the asthenosphere is,a pliable region in the mantle the majority of earthquakes and volcanoes occur,along tectonic plate

boundaries a ______ is not one of the three types of boundaries between lithosperic plates,mantle fault FASLE: tectonic plates are composed of crust and core,... tectonic plates move apart in opposite directions at a,divergent plate boundary tectonic plates move in opposite but parallel directions along a fault at a,transform fault the energy sources primarily responsible for earth's external geological processes are,energy from the sun and gravity an earthquake is most directly caused by,the creation of a fault or shirting along an existing fault lava is an example of _____ rock,igneous the change of rocks from one type to another is known as,the rock cycle which of the following does not belong: basalt, granite, sandstone, volcanic rocks, pumice,sandstone what rock is likely to be formed from compacted shells and skeletons?,limestone lignite and bituminous coal are _________ rocks,sedimentary nonmetallic mineral resources includes all of the following except,iron reserves are _____ resources,identified and profitably extractable compared to subsurface mining, surface mining,disturbs more land waste soil and rock removed during surface mining is called,spoil the fraction of the ore containing waste materials is the,gangue environmental effects associated with smelting of ore minerals does not include,abandoned cyanide-laden holding ponds that leak when a resource has been economically depleted we can,all of these- recycling or reuse, cut down unnecessary wastes, find a substitute, do without depleation time is the time it takes to use up about ___% of the mineral reserves at a given rate,80 a depletion curve is typically used to,project the depletion time for a resource FALSE: recycling, reusing, and reducing composition cause a depletion curve to peak sooner and higher,... according to some analysts, mining of low-grade ores may be limited by,all of these- increased costs, availability of fresh water, land reclamation costs, environmental impact of pollution advantages of using microorganisms does not include,time to remove minerals high-strength plastics and composite materials strenghtened by carbon and glass fibers are advantageous because they are,all of these- stronger than metal, use less energy, easily molded and dont need painting

recycling aluminum cans and scrap produces __% less energy than mining and processing aluminum ore,95 smelting,is not a process used to break down rocks and minerals mineral resources,includes the other terms: nonmetallic mineral resources, energy resources, metallic mineral resources acid mine drainage,may contaminate groundwater melting and cooling transforms,metamorphic rock into igneous rock heat and pressure converts,A and B- sedimentary into metamorphic, and igneous into metamorphic the movement of lithospheric plates is significant because it,predicts where volcanoes and earthquakes are likely to occur Solid waste Any unwanted or discarded material we produce that is not a liquid or a gas

Hazardous or toxic waste Waste that threatens human health or the environment because it is toxic, chemically active, corrosive, or flammable Municipal solid waste (MSW) Waste produced directly by homes and workplaces

Industrial solid waste Waste produced indirectly by mines, factories, refineries, food growers, and businesses that supply people with goods and services Electronic waste (e-waste) devices Consists of discarded TVs, cell phones, computers, electronic toys, and other electronic

Waste management- high waste approach environmental harm

Attempts to manage solid wastes in ways that reduce the

Waste reduction- low waste approach Views solid waste as potential resources that we should not have produced in the first place or that we should be reusing, recycling, or composting Integrated waste management A variety of strategies for both waste reduction and waste management to deal with the solid wastes we produce Garbologists Modern versions of archaeologists who train their students by having them sort, weigh, and itemize people's trash and by boring holes in garbage dumps and analyzing what they find Refuse Escape from affluenza by refusing to buy items that we don't really need Reduce Consume less and live a simpler and less stressful life by practicing voluntary simplicity Reuse Rely more on items that can be used over and over instead of on throwaway items Repurpose Use something for another purpose instead of throwing it away

Recycle Separate and recycle paper, glass, cans, plastics, metal, and other items and buy products made from recycled materials Ecoindustrial revolution Includes redesigning manufacturing processes to produce less waste and pollution

Fee-per-bag waste collection A system that charges consumers for the amount of waste they throw away but provide free pickup of recyclable items Cradle to grave responsibility A proposed law that requires companies to take back consumer products such as electronic equipment, appliances, and motor vehicles Secondary recycling When materials are converted into different products

Pre-consumer or internal waste Waste generated in a manufacturing process that can be recycled Post-consumer waste Waste generated by consumer use of products

