A) B) C) D) : AHEAD Test and Discussions - AIPG 2011

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011
1. Coeliac plexus is located a) Anterolateral & around the aorta b) Posterolateral & around the aorta c) Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain d) Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain Ans. is 'c' i.e. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain [Ref: BDC 4/e, vol 2, p 321, 320; Gray's Anatomy 40/e, p 1045, 1043] 1. Which of the positions best describes the location of celiac plexus A. Anterolateral to Aorta B. Posterolateral to Arota C. Anterolateral to sympathetic chain D. Anteromedial to sympathetic chain Answer is A (Anterolateral to Aorta): Gray's 4C/h/1045 'Practical Management of Pain' by Prithvi Raj 3'd/251 2. Anterior ethmoidal nerve suplies all except: a) Maxillary sinus b) Interior of nasal cavity c) Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa d) Ethmoidal air cells Ans. is 'a' i.e. Maxillary sinus [Ref: BDC 4/e, vol 3 p 234, Gray's Anatomy 40/e, p 554-559] 3. Nonrespiratory function of lung A. Exchange of anions B.Sodium exchange C. Potassium exchange D. Calcium exchange Ans: B. Sodium exchange [Ref: Ganong - Review of Medical Physiology 23rd edn., Berne and Levy physiology 5th edn. and Applied respiratory physiology by John Francis Nunn 6th edn.] 3. An important non-respiratory function of Lungs is: A. Anion balance B. odium balance C. Potassium balance D. Calcium balance Answer is B (Sodium balance): Lecture notes on Human Physiology 4th Ed /400; 'Principles of Physiology' by Pramanik 1st Ed / 134; 'The Respiratory System' by Davies & Moores (2003)/ 28, 29; 'Pulmonary Physiology' (LANGE) 6th Ed/215-226; 'Fluids and Electrolytes: Made Incredibly Easy' 4th Ed /33; 'Portable Fluids and Electrolytes' (2007) / 25, 26 4. BMR is low in A. Hyperthyroid B. Obesity C. Feeding D. Exercise Ans. B. Obesity [Ref: Ganong. Review of Medical Physiology 23rd edn., 281-82, GW Horgan, J Stubbs. Predicting basal metabolic rate in the obese is difficult. European Journal of Clinical Nutrition 2003;57:335-40.] 4. Decreased Basal Metabolic Rate is seen in: A. Obesity B. Hyperthyroidism C. Feeding D. Exercise Answer is A (Obesity): Ganong 23rd/462; Harrisons 17th Ed / 462, 467 ' Understanding Nomal & Clinical Nutrition' by Whitney (2008)7255 5. Deficiency of sphingomyelinase occurs in A. Niemann-Pick B. Gaucher's C. Fabreys Ans: A. Niemann-Pick 6. Rothera test used for A. Ketone bodies B. Urine sugars Ans: A. Ketone bodies 6. Rothera's test used for detection of A. Proteins B. Glucose
Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 1 R-704, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060. Ph: 011 - 28743814, 25716297, 9810187297. Email- ahead_academy@yahoo.com www.aheadacademy.com
D. GM1 gangliosides
C. Bence Jones proteins
D. Ethers in urine
Fatty Acid
D. Ketones Answer is D (Ketones): Satyanarayana 3rd/295; 'Practical Biochemistry for Students' by Malhotra 4th/e 43-47, 'Laboratory Manual of Biochemistry' by Chary & Sharma (2004) / 21 7. Chromosomal aneuploidy is least likely to be diagnosed by A. FISH B. Microarray genomic hybridization C. RT-PCR D. None of the above Ans: D. None of the above 7. Which of the following tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy A. FISH B. RT-PCR C. QF-PCR D. Microarray Answer is D (Microarray) : Harrison I fh/406 8. Mass chemoprophylaxis is used in all except A. Yaws B. Filariasis C. Leprosy D. Trachoma Ans: C. Leprosy [Ref: Park; 20th edi, pg - 238. 271, 287, 297.] 8. Mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area is recommended for all of the following, except: A. Yaws B. Leprosy C. Trachoma D. Filaria Answer is B (Leprosy): Park 20th/41, 236, 287; 'Bacterial Infections and Humans' 3rd /390; 'Antibiotic & Chemotherapy' by Finch (Elsevier) 2003/814 9. All are true about scrub typhus except: A. Mite is a vector B. Adult mite feeds on vertebral host C. Caused by tsutsugamushi D. Tetracycline is treatment Ans: B. Adult mite feeds on vertebral host [Ref: Park : 20th edi, pg 262] 9. All of the following statements about scrub typhus are true, Except A. Caused by O. Tsutsugamushi B. Mites act as reservoirs C. Transmitted when adult mites feed on hosts D. Tetracycline is the drug of choice Answer is C (Transmitted when adult mites feed on hosts): Harrison 17th /1064; Park 20th /262; Ananthnarayan 7th /416 10. All are used in migraine prophylactic treatment except: A. Valproate B. Propanol C Topiramate D. Ethosuximide Ans: D. Ethosuximide [Ref: Harrison's, 17th edition, Page no 102.] 11. Gout is a disorder of.. A. Purine metabolism B. Pyrimidine metabolism C. Ketone metabolism D. Protein metabolism Ans. A. Purine metabolism 11. Gout is a disorder of: A. Purine Metabolism B. Pyrimidine Metabolism C. Ketone Metabolism D. Protein metabolism Answer is A (Purine Metabolism): Harrison's 17th/-2444 12. The disorders characterized by Polydactyly, Craniosynostosis, severe symmetrical Syndactly (cutaneous and bony fusion) of the hands and feets along with polysyndactly and variable soft firm Syndactly is a feature of: [AIPG 2007]

