocyte b. Sperm c. Both 60. ATP is synthesized in .. a. Mitochondria b. Peroxisomes c. Both 61. Mitochondria & peroxisomes replicate by splitting into 2 and have their own genetic material a. True b. False 62. Cholesterol synthesis occurs in . a. ER b. Peroxisomes c. Both 63. Fatty acids oxidation occurs in . a. Mitochondria b. Peroxisomes c. Both

64. All of the following are true about glycogen granules except: a. It is not seen in routine histological preparations (H&E) b. it can be stained with the periodicacid Schiff reaction and the Best's carmine stain c. It may be present in the form of solitary particles called -particles or may be aggregated in rosettes called -particles d. Present mainly in the liver & muscles 65. All of the following are true about actin filaments except: a. Formed of monomers of G-actin >> F- actin >> double helix >> actin filament b. Polymerization occurs more rapid at the minus end while depolymerization is faster at the plus end c. Actin filaments are arranged either parallel to each other forming a bundle or anastomosing forming networks a. Actin binds to myosin in the muscles for contraction.

66. Which of the following isnt true about microtubules: a. fine tubules that have a diameter of 25 nm b. formed of 12 protofilaments c. polar dynamic structures (as actin) having a plus end directed towards the periphery of the cell and a minus end directed to the MTOC d. form permanent part of some cell components such as centeriole, cilia and flagella. 67. Dynein moves the vesicle /organelle toward the cell periphery while Kinesin moves them toward the cell center a. True b. False 68. MTOCs present in: a. Centrosome flagella b. Basal bodies from which cilia and c. Both 69. Which of the following isnt true about intermediate filaments: a. lack polarity b. structural role and participate in cell motility c. do not bind ATP d. They attach to desmosomes, and their main job is to provide mechanical stability to the cell and resist pulling forces exerted on the cell

70. All of the following are true about intermediate filament except: a. Keratin filaments present in epithelial cells b. vimentin in fibroblasts, endothelial cells and leukocytes c. glial fibrillary acidic protein in astrocytes d. lamins lining the outer surface of nuclear envelope 71. all of the following are true about centrosome except: a. none membranous organelle found usually close to the nucleus b. the centrioles surrounded by the centrospheres c. The wall is composed of nine triplets of microtubules with a sum of 27 microtubules. d. Each triplet is composed of three microtubules (one complete microtubule formed of 13 protofilaments and 2 incomplete microtubules formed of 11 protofilaments)

72. All of the following are true about structure of the cilia except: a. Basal body formed of 9 triplets of b. Shaft formed of 20 microtubules c. Basal bodies present in the basal part of the cytoplasm while the shaft extend from the cell surface d. Rootlets extend from underneath the basal body, in the form of radiating microtubules anchoring the cilium 73. Because of the frequent presence of ribosomes on its outer surface, the nuclear envelope may be considered a specialized portion of the a. Golgi complex b. sER c. plasma membrane d. rER e. Nucleolus 74. Which of the following organelles would show the highest concentration of label after being subjected to enzyme histochemical methods designed to detect the location of acid phosphatase? a. Plasma membrane b. Lysosomes c. Ribosomes d. sER e. Microtubules into the cytoplasm. microtubules (i.e. 27 microtubules)

75. The electron microscopic appearance of a unit membrane is best described as a. A porous membrane b. A lipid bilayer c. A tri-laminar structure d. A penta-laminar structure e. None of the above 76. Which of the following is formed of actin or actin-like proteins a. Basal bodies b. Microtubules c. Intermediate filaments d. Cilia e. Microfilaments 77. the synthesis of all proteins appears to be initiated on a. free polyribosomes b. rER c. Golgi complex d. Nucleosomes 78. For continually dividing cells, which phase would not be present a. Prophase b. G0 c. G1 d. G2 e. S

79. A secondary lysosome a. Contains a mixture of hydrolytic enzymes and phagocytosed material b. May become a residual body c. Is an organelle formed by fusion of primary lysosomes and phagosomes d. All of the above e. None of the above 80. Functions of golgi complex include a. Packaging of secretory materials b. Synthesis of polysaccharides c. Concentration of secretory products d. Sulfation of polysaccharides e. All of the above 81. Functions of biologic membranes include a. Compartmentalization of the cytoplasm b. Homeostasis c. Transduction of signals d. Selective uptake of nutrients into the cell e. All of the above