Materials-recovery facilities (MRF's) Machines or workers separate the mixed waste to recover valuable materials for sale to manufacturers as raw materials. The remaining paper, plastics, and other combustible waste are recycled or burned to produce steam or electricity to run the recovery plant or to sell to nearby industries or homes. Source separation Separating trash into recyclable categories that can be collected and sold to scrap dealers, compost plants, and manufacturers. Pay-as-you-throw (PAUT) waste collection A system that charges households and businesses for the amount of mixed waste picked up but does not charge for pickup of materials separated for recycling Composting A simple process in which we copy nature to recycle some of the yard trimmings, food scraps, and other biodegradable organic wastes we produce Bioplastic Biodegradable and recyclable plastic containers Used by cities that make money recycling and tend to have a higher recycling rate

Single-pickup system Open dumps

are essentially fields or holes in the ground where garbage is deposited and sometimes covered with soil

Sanitary landfills Disposal sites for non-hazardous solid waste that is spread in layers and compacted to the smallest practical volume. The sites are typically designed with floors made of materials to treat seeping liquids and are covered by soil as the wastes are compacted and deposited into the landfill. Hazardous wastes Leachate waste materials that are very harmful to human health or poisonous to living organisms

a polluted liquid Requires testing and management of toxic and hazardous

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) substances; cradel to the grave

Superfund the federal government's program to locate and investigate and clean up the worst uncontrolled and abandoned toxic waste sites nationawide Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA) goal is rapid containment, clean up or remediation of abandonded toxic waste sites 1984, modified by superfund;

Dioxins Any of several toxic hydrocarbons that occur as impurities in petroleum-derived herbicides, disinfectants, and other products. Brownfields Defunct, derelict, or abandoned commercial or industrial sites; many have toxic wastes

Bioremediation the act of treating waste or pollutants by the use of microorganisms (as bacteria) that can break down the undesirable substances Phytoremediation An emerging nondestructive technology that seeks to cheaply reclaim contaminated areas by taking advantage of the remarkable ability of some plant species to extract heavy metals and other pollutants from the soil and to concentrate them in easily harvested portions of the plant. Incineration Plasma torch The burning of solid waste used to detoxify hazardous wastes by incinerating them at very high temperatures

Surface impoundments Excavated depressions suc as ponds, pits, or lagoons into which liquid hazardous wastes are drained and stored. Hazardous waste landfills buried Mercury Where liquid and solid hazardous wastes are put into drums or other containers and are

A gas released from landfills and has serious health effects on humans

NIMBY Someone who objects to siting waste in their own neighborhood but does not object to it being sited elsewhere (not in my backyard) NIABY Someone who objects to siting waste in any landfill, (not in anybody's backyard. NOPE "not on planet earth" Environmental justice movement A movement focused on exposing and fighting against racial and class inequalityies in the presence of pollution Environmental justice Civil rights and enviormental protection for a safe, healthy, life giving environment for all Basel convention developing countries Outlawed all transfers of hazardous wastes (including e-wastes) from industrial countries to

Persistent organic pollutants long times

chemical compounds that persist in the environment and retain biological activity for

Dirty dozen list of politicians published by the League of Conservation Voters who have poor environmental records. In the 1970s, the League managed to get 7 of 12 politicians on its list voted out of office during the uproar over the burning of the Cuyahoga River Precautionary principle A guiding principle in making decisions about the environment, cautioning to consider carefully the potential consequences of actions Primary or closed loop recycling Materials are recycled into new products of the same type Deep well disposal Deep well disposal is a liquid waste disposal technology. This alternative uses injection wells to place treated or untreated liquid waste into geologic formations that have no potential to allow migration of contaminants into potential potable water aquifers. Cyclodextrin A chemical commonly used in agriculture and environmental engineering