A. Aperts syndrome B. Crouzons syndrome C. Carpenter syndrome D. Marfan syndrome Ans. (c) Carpenter syndrome (Ref: Shafer 5th Ed Pg 989 & 990 & 6th Ed Pg 714-715) 13. Premature synostoses of coronal suture along with basal sutures shows which of the following Features ? [AIPG 2009] A. Brachycephaly B. Oxycephaly C. Trigonocephaly D. Scaphocephaly [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Nelson text book of pediatrics 16th Ed Pg 1812-1813; Ghai's Paediatrics Pg 602, Harish 5th Ed Pg 59]
14. Mother worried about green stains on recently erupted upper anterior teeth of her child. These stains are not removed after brushing. These stains are due to [AIIMS NOV. 2010] A. Chromogenic bacteria B. Neonatal line C. Calculus D. Material alba
Ans. (A) Ref. Carranza 8th Ed/158, 159 & Shobha Tandon 2nd Ed / 877
15. Root surface caries is caused by? [AIPG 2009] A. Actinomyces Viscosus B. Streptococcus mutans C. Streptococcus viridians D. Lactobacillus [Ans. (A)] [REF: Sturdevant 4th Ed Pg 83, 91 & 5th Ed Pg 92-94 and Essential Microbiology for Dentistry by Lakshman Samaranayake 3rd Ed Pg 271] 16. Tevdek sutures used for endodontic microsurgeries are removed after? [AIPG 2009] A. 48-72 hours B. 72-96 hours C. 7 days D. 10 days [Ans. (A)] [REF: Practical Clinical Endodontics by Philip Lumley Pg 103] 17. Of all the bevels placed on gold inlay preparation, which is the most important bevel for success of restoration? [AIPG 2009] A. Occlusal B. Gingival C. Axiopulpal D. Faciopulpal [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Sturdevant 4th Ed Pg 814, 815, & 5th Ed Pg 853, 859, 861, 860] 18. Which of the following Orofacial pain is not associated with vascular origin? [AIPG 2009] A. Cluster headache B. Giant cell arteritis C. Anaesthesia dolorosa D. Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania Ans C [Ref. Burkets 5th Ed Pg 338-339, 326 & Shafer 4th Ed Pg 863 & 6th Ed Pg 851] 19. All of the following types of collagen except one is present in Hyaline cartilage: [AIPG 2010] A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 9 Ans. B [Ref. Robbins 7th Ed, Pg. 104 & Carranza 9th Ed Pg 264 266, and 10th Ed Pg. 69] 20. In bacterial meningitis, CSF has [AIPG 2010] A. high protein B. high glucose C. high lymphocytes Ans: A [Ref: Harrison 17th Ed Pg 2621 2625] D. high leukocytes
21. Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of the marginal gingiva results in? [AIPG 2009] A. A shallow sulcus B. Gingival pocket formation C. Infrabony pocket formation D. Peridontal pocket formation [Ans. (A)] [Ref: Carranza 8th Ed Pg 336] 22. Only sensory branch of anterior divison of Mandibular nerve? [AIPG 2009] A. Lingual nerve B. Auriculotemporal nerve C. Buccal nerve Ans. (D) [Ref: Monheims Local Anesthesia and pain control 7th Ed Pg 46] 23. Somatic efferent does not include [AIPG 2008] a. Facial nerve b. Occulomotor nerve c. Abducens Ans a [Ref. Grays anatomy for students Pg. 800-801] 24. Teeth that erupt within 30 days of birth are called? [AIPG 2009] A. Natal teeth B. Neonatal teeth C. Primary teeth [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Shafer 4th Ed Pg 64 & 5th Ed Pg 81 & 6th Ed Pg 48] 25. Most common maligancy associated with AIDS is? [AIPG 2009]
D. Long buccal nerve
d. Trochlear
D. Prenatal teeth