82. Functions involving centrioles include a. Mitosis b. Organization of golgi apparatus c. Cell motility d. Movements of cytoplasmic vesicles e. All of the above 83. A phagosome a. Contains densely packed, inactive hydrolytic enzymes b. Is formed by budding from a lysosomes c. Is surrounded by a membrane originally derived from the golgi complex d. Contains the material engulfed during endocytosis e. All of the above 84. The structures dispersed and then reorganized during each pass through cell cycle include a. The spindle apparatus b. The nucleolus c. The nuclear envelope d. The golgi complex e. All of the above

85. Substances that must pass through the nuclear pores to assume their normal roles in cell functions include a. mRNA b. ribosomal subunits c. ribosomal proteins d. all of the above 86. Nucleosomes a. Are chromatin subunits b. Include 8 histones each c. All have equal amounts of DNA d. All of the above 87. rRNA is synthesized by a. rER b. Free polyribosomes c. sER d. Nucleolus e. Nuclear lamins 88. All of the following are components of intermediate filaments EXCEPT: a. Actin b. Desmin c. Vimentin d. Cytokeratin

89. Ribosomes arent found in mature RBCs. From this, and from knowledge of the ribosome function and distribution, one can deduce all the following EXCEPT: a. Mature RBCs are incapable of protein synthesis, even if they contain mRNA b. RBCs never have a nucleolus at any point in their development c. Mature RBCs contain no rER d. Mature RBCs cant synthesize any new enzymes e. Mature RBCs cant synthesize any new haemoglobin 90. Match 1. Location of krebs cycle enzymes 2. Site of calcium ion sequestration 3. Location of electron transport system 4. Forms shelf-like or tubular projections (cristae) into the matrix 5. Location of mitochondrial DNA 6. Location of globular structures with ATPase activity a. Mitochondrial matrix b. Mitochondrial matrix granule c. Inner mitochondrial membrane d. Outer mitochondrial membrane e. None of the above

91. Match 1. Site of synthesis of protein for secretion 2. Site of synthesis of actin and tubulin 3. Site of sulfated GAGs 4. Site of intense ATP production 5. Site of steroid hormone synthesis 6. 1ry site of packaging of secretory products 7. Site of core glycosylation of secretory proteins a. Centrioles b. Free polysomes c. Mitochondria d. rER e. sER f. Golgi

92. Match 1. Synthesized on poly-ribosomes 2. Can be hydrolyzed by enzymes found in lysosomes 3. Synthesized by nucleolus 4. Project from the cell surface in branched chains and confer a chemical identity upon the cell 5. Added to proteins in golgi apparatus 6. Most numerous molecules in cell membranes e. All of the above a. CHOs b. Lipids c. Nucleic acids d. Proteins

93. Match 1. More likely to be membrane-limited 2. Often act as storage depots for metabolic precursors 3. More active participants in cell functions 4. Usually located in the cytoplasm 5. More likely to contain enzymes 6. Regarded as more temporary occupants of the cell d. Neither c. Both a. Organelles b. Cytoplasmic inclusions

94. Match 1. Polymers of protein subunits 2. Composed of actin 3. Considered component of cytoskeleton 4. Composed of tubulin heterodimers 5. Can increase of decrease in length according to cytoplasmic conditions 6. Form the purse-string constriction in mitotic cells a. Microtubules b. Microfilaments c. Both d. Neither

7. May be composed of desmin or vimentin 8. Important components of centrioles 9. Include protofilaments 10. Important components of axonemes 11. Have an outer diameter of about 24 12. Usually require myosin for contraction 13. Important components of cilia and flagella

95. Acidic Keratin 96. Basic keratin 97. Lamins 98. Neurofilament 99. Desmin 100. 101. 102. Peripherin Vimentin Glial fibrillary

I. II. III. IV. V.

Type I Type II Type III Type IV Type V

a. Epithelial cells b. Fibroblasts, endothelium and leukocytes c. Muscles d. Astrocytes e. Peripheral nerve fibers f. Nerve cells g. Inner side of nuclear envelope

acidic protein

103.

plasmalemma to bilayer bilayer

Cholesterol functions in the a. Increase fluidity of the lipid b. Decrease fluidity of the lipid

c. Facilitate the diffusion of ions through the lipid bilayer d. Assist in the transport of hormones across the lipid bilayer e. Bind extracellular matrix molecules

104.