Waste to energy incinerator One of the EPA's many approaches to solve waste management. It burns solid waste at extremely high temperatures. The heat is then captured and used as energy. a transmissible disease is least likely to be caused by - a hazardous chemical mumps - is not one of the four most deadly infectious diseases bacteria is not a _-strategist - k increased amount of ultraviolet light because of thinning ozone layer is - least responsible for the rise of bacterial diseases once controlled by antibiotics tuberculosis is caused by - bacteria vaccines can help prevent all of the following except - AIDS malaria is caused by - plasmodium parasites malaria is spread by - anopheles mosquitoes blindness is not a symptom of - malaria incidence of malaria has increased since 1970 because - all of these- organisms develop resistance to drugs, vectors develop resistance. reservoirs from hydropower have increased hepatitis b is caused by - viruses since 1900, the incidences of infectious diseases and the death rates from such diseases have - been greatly reduced the world's top five deadliest diseases correctly arranged in order from most to least deadly are - influenza, HIV, malaria, diarrhea, tuberculosis according to a 2000 study, at least ___ of all antibiotics used to treat humans are prescribed unnecessarily - one half the west nile virus is transmitted to humans by - mosquitoes about ___ people in the world are at risk from malaria - 1 in 5 the lyme disease bacterium is passed onto humans directly from - ticks hazardous chemicals include - all of these- acides, asphyxiants, allergens, strong bases PCBs, methyl mercury and arsenic are - examples of neurotoxins DDT, PCBs, atrazine, bisphenol-A, and phthalates are all examples of - hormonally active agents mutagens directly change molecules of - DNA teratogens - cause birth defects radiation, viruses, and chemicals can all cause - birth defects carcinogens cause - cancer

the system responsible for defense against disease and harmful substances is the - immune system synthetic chemicals, ionizing radiation, and viruses like HIV can - weaken the immune system (All of these) the uterus is not a part of the - nervous system specialized cells, tissues, and organz which secrete hormones are part of the - endocrine system the system responsible for growth, reproductive development, and much of our behavior is the - endoctrine system the endocrine system is least likely to be disrupted by the intake of - vitamin e the intake of synthetic mimics can severely disrupt the - endocrine system you have been studying a large lake ecosystem. you learn that PCBs have been dumped into the water. you predict that the most affected populationw ould be the - predatory birds dose - the amount of substance a person ingests, inhales, or absorbs through the skin biomagnification - relates to the amount of potentially toxic subtance as it passes through food chains and webs response - the type and amount of health damage that occurs from exposure to a chemical or other agent bioaccumulation - relates to the fact that some molecules are absorbed and stored in specific organs or tissues at higher than normal levels persistence - the term that is used to refer to the chemicals that are resistant to breakdown and have long-lasting harmful effects on the health of wildlife and people children have ___ times the exposure risk of adults to cancer-causing chemicals - 10 of the 85000 registered synthetic chemicals in commercial use, only ____ have been adequately tested - 2% in which particular region of the world are scientists and health officials especially pushing for much greater emphasis on pollution prevention? - european union some individuals can be responsive and highly susceptible to a number of different toxins. this is referred to as - multiple chemical sensitivity a person receiving background radiation from a low-level radioactive dump site for a lifetime has experienced - a chronic exposure a person flying over the Chernobyl site two days after the explosion most probably experienced _____ to radioactive substances - an acute exposure a person experiencing dizziness after using a strong household cleared is showing - an acute effect a person experiencing liver damage after a lifetime of alcohol abuse is showing - a chronic effect a person with kidney damage after an acute exposure to a toxic chemical is experiencing - an acute effect TRUE STATEMENT- some chemicals, whether synthetic or natural, are safe and others are deadly - ...

which of the following shortens the average life span in the US by 7.5 years? - born male pesticides are considered by EPA science advisors to be - medium-risk ecological problems EPA science advisors consider oil spills and thermal pollution to be - low-risk ecological problems EPA science advisors consider indoor and outdoor air pollution to be - high-risk health problems the major cause of a reduced human life span today is - poverty susceptibility to environmental stresses is increased in people already affected by - all of these- poverty, disease, malnutrition regular sunbathing - is the strategy which would contribute least to longer lifespans in developing countries you are most likely to fear health threats from - unsanitary drinking water floods, landslides, and hurricanes - can spread disease causing organisms (all of these) lyme disease is not - a viral disease in 1918 the highly potent virus that spread rapidly around the globe was - the spanish flu SARS virus first appeared in humans in what country? - China In a study that began in 1985, it was found that male alligators were becoming feminized in which body of water? - lake apopka mutagens - cause mutations cholera - not a harmful inheritable mutation in humans two lines of defense in the human bodys immune system are - antibodies and cellular defenses you would predict that a hormone disrupter would most effect a - tertiary consumer

1: Examples of nonmetallic mineral resources include all of the following except: a. graphite. b. lead. c. gypsum. d. kaolinite. Your Answer: lead.