A. Kaposis sarcoma B. Hemangioma C. Epidermolysis bullosa D. Ewings sarcoma [Ans. (A)] [Ref. Shafers 4th Ed Pg 177 & 5th Ed Pg 231, 232 & 6th Ed Pg 163-164] 26. The most common tumour of Salivary gland is? [AIPG 2009] A. Mixed tumor pf parotid gland B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma D. Warthins tumor Ans. (A) [Ref. Shafer 4th Ed Pg 231 Table 3-1 & 5th Ed pg 310 Table 3-1 & 6th Ed Pg 219-224 & Burket's 10th Ed Pg 260] 27. Which of the following may be feature of acromegaly? [AIPG 2009] A. Large tongue B. Type of Cellulitis C. Venereal disease D. Crowded teeth [Ans. (A)] [Ref. Shafer 4th Ed Pg 656 & 5th Ed Pg 896 & 6th Ed Pg 649 & National Boards oral surgery and pain control Q-95 Pg 47] 28. Phlegmon is? [AIPG 2009] A. Type of osteomyelitis B. Osteitis deformans C. Venereal disease D. Osteogenesis imperfecta [Ans. (B)] [Ref : Essential Microbiology for Dentistry by Lakshman Samaranayake 3rd Ed Pg 227, Shafers 4th Ed Pg 511 & 5th Ed Pg 697 & 6th Ed Pg 501-502] 29. White radiating lines on buccal mucosa is characteristic of? [AIPG 2009] A. Erythema multiforme B. Pemphigus C. Leukoplakia D. Lichen planus [Ans. (D)] Ref: Burkets 10th Ed Pg 107, Shafer 4th Ed Pg 810 & 5th Ed Pg 1104 & 6th Ed Pg 799-801] 30. Saw-tooth rete pegs are seen in? [AIPG 2009] A. Lichen planus B. Erythema multiforme C. Psoriasis D. Leukoplakia [Ans. (A)] [Ref: Burkets 10th Ed Pg 109, Shafer 4th Ed Pg 810 & 5th Ed Pg 1104 & 6th Ed Pg 802] 31. Deficiency of which of the following Vitamin causes generalized hypoplasia of teeth? [AIPG 2009] A. Vitamin x B. Vitamin B deficiency C. Iron deficiency D. Vitamin E deficiency [Ans. (A)] [Ref: Shafers 4th Ed Pg 53 & 5th Ed Pg 69 & 6th Ed Pg 50-52] 32. Herpangina is caused by? [AIPG 2009] A. Coxsackie Virus B. EBV C. Herpes Zoster [Ans. (A)] [Ref. Shafer 4th Ed Pg 376 & 5th Ed Pg 473 & 6th Ed Pg 339]
D. None
33. Which of the following is the most difficult pulpal or periapical pathosis to diagnose? [AIPG 2009] A. Necrotic pulp B. Chronic Pulpitis C. Internal resorption D. Acute alveolar abscess Ans B [ENDODONTICS INGLE 5th Ed Pg 271] 34. A radiograph of the mesial aspect of the mandibular right first molar show 2-3 mm of bone loss, yet clinical probing indicate a pocket depth of 6-8 mm. This discrepancy is probably due to the? [AIPG 2009] A. Poor angulation used in taking the radiograph. B. Presence of mandibular tori in the area. C. Presence of mesial bone masking the destruction. D. Presence of facial or lingual bone masking the destruction. [Ans. (D)] [Ref: Carranza 9th Ed Pg 456, & 10th Ed Pg 459] 35. In Facial porcelain margin, the risk of fracture can be reduced by? [AIPG 2009] A. Increased axial depth upto 3mm B. Cavosurface margin at 90 degree C. Margins of the tooth reduction at incisal edge D. Providing contact during centric relationship [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Shillinburgh 3rd Ed Pg 130] 36. For most effective cutting and long usefulness of a tungsten carbide bur it should be? [AIPG 2009] A. Rotaiting slow before contacting the tooth B. Rotating rapidly before contacting the tooth C. Placed in contact with tooth before staring D. Rotating rapidly before entering into the oral cavity [Ans. (B)] [Sturdevent 4th Ed Pg 330, 341] 37. What is the major difference between a class V cavity preparation for amalgam and one for composite resin by the acid-etch technique? [AIPG 2009]