The cell membrane consists of 108.

e. a molecule between the One of the ways that cells cytoplasm and the nucleus

various components, including integral proteins. These integral proteins leaflet leaflet a. Are not attached to the outer b. Are not attached to the inner c. Include transmembrane proteins d. Are preferentially attached to the e. Function in the transport of cholesterol-based hormones 105. transport processes requires energy? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Passive transport c. Active transport 106. d. Simple diffusion Which one of the following E-face

communicate with each other is by secretion of various molecules. The secreted molecule is known as a. a receptor molecule c. a spectrin tetramer d. an integrin 109. e. an anticodon Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) travels through the b. a signaling molecule

bloodstream, enters connective tissue spaces, and attaches to specific sites on target- cell membranes. These sites are a. peripheral proteins c. G proteins b. signaling molecules d. G-protein-linked receptors 110. e. ribophorins Which of the following statements

Which one of the following

substances is unable to traverse the plasma membrane by simple diffusion? a. 02 b. N2 c. Na+ d. Glycerol e. CO2 107. transporting Symport refers to process of a. a molecule into the cell

concerning plasma membrane components is true? a. All G proteins are composed of three subunits. b. The glycocalyx is usually composed of phospholipids. dependent (require adenosine triphosphate). d. Gated channels are closed till a certain stimulus occurs

b. a molecule out of the cell c. two different molecules in the d. two different molecules in the same direction opposite direction

c. Ion channel proteins are energy-

111.

The nuclear pore complex a. permits free communication cytoplasm b. is bridged by a unit membrane c. is located only at specific nuclear pore sites between the nucleus and the

113.

Anticodons are located in a. messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) b. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) c. transfer RNA (tRNA) (snRNP) d. small nuclear ribonucleoprotein e. heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP)

d. permits passage of proteins via receptor mediated transport 112. nucleotides is present only in ribonucleic acid (RNA)? a. Thymine b. Adenine c. Uracil d. Cytosine e. Guanine options to select. Choose exactly this number. (A) Nuclear pore complex (B) Nucleolus (C) Heterochromatin (D) Outer nuclear membrane (E) Euchromatin 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. Which one of the following 114.

duplicated in the cell cycle during the a. G2 phase b. S phase c. M phase d. G1 phase e. Go phase

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is

The response options for the next five items are the same. Each item will state the number of For each description, select the most appropriate structure.

An inclusion not bounded by a membrane that is observable only during interphase Continuous with rough endoplasmic reticulum Site of transcriptional activity Controls movement of proteins in and out of the nucleus Clumps of nucleoprotein concentrated near the periphery of the nucleus

120.

Cytokinesis is the division of a. A cell. b. A nucleus. c. Cytoplasm. d. A chromosome. e. DNA. 124.

d. Anaphase e. Telophase In what phase does the movement of individual chromosomes towards opposite poles occur? a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophases 125. In what phase does the arrangement of chromosomes along the equator of the cell occur? a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophases 126. In what phase does the disappearance of nuclear membrane and nucleoli occur? a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase

121.

The genetic material in the nucleus a. Nucleolus. b. Nuclear membrane. c. Nuclear sap. d. Chromosomes. e. Vacuole.

is located in the

122.

Which of the following does mitosis a. Production of two identical daughter cells. b. Production of two nuclei with identical genetic content. c. Precise division of the cytoplasm and its distribution to two daughter cells. d. Reproduction of mitochondria and chloroplasts. e. Production of a cancer cell.

normally accomplish?

123.

Where does the duplication of a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase

chromosomes occur?

127.

In what phase does the DNA become a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase 131.

c. Two nuclei form as a result of the division. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Which of the following is characteristic of the first division of meiosis but not mitosis? a. Chromosomes are duplicated prior to division. b. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear in prophase. c. Sister chromatids are attached to each other at the centromere. d. Homologous chromosomes pair. e. none of the above 132. Which of the following are ways a. In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced. b. In meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically different from the parent cell. c. In meiosis, at least some of the daughter cells differ genetically from each other. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. that meiosis differs from mitosis?

visible strands?

128.

The two chromatids of a

chromosome separate from each other during a. Prophase. b. Metaphase. c. Anaphase. d. Telophases. e. Interphase. 129. Meiosis involves _______ division(s) a. one b. two c. four d. eight e. ten 130. Which of the following are typical of both mitosis and of the first division of meiosis? a. The genetic material in the nucleus is duplicated prior to division. b. Spindle fibers form. of a nucleus.

133.

The number of cells produced by

137.