2: What is the term used to describe the degree to which a mineral resource is concentrated above its average concentration in the Earth's crust? a. enrichment factor b. conglomeration factor c. devaluation factor d. gradation factor Your Answer: enrichment factor

3: Ore minerals are composed of what? a. salts b. nonmetals c. metals d. petroleum Your Answer: metals

4: What distinguishes a mineral reserve from a mineral resource? a. existing technology b. economic feasibility c. location d. politics Your Answer: economic feasibility

5: Kimberlite pipes are associated with which valuable mineral resource? a. diamonds b. gold c. silver d. petroleum Your Answer: diamonds

6: Which type of mineral resource is associated with layered intrusions? a. diamonds b. petroleum c. metallic minerals d. nonmetallic minerals Your Answer: metallic minerals

7: What is a common source of very large crystals of quartz and feldspar? a. pegmatites b. kimberlites c. layered intrusions d. hydrothermal deposits Your Answer: pegmatites

8: Hydrothermal deposits typically contain valuable minerals in what form? a. oxides b. sulfides c. phosphates d. sulfates Your Answer: sulfides

9: Copper is commonly produced by what type of geological deposit? a. layered intrusion b. kimberlite c. pegmatite d. massive sulfide deposit Your Answer: massive sulfide deposit

10: Large volumes of groundwater are usually found in rocks with a large amount of? a. compaction b. crystallinity c. porosity d. cementation Your Answer: porosity

11: Mineral resources produced by regional metamorphism include all of the following except: a. shale. b. marble. c. asbestos . d. slate . Your Answer: shale.

12: What is the process that produces relatively pure deposits of gravel, sand and clay? a. hydrothermal activity b. hydraulic sorting c. crystal settling d. regional metamorphism Your Answer: hydraulic sorting

13: Which valuable mineral is commonly found as a placer deposit?

a. limestone b. rock salt c. gold d. quartz Your Answer: gold

14: Bauxite is the source for which valuable metal? a. aluminum b. zinc c. iron d. nickel Your Answer: aluminum

15: Bricks are commonly produced from which type of deposit? a. kimberlite pipe b. placer c. laterite d. pegmatite Your Answer: laterite

16: "Iron hat" is often a good indicator of which type of buried mineral deposit? a. copper oxide b. copper sulfide c. copper carbonate d. copper sulfate Your Answer: copper sulfide

17: Banded iron formation is mined to produce which valuable commodity? a. lead batteries b. aluminum c. steel d. gold Your Answer: steel

18: Economically valuable deposits of marine evaporites include all the following except: a. gypsum. b. halite. c. potassium chloride . d. copper sulfide. Your Answer: copper sulfide.

19: Economically valuable deposits of phosphorite are composed of which key mineral?

a. gypsum b. calcite c. apatite d. chlorite Your Answer: apatite

20: Adverse impacts of mining on the environment include all of the following except? a. acid drainage b. saltwater intrusion c. heavy metal pollution d. land subsidence and collapse Your Answer: saltwater intrusion

1: Freshwater is an integral part of the hydrologic cycle. How is it produced? a. distillation b. evaporation c. condensation d. transpiration Your Answer: evaporation 2: Which is the term for water that is intermediate in salinity between freshwater and seawater? a. hard water b. soft water c. brackish water d. connate water Your Answer: brackish water 3: What is the most abundant source of freshwater on Earth? a. the oceans b. glacial ice c. streams and lakes d. groundwater Your Answer: glacial ice 4: What is the single greatest use of freshwater in the United States? a. electrical power generation b. irrigation c. recreation d. public water supply Your Answer: electrical power generation 5: Where does the supply of freshwater mainly come from in the United States? a. glacial ice b. ocean water

c. groundwater d. surface water Your Answer: surface water 6: Options for dealing with a water shortage include which of the following? a. building reservoirs b. transporting water via pipelines and aquaducts c. conservation d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 7: What is a key problem associated with electrical power generation? a. excessive water consumption b. excessive chemical pollution c. excessive thermal pollution d. none of the above Your Answer: excessive thermal pollution 8: Advantages of creating reservoirs include all of the following except: a. provides source of fresh water. b. decreases amount of evaporative losses. c. better flood control. d. provides means of generating electricity. Your Answer: decreases amount of evaporative losses. 9: All of the following are factors that determine whether groundwater is a viable source except: a. rate of evaporative losses. b. quality of the water. c. quantity of water present. d. ease at which water can be withdrawn. Your Answer: rate of evaporative losses. 10: Large volumes of groundwater are usually found in rocks with a large amount of? a. compaction b. crystallinity c. porosity d. cementation Your Answer: porosity 11: All of the following make good aquifers except: a. sandstone. b. gravel. c. sand. d. shale. Your Answer: shale.