A. Depth B. Convenience form C. Position of retentive points D. Angulation of enamel cavosurface margins [Ans. (A)] [Ref: Sturdevants Operative Dentistry 4th Ed Pg 755 & 528, 529, & 5th Ed Pg 556] 38. Within an hour after cementation of cast gold onlay, patient complains of shooting pain every time the teeth comes together. Most probable explanation is? [AIPG 2009] A. Supraocclusion of restoration B. Retained cement in gingival sulcus C. Excess acid in mix D. Galvanic current caused by gold onlay occluding with a large restoration [Ans. (D)] Ref: Sturdevants Operative Dentistry 4th Ed Pg 144, & 5th Ed Pg 148 Phillips 11th Ed Pg 61
39. Proximal caries usually starts [AIPG 2009] A. At contact area B. Between the contact area and the marginal ridge C. Gingival to the contact area and gingival to the free margin of the tissue D. Gingival to the contact area and occlusal to the free margin of the tissue [Ans. (D)] [Ref: Shafer 5th Ed Pg 606 & 6th Ed Pg 435] 40. When the pins are used in the cavity for amalgam, the strength of amalgam? [AIPG 2009] A. Increased B. Decreased C. Unchanged D. May increase or decrease [Ans. (B)] [Ref: Sturdevant 4th Ed Pg 766, Sturdevent 5th Ed Pg 811, 827, 830] 41. During administration of NSAIDS in children, the most important factor of dose administration is? [AIPG 2009] A. Weight of the child B. Age of child C. Nature of the drug D. Chronocity of pain [Ans. (A)] [Ref. K. D. Tripathi 6th Ed Pg 61 & 5th Ed Pg 52, 53] 42. A 7 yr old child comes to your clinic with ulcers with indurated margins in the oral cavity and fever with crusting of lips. The probable treatment plan is? [AIPG 2009] A. Prescribe broad spectrum antibiotic and mouthwash B. Symptomatic treatment and observation C. Clean the mouth with a gentle mouthwash D. None of the above [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Carranza 8th Ed Pg 255 & 9th Ed Pg 303, Carranza 10th Ed Pg. 525] 43. A six year old child patient has blue-dome shaped swelling in posterior mandibular region, what will be the treatment plan? [AIPG 2009] A. Reassure the patient without any treatment B. Excise the lesion C. Marsupialization D. Surgical Excision [Ans. (A)] [Ref. Shafer 5th Ed Pg 363 & 6th Ed Pg 258] 44. The bacterial flora associated with juvenile periodontitis is mainly? [AIPG 2009] A. Gram positive aerobic cocci B. Gram positive anaerobic cocci C. Gram negative aerobic rods D. Gram negative anaerobic rods [Ans. (D)] [Ref. Carranza 8th Ed Pg 95 & 9th Ed Pg 107 & 10th Ed Pg 509-510 and Essential Microbiology for Dentistry Lakshman Samaranayake 3rd Ed Pg 281] 45. The interdental col is more prone to periodontal disease because it [AIPG 2009] A. Is covered with non keratinised epithelium B. It is difficult to clean C. Harbours bacerial plaque [Ans (A)] [Contemporary Periodontics by Robert J.Genco 1st Ed Pg 619] 46. Gingival clefts may be caused by [AIPG 2009] A. Occlusal disharmonies B. Faulty toothbrushing [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Shafer 4th Ed Pg 788 7 6th Ed Pg 397]
D. All of the above
C. Normal frenum attachement
D. Use of dental floss
47. The type of bone present in the labial area of anterior teeth is [AIPG 2009] A. Cortical B. Cancellous C. Osteophytic D. Exophytic [Ans. (A)] [Ref. Orban's 12th Ed Pg 201 & Carranza 9th Ed Pg 48] 48. The gingival fibre group which inserts in two adjacent teeth is the? [AIPG 2009] A. Horizontal group B. Circular group C. Trans-septal group D. Oblique group [Ans (C)] [Ref. Carranza 10th Ed Pg 57] 49. The most common cause of dry mouth in adult patients is [AIPG 2009]