Chromosome duplication occurs a. True b. False

meiosis is ________ the number of cells produced by mitosis. a. One-fourth b. Half c. Equal to d. Twice e. Four times 134. The number of chromosomes in daughter cells produced by meiosis is ________ the number of chromosomes in daughter cells produced by mitosis. a. One-fourth b. Half c. Equal to d. Twice e. Four times 135. Which of the following is unique to a. Nuclear membrane breaks down b. DNA organizes into chromosomes c. Crossing-over d. Chromosomes align along the central plate of the cell e. None of the above 136. Daughter cells produced in meiosis a. True b. False are identical. meiosis?

prior to both mitosis and meiosis.

138.

In leptotene stage of meiosis the a. two homologous chromosomes pair up forming 23 bivalents b. chromosomes codense becoming shorter and thicker c. chromosomes appear as thin threads d. crossing over occurs

following occur :

139.

The difference between mitosis and a. in second meiosis there is no spilting of centromere b. Not preceeded by S-phase c. All of the above d. Neither is right

second meiotic division is :

140.

During interphase of the cell cycle a. The cell increases in size b. Replication of genetic material takes place c. The duration taken is longer than mitosis d. All of the above

141. by

Regulation of cell cycle takes place 146. a. Hormonal control mechanism b. Checkpoints c. Both A & B d. Neither is right

d. Cyclin S DNA damage checkpoints are a. Present only in G1 & S phase b. Block cell cycle destruction c. Trigger cell death by apoptosis d. All of the above 147. DNA replication checkpoints are a. Present in G2 & G1 phases b. Detect the presence of DNA c. Repair of damaged DNA d. All of the above 148. All of the following are properties a. Occurs in a somatic cell b. Consists of 2 successive divisions c. Repair to cells takes place d. None of the above 149. All of the following occur in a. Mitotic spindle disappears b. DNA content = 2N c. Chromatids migrate towards the opposite pole d. None of the above telophase except mitosis except:

142.

The interphase is a. Between two successive germinal cell division b. Shorter than cell division (mitosis) c. DNA content = N d. None of the above

143.

G1 is characterized by a. Longest period b. DNA synthesis c. DNA content is 4N d. All of the above

144.

In the S phase a. DNA content is 4N b. Replication of cell organelles c. Complete separation between two cells d. All of the above

145.

During G1 phase which of the a. Cyclin A b. Cyclin B c. Cyclin D

following enzymes is acting

150.

All of the following are true about a. Occurs in germ cells b. Consists of two successive divisions c. Formation of gametes d. None of the above

154.

Stem cell niches have the following a. Created by tissue cells and extracellular matrix b. Anchor stem cells with tight junction c. Regulate the cell cycle d. None of the above

meiosis except

properties except

151.

Prophase I a. Nuclear membrane disappears b. DNA content = 2N c. Five stages d. All of the above 155.

Embryonic stem cell have the a. 4 or 5 days old b. Multipotent stem cells c. Immunologically inactive d. None of the above

following except

152.

Centromeres divide in a. Metaphase I b. Prophase I c. Telophase I d. Second division 156.

All the following are true about a. Physiological process b. Programmed cell death c. Controlled by several genes d. All of the above

necrosis except

153.

All the following cells have short life a. Blood cells b. Smooth muscle cells c. Epithelial cells of GIT d. None of the above 157.

span except

Apoptosis occurs in all of the a. Hypoxia b. Hormone dependent involution c. To get rid of destructive cells d. Maintain a constant number of cells

following except

Answers:
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. E 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. C 26. E 27. B 28. A 29. D 30. B 31. C 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. E 36. D 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. D 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D 51. A 52. B 53. E 54. B 55. A 56. B 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. C 63. C 64. C 65. B 66. B 67. B 68. C 69. B 70. D 71. D 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. C 76. E 77. A 78. B 79. D 80. E 81. E 82. E 83. D 84. E 85. D 86. D 87. D 88. A 89. B 90. A/B/C/C/A/ C 91. D/B/F/C/E/ F/D 92. D/E/C/A/A/ B 93. A/B/A/C/A/ B 94. C/A/C/B/C/ B/D/A/A/A/ A/B/A 95. I/a 96. II/a 97. V/g 98. IV/f 99. III/C 100. e 101. III/b 102. III/d 103. B 104. C 105. C 106. C 107. D 108. B 109. D III/

110. D 111. D 112. C 113. C 114. B 115. B 116. D 117. A 118. E 119. C 120. C 121. D

122. B 123. A 124. D 125. C 126. B 127. B 128. C 129. B 130. D 131. D 132. D 133. D

134. B 135. C 136. B 137. A 138. C 139. B 140. D 141. C 142. D 143. A 144. A 145. C

146. C 147. B 148. B 149. C 150. D 151. B 152. D 153. B 154. B 155. B 156. D 157. A