12: What is the term for a type of rock with low hydraulic conductivity? a. aquifer b. aquitude c. aquiclude d. aquitard Your Answer: aquitard 13: Where is the water level in a well drilled into a confined aquifer? a. above the water table b. below the water table c. at the same level as the water table d. no way to predict Your Answer: above the water table 14: Groundwater velocity is controlled by all of the following except: a. the steepness of the hydraulic gradient. b. the amount of organic matter present in the aquifer. c. porosity of the aquifer. d. permeability of the aquifer. Your Answer: the amount of organic matter present in the aquifer. 15: All of the following are adverse consequences of groundwater overuse except: a. increased well costs. b. reduced stream and spring flow. c. saltwater intrusion. d. increased flooding on streams. Your Answer: increased flooding on streams. 16: Which of the following is true about land subsidence caused by overuse of groundwater? a. it is reversible b. aquitards usually compact less than aquifers c. aquifers usually compact less than aquitards d. all of the above Your Answer: aquifers usually compact less than aquitards 17: All of the following are advantages of using groundwater as a water-supply source except: a. involves far less treatment than surface water. b. domestic wells never run dry . c. wells are relatively inexpensive to install and maintain. d. requires fewer infrastructures than surface water. Your Answer: domestic wells never run dry . 18: Limitations of desalination as an alternative water-supply source include all of the following except: a. higher energy costs. b. creates a wastewater disposal problem. c. seawater is not abundant on planet Earth .

d. reverse osmosis is not very cost-effective. Your Answer: seawater is not abundant on planet Earth . 19: What is the term for recycled wastewater that has never come in contact with human waste? a. graywater b. greenwater c. whitewater d. bluewater Your Answer: graywater 20: Alternative sources of water include which of the following? a. domestic recycling b. aquifer storage and recovery c. rainwater harvesting d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above

1: Shorelines shift position in response to: a. changes in global sea level b. subsidence of the ground c. unwise construction practices d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 2: Ocean tides are caused by: a. gravitational interaction between Earth and Moon b. large storms in the ocean c. ocean currents d. volcanic eruptions Your Answer: gravitational interaction between Earth and Moon 3: Ocean currents are caused by all of the following except: a. tidal fluctuations b. surface winds c. underwater landslides d. density contrasts in seawater Your Answer: underwater landslides 4: What is meant by the term "tidal range"? a. difference in height between high and low tide b. length of time required for tides to change c. length of time high tide is maintained d. length of time low tide is maintained Your Answer: difference in height between high and low tide

5: What is meant by the term "wave base"? a. height of waves at base level b. depth below which no wave motion occurs c. wave length at which waves break d. wave height when breaking Your Answer: depth below which no wave motion occurs 6: Tsunamis may be generated by all of the following except: a. earthquakes b. volcanic eruptions c. landslides d. meteorite impacts Your Answer: meteorite impacts 7: What is the name for the process by which waves are bent as they enter shallow water? a. diffraction b. refraction c. contraction d. distraction Your Answer: refraction 8: What is the process by which sand in the surf zone is shifted in a direction parallel to the shoreline? a. tidal current drift b. subaqueous drift c. refractile drift d. longshore drift Your Answer: longshore drift 9: Over time, a shoreline usually becomes: a. more irregular b. straighter c. volcanic d. tropical Your Answer: straighter 10: The term barrier island is derived from the fact that: a. they protect the coastline from strong storms b. they block lava during volcanic eruptions c. they prevent tidal currents from reaching the shoreline d. they are barriers to animal migration Your Answer: they protect the coastline from strong storms 11: Hurricanes are a coastal hazard for all of the following reasons except: a. strong dangerous winds b. heavy rainfall and flooding c. storm surge increases flooding and wave erosion