A. Tranquillizer B. Anti-histaminics C. Insulin [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Shillinburgh 3rd Ed Pg 4] D. Birth control pills
50. The most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma is the presence of? [AIPG 2009] A. Wear facets B. Tooth mobility C. Enamel cracks D. Cuspal fracture [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Carranza 9th Ed Pg 377 & 10th Ed Pg 474] 51. A probable etiology of gingivosis is? [AIPG 2009] A. High progesterone levels B. Deficiency of estrogen and testosterone C. Pregnancy D. Aldosterone deficiency [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Contemporary Periodontics by Robert J. Genco 1st Ed Pg 69, 234]
52. The difference in the colour between sub and supragingival calculus is related to? [AIPG 2009] A. PH of plaque B. Death of leucocytes C. Hemolysis of erythrocytes D. All of the above [Ans. (C)] [REF: Carranza 9th Ed Pg 98 & 10th Ed Pg 170-171] 53. All of the following muscles are attached to oblique line of thyroid cartilage except [AIIMS NOV. 2008] a. Superior constrictor b. Inferior constrictor c. Thyrohyoid d. Sternothyroid [Ans. (a) Ref. B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy (Head, Neck & Brain); 4th Ed.; Pg 122 & 221, 240 & Ref: Moores 3rd 783, 785, Lasts 10th 383-84] 54. Eutectic mixture of 2.5% lignocaine and 2.5% prilocaine is used for [AIIMS NOV. 2008] a. Gow gates technique for mandibular nerve block. b. Gasserion ganglion block c. Intrapulpal anesthesia d. For anesthetizing intact mucosa [Ans (d) Ref:- Handbook of local anesthesia by Stanley f. Malamed, 5th edi pg 77-78, 350-351, (Neelima Anil Malik 2nd Ed Pg 181 & Shobha Tandon 2nd Ed Pg 536) 55. The radiographic feature of sinusitis includes [AIIMS NOV. 2008] a. Fluid levels b. Erosion of bone c. Clouding of antra d. Clouding and fluid level [Ans (d) Ref: Textbook of Oral & Maxillofacial surgery by Neelima Anil Malik, 1st ed. Pg 530 & 2nd Ed Pg 569-572 56. In case of Fracture of mandible; alveolar border experiences which force [AIIMS NOV. 2008] a. Tension b. Compression c Torsion d. Rotation [Ans. (a) Ref. Textbook of oral & maxillofacial surgery by S.M balaji /pg581 & Ref. Vinod Kapoor 2nd ed Pg. 268] 57. The inter-radicular bone is: [AIIMS Nov 2006] A. Compact B. Cancellous C. Exophytic D. Osteophytic. Ans. (B) Cancellous. (Ref: Carranza 9th Ed Pg 45 & 10th Ed Pg 80, 82) 58. Turners hypoplasia is? [AIPG 2009] A. Hypoplasia due to systemic infection B. Hypoplasia due to Congenital syphilis C. Hypoplasia due to Local trauma/ Infection D. Hypoplasia due to Flouride ingestion [Ans. (C)] [Ref. Shafer 4th Ed Pg 55 & 5th Ed Pg 73 & 6th Ed Pg 50-54] 59. After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a class III composite preparation, the preparation gets contaminated with saliva. In response, the dentist should do which of the following? [AIPG 2009] A. Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed. B. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation, then proceed C. Wipe away the saliva with cotton pellet, rinse the preparation with water, dry it with air, and then proceed. D. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat the etching procedure. [Ans. (D)] [REF: Sturdevants Art & Science of Operative Dentistry 4th Ed Pg 123 & 183] 60. Back pressure porosity can be rectified by? [AIPG 2009] A. Vaccum investing the wax pattern B. Decreasing the mold and casting temperature C. Using proper technique of burn out temperature and casting pressure D All of the above [Ans. (C)] [Ref. Philips 11th Ed Pg 346]

61. A patient is having very extensive carious lesion, the radiograph of lesion shows a probable exposure of the pulp horn if excavated, what will be the treatment plan? [AIPG 2009] A. Proceed with endodontic treatment B. Excavate the gross carious lesion and place appropriate sedative dressing C. Remove all carious lesion, place sedative dressing and plan pulpotomy in next session D. Remove all carious tooth structure and cap the exposure [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Sturdevent 4th Ed Pg 128] 62. The attached gingiva is? [AIPG 2009] A. Always Stippled C. Resistant to masticatory stress and forces [Ans. (C)] [Carranza 10th Ed Pg 47, 62, 504]
B. Non-keratimzed D. Resistant to inflammatory changes
63. The usefulness of a screening test in a community depends on its: [AIPG 2004] a. Sensitivity. b. Specificity. c. Reliability. d. Predictive Value. Ans. A: Sensitivity [Ref: Park 17th ed/108-110, Park 19th/ed/119-121] 63. Reliability of a screening test refers to: a. Accurately measures what it is supposed to measure b. Gives same values even on repeated testing c._ The extent to which the observer can go in finding the result d. Depends on knowledge of the observer Ans is 'b' i.e. Gives same values even on repeated testing Ref: Park20/epI27 64. On a primary 2nd molar caries occur most commonly on [AIIMS NOV. 2008] a. Occlusal pit and fissures b. Buccal surface c. Proximal caries below contact point d. Proximal caries above contact point [Ans. (a) Ref: Textbook of Pedodontics by Shobha Tandon, 1st ed. Pg 194 & 2nd Ed Pg 257, 258 & Sturdevant 5th Ed Pg 288 290] 65. An 8yr old child got trauma and got his central incisor avulsed 20 minutes back which got contaminated with debris the child rushes to the dental clinic with avulsed tooth the treatment is. [AIIMS NOV. 2008] a. Clean root surface with saline and reimplant. b. Clean and curette root surface and reimplant c. Clean root surface, do RCT and reimplant d. Scrubbing of root surface and reimplant [Ans (a) Ref: Endodontic practice by Grossman, 11th ed. pg 25-26] 66. Syndrome which is characterized by 2x chromosomes and 1Y chromo some is [AIIMS NOV. 2008] a. Klinfelters syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Marfan syndrome [Ans (a) Ref. Essential Pathology for Dental students by Harsh Mohan; 2nd Ed.; Pg 60 Harrison 17th Ed Pg 2340, 2341] 67. Nitrates are not used in A. CCF B. Esophageal spasm C. Renal Colic Ans. is 'c' i.e., Renal colic [Ref: KDT 6th Ed/ 524-530]
D. Cyanide poisoning
68. Dissociated sensory loss in a case of tumor of central spinal cord is due to lesion of: a. Dorsal column fibres b. Anterior Spinothalmic tract c. Decussating fibres of lateral spinothalmic tract d. Cilio spinal centre of spinal cord Ans is 'c' i.e. Decussating fibres of lateral spinothalmic tract [Ref: Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology 8th edition p140 Localization in Clinical Neurology by Brazis, Paul W, 5th Edition Chapter 5; Harrison 17/e p 157] 69. A patient with multiple injuries exhibit paradoxical chest movements during inspiration and expiration is due to? [AIPG 2009] A. Pneumothorax B. Flail chest C. Cardiac temponade D. Hemothorax [Ans. (B)] [REF: Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 2nd Ed Pg 335] 70. Obesity is associated with all except [AIIMS Nov. 2009] a. Diabetes b. GH decreased c. Thyroid hormone decreased d. Oestrogen decreased

Ans. D [Ref. Guyton & Hall 11th ed Pg. 848, 926, 941, 942, 974, 1017, 1018 & Harrison 17th Ed pg 462, 466]
71. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on the radiograph by: [AIPG 2006]
a. Visible light b. Ultrasonic Light. c. Fibreoptic transillumination. d. Digital Imaging fibreoptic transillumination Answer is D (Digital Imaging Fiber Optic Transillumination) Medical Imaging, IEEE Transactions on Vol 16 issues; 653-663. 71. DIFOTI helps in diagnosing [AIIMS NOV. 2008] a. Bone loss in children b.Calcium content of enamel c. Occlusal caries d. Proximal caries [Ans (d > c) ] DIFOTI (Digital imagining fiber-optic Transilumination) [Ref : Shobha Tandon 2nd Ed Pg 209, 210] 72. Not true about PnG is? [AIPG 2009] A. Destroyed by gastric acid B. Very active against sensitive gram +ve cocci C. Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis D. More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluid. [Ans. (D)] [Ref. K.D. Tripathi 5th Ed Pg 654 & 6th Ed Pg 696-699] 73. Definition of AUTISTIC child is? [AIPG 2009] A. Incapacitating communication and emotional problem B. Obsessional desire for maintaining a changing environment C. Painfully sensitive to sound, touch, sight or smell D. Repetitive behaviors, severe social problems, and clumsy movements [Ans. (A)] [Ref: Shobha tendon 1st Ed Pg 554 & 2nd Ed Pg 127] 74. Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aerugenosa [AIIMS MAY 2010] A. Cefoperazone B. Cefaclor C. Ceftriaxone D. Cefotaxime Ans. A (Cefoperazone) [Ref. KDT, 5th Ed pg 661 & 6th Ed Pg 404, 406-408 & Goodman Gillman 10th Ed Pg 1174] 75. Bronchial circulation is associated with: [AIPG 2010] A. Air conditioning B. Drug absorption C. Gaseous exchange D. Reserve volume nd Ans. A [Ref : Sembulingum 2 Ed Pg 537 and Exercise: pulmonary physiology and pathophysiology By Brian J. Whipp, Karlman Wasserman Pg 242 and Inhalation aerosols: physical and biological basis for therapy By Anthony J. Hickey Pg 98 and The Bronchial circulation By John Butler Pg 292]
76. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an I.V. induction agent? [AIPG 2004] a. Neurosurgery. b. Day care surgery. c. Patient with coronary artery disease. d. In neonates. Ans. (b) Day care surgery [Ref: Morgan Anesthesiology 3rd ed/404, 570, 860] 77. Ground Glass appearance on bone is seen in [AIIMS MAY 2008] a) Hyper parathyroidism b) Fibrous dysplasia c) Condensing Osteitis d) Osteoma [Ans (A > B ) hyperparathyroidism > Fibrous dysplasia) Ref: Neville 2nd /810; Shafers 4th/659,696 & 6th Ed Pg 651-653] 78. Tobacco chewing is thought to be a contributing/predisposing factor in which condition? [AIPG 2009] A. Desquamative gingivitis B. ANUG C. Juvenile periodontitis D. Erythema multiforme [Ans. (B)] [REF: Carranza 9th Ed Pg 302 & 10th Ed Pg 391] 79. Most commonly postural hypotension is seen with [AIPG 2008] a. Prazosin b. Nifedipine c. Atenolol d. ACE inhibitors [Ans. (a) Ref. K.D. Tripathi 5th ed/121, 508 & 6th Ed Pg 134, 545] 80. Which index would you use to assess the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studies of a large Population? [AIPG 2009] A. PMA index B, Gingival index C. Periodontal index D. Sulcus bleeding index [Ans. (c)] [Periodontal index] 81. Geniculate ganglion is concerned with [AIPG 2008] a. Taste b. Lacrimation c. Salivation [Ans (a) Ref. BD chaurasia 4th ed, vol. 3/141]
d. ventral spinothalamic tract