d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 12: How strong (in mph) are winds in a category 5 hurricane?: a. > 155 b. > 131 c. > 11 d. > 96 Your Answer: > 155 13: Storm surges are caused by: a. strong tidal current b. strong winds c. ocean currents d. differences in seawater density Your Answer: strong winds 14: The threat from a tsunami may be mitigated by all of the following except: a. beach nourishment b. early warning system c. engineering controls d. education Your Answer: beach nourishment 15: Rip currents are caused by large volumes of backwash associated with: a. tsunamis b. longshore drift c. tidal currents d. heavy surf Your Answer: heavy surf 16: Which of the following is a possible adverse effect of global warming on the coastal environment? a. decreased shoreline retreat b. decreased frequency of storms c. increased coastal flooding caused by sea level rise d. decreased frequency of storms Your Answer: increased coastal flooding caused by sea level rise 17: Increased coastal erosion due to disrupted sediment supply may result from all of the following except: a. removal of seawalls and jetties b. dredging c. construction of levees d. dam construction Your Answer: removal of seawalls and jetties

18: Increased coastal erosion due to disrupted longshore drift may result from construction of all of the following except: a. groins b. dams c. jetties d. breakwaters Your Answer: dams 19: What kind of structures are often constructed to prevent longshore drift from clogging channels and inlets with sediment? a. groins b. jetties c. breakwaters d. seawalls Your Answer: jetties 20: Drawbacks to beach nourishment as a solution to coastal erosion include all of the following except: a. expensive b. does not address cause of coastal erosion c. does not disrupt longshore drift d. suitable sand supply may not be available Your Answer: does not disrupt longshore drift

1: Why have people historically built settlements near rivers and streams? a. streams are a source of water for survival b. streams are a source of food for survival c. streams are a medium for transportation d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 2: What is the term for the sinuous pathway through which a stream flows? a. floodplain b. channel c. wetland d. lake Your Answer: channel 3: The term "discharge" refers to: a. the volume of water flowing through the channel per unit b. the speed of water flowing through a channel c. the weight of water flowing through a channel d. the amount of sediments carried by a stream channel Your Answer: the volume of water flowing through the channel per unit 4: What is meant by the "lag-time" on a stream hydrograph?

a. time between rain events b. time between floods c. time between rain event and flood peak d. time between flood peak and the next rain event Your Answer: time between rain event and flood peak 5: What is meant by the term "baseflow"? a. the level of flow during a flood b. the level of flow on a floodplain c. the level of flow when fed by groundwater alone d. the speed of water flowing along the base of a channel Your Answer: the level of flow when fed by groundwater alone 6: What is the term for a topographic high separating two drainage basins? a. headwaters b. mouth c. delta d. divide Your Answer: divide 7: What is another term for "drainage basin?" a. base level b. watershed c. floodplain d. pothole Your Answer: watershed 8: What is the term for the land area that collects water for an individual stream? a. continental divide b. hydrograph c. drainage basin d. recurrence interval Your Answer: drainage basin 9: As the steepness of a stream channel increases, the water velocity will: a. increase b. decrease c. stays the same d. either increase or decrease Your Answer: increase 10: What is the term for the lowest level to which a stream can erode? a. base flow b. floodplain c. base level d. base discharge

Your Answer: base level 11: All of the following are types of load except: a. bedload b. suspended load c. ionized load d. dissolved load Your Answer: ionized load 12: What is the term for the height at which a stream begins to overflow its banks? a. base flow b. base level c. recurrence interval d. flood stage Your Answer: flood stage 13: How is the percent probability calculated from the recurrence interval (RI)? a. 10/RI b. 1/RI c. 10 x RI d. 1 x RI Your Answer: 1/RI 14: Flooding can be caused by all of the following except: a. rapid seasonal snow melt b. large amounts of freezing water c. volcanic ash falls in glacial areas d. storm surges in coastal areas Your Answer: large amounts of freezing water 15: Factors controlling the nature and extent of flooding caused by heavy rainfall events include all of the following except: a. intensity andduration of rainfall b. ground conditions c. amount of fog present d. size of area over which rain falls Your Answer: amount of fog present 16: Which of the following does not cause flash flooding