82. Which of these is not included in parenteral therapy?[AIPG 2010] A. Carbohydrates B. Fibers C. Fats D. Proteins th th Ans. B [Ref : KDT 6 Ed Pg 9 10, 16 17 and Harrison 17 Ed Pg 455 460 83. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in radiographic features of? [AIPG 2009] A. Fibrous dysplasia B. Osteitis deformans C. Osteopetrosis [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Shafer 4th Ed Pg 691 & 5th Ed Pg 1005 & 6th Ed Pg 727-728] D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
84. Cooleys anaemia is better known as [AIIMS NOV 2009] a. Thallassemia major b. Thallassemia Minor c. Thallassemia Intermedium d. thalassemia Ans. A [Ref. Shafers 6th ed Pg. 760 & Bailey & Love 25th ed Pg. 1107 & Harrison 17th/641; Nelson Pediatrics 16th/14791484; 17th/1630; 18th/2043 & Chadarasoma Taylor 2nd/386 & Rotations 7th/634, 635; Essential Radiology (2006)/536; Rudolph Pediatrics 21st/1537; Musculoskeletal imaging by Bohndrof (2001)/214 & Cawson 5th ed Pg. 129] 85. Single defect in the DNA repair gene will lead to [AIIMS Nov. 2009] a. Xeroderma pigmentosum b. Albinism c. Sickle cell anaemia d. Icthysis Ans. A [Ref. Shafers 6th ed Pg. 121, 762, Harper 28th ed Pg. 332; Lippincots 4th ed Pg. 410-411, 412; Chatterjee Shinde 5th ed Pg. 224 & Robbins 7th Ed Pg 306, 307, 358 & Cawson 5th ed Pg. 255 & Harrison 16th Ed Pg 2332; 17th Ed Pg 333, 1181, 2664] 86. Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors include: A. II and III B. IX and X C. Ill and V D. VIII and XII Answer is B (IX and X): Ganong 23rd /535, Chaudhury physiology 6th /73 87. Basal Metabolic Rate depends most closely on: A. Lean body mass B. Body mass index C. Obesity D. Body surface area Answer is A >= D (Lean body mass >= Body surface area): Refer Text for References 90. Rural and Urban difference in prevalence is seen in all of the following, Except: A. Lung cancer B. Tuberculosis C. Mental Illness D. Chronic Bronchitis Answer is B (Tuberculosis): 'Textbook of Community Medicine' by Sunderlal, Adarsh and Pankaj 2nd /419; Textbook of Public Health and Community Medicine 1st (2009) /1105 91. India aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015: A. Malaria B. Tuberculosis C. KalaAzar D. Filariasis Answer is D (Filariasis) : Park 20th / 776 92. Bence Jones proteinuria may be seen in: A. Alpha heavy chain disease B. Gamma heavy chain disease C. 'Mu' heavy chain disease D. Epsilon heavy chain disease Answer is C (Mu heavy chain disease): Harrison's 17th1707, Refer text below
95. which of the followng is least likely to be seen in occupational cancer?? a)skin b)lungs c)liver d)luekimia
[Ans. (C)] [Ref. Park 19th Ed Pg 663 & 18th Ed Pg 611 & 20th Ed Pg 338, 710, 711] 96. An Excisional biopsy is characterized by? [AIPG 2009] A. Using a trephine

B. Exfoliative cytologic techniques C. Including normal tissues and most of the lesion D. Including normal tissues and all of the lesion [Ans. (D)] [Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 2nd Ed Pg 521 & 570 & Contemporary oral and maxillofacial surgery by Peterson 3rd Ed Pg 521] 97. Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives protection against: A. G6PD B. Malaria C. Thalassemia D. Dengue fever Answer is B (Malaria): Robbins 8th7387, 645; Robbins 7th Ed /402, 628 98. Which of the following regarding Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) is not true: A. Numerator includes total number of female deaths within 42 days of delivery B. Denominator includes still births and abortions C. It is expressed as a rate and not ratio D. It is expressed per 1000 Answer is B (Denominator includes still births and abortions): Park 20th Ed / 479 99. Which of the following methods for assessment of female fertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict the timing of ovulation A. Basal Body Temperature (BBT) B. Fern Test C. Spinnbarkeit phenomenon D. Hormonal study Answer is D (Hormonal study) : Clinical GynaecologicalEndocrinology and Infertility by Speroff 7th /1036 100. Increased Nuchal Translucency at 14 weeks gestation is seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Hydrocephalus D. Skeletal Dysplasia Answer is B (Down's syndrome) : Ref : William's Obstetrics 23rd /295, 351; Donald School Textbook of Ultrasound in Obstetics & Gynecology 2nd/183, 184; Ultrasound in Obstetrics & Gynaecology by Merz and Bohimann 2nd/11 101. Which of the following is not a prodrug? a) Quinapril b) Fosinopril c) Benzopril d) Lisinopril Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lisinopril 102. In congestive cardiac failure all are used except a) Spironlactone b) Nitrates c) Nesiritide d) Trimetazidine Ans. is'd' i.e., Trimetazidine [Ref: Harrison 17th/e p. table (227.4)] 103. All are true about OPV except a) It is a killed vaccine b) Stored at subzero temperature c) Induces intestinal & humoral immunity both d) Residual neurovirulence is a problem

Ans. is 'a' i.e. It is a killed vaccine [Ref: Park20/e, p 180-182] 105. Cranial nerve not carrying parasympathetic fibres a) Fourth b) Seventh c) Third d) Ninth Ans. is 'a' i.e. Fourth [Ref: Moore's Clinical Anatomy 5th /e, p 1124-1129, 1137; Gray's Anatomy 40th /e, p 230-233, 401, 666; Snell's Anatomy 6/e, p 706-707; BDC 4th /e, Vol 3, p 334-335] 101. Bone blending is a technique employed for: A. Transplanting cortical bone B. Transplanting cancellous bone C. Transplanting a mix of cancellous bone and hydroxyapatite crystals D. Transplanting resorbable hydroxyapatite crystals only Ans. A [Ref. Carranza 9th Ed Pg 816, 817 and 10th ed Pg. 976 979] 102. Supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time? A. Plaque mass decreases B. Plaque microflora becomes more gram positive C. Plaque microflora becomes more gram negative D. Plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal [Ans. (c)] [Ref. Carranza 8th Ed/89 & 9th Ed/101] 103. Which is characterstic of supragingival plaque and not of subgingival plaque in humans? A. Motile bacteria are predominant B. Spirochetes are evident microscopically C. Gram negative bacteria are predominant D. Bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar composition [Ans (D)] [Ref. Carranza 8th Ed/85 & 9th Ed/98] 104. Delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal disease because they often have? A. IgG antibody reactive with plaque bacterial antigens B. T- Lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens C. Soluble immune complexes with involved gingival tissues D. All of the above [Ans. (B)] [Ref. Carranza 8th Ed/118 & 10th Ed/222] 105. Which of the following is most useful in differentiating an acute periodontal abscess from peripheral abscess? A. Type of exudates B. Nature of swelling C. Intensity of pain D. Result of periodontal probing [Ans. (D)] [Ref. Carranza 8th Ed Pg 630 & Ed Pg 557] 106. The following plaque index divides each tooth surface into nine areas? A. Patient hygiene performance index B. Plaque index by silness and loe C. Modified navy plaque index D. Glass criteria for scoring debris [Ans. (c)] [Ref: Carranza 8th Ed/69, Soben Peter 3rd ed/144] 107. In gingivitis the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with the increased number of: A. Fibroblasts B. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes D. Plasma cells Ans. D Plasma cells (Ref: Carranza 8th Ed/Pg-219, 222, and 9th Ed/Pg 128, 129, 130, 264, 266 & 10th Ed Pg 224, 225) 108. Histological examination of the tissues in desquamative gingivitis would reveal? A. Hyperkeratosis B. Elongation of rete pegs C. Loss of basement membrane D. No inflammatory response

[Ans. (C)] [REF : Colour Guide Oral Pathology R. A. Cawson/E.W. Odell] 109. A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the periodontal ligament, is a. Lysozyme b. Peroxidase c. Collagenase d. Hyaluronidase [Ans (d) Ref:-Carranza 8th ed. Pg 303 & 10th Ed Pg 233] 110. Teeth that are least affected by periodontal diseases are: A. Lower first molars and upper anteriors B. Lower premolars and upper canines C. Lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars D. Lower centrals, laterals and upper molars Ans. B: Lower premolars and upper canines (Ref; Carranza 8th Ed/Pg-77-79 & 10th Ed Pg 96, 97, 120, 121) 111. The sulcular epithelium acts as a semi permeable membrane through which a. Bacterial products pass in to the gingival b. Fluids from the gingiva seeps in to the sulcus c. Both of the above. d. None of the above. [Ans. (c) Carranza 8th ed. Pg. 19 & 10th Ed Pg 52, 53, 59, 347]

A) B) C) D) : AHEAD Test and Discussions - AIPG 2011

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A) B) C) D) : AHEAD Test and Discussions - AIPG 2011

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

C. Bence Jones proteins

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

D. Long buccal nerve

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

D. All of the above

C. Normal frenum attachement

D. Use of dental floss

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

B. Non-keratimzed D. Resistant to inflammatory changes

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

d. ventral spinothalamic tract

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIPG 2011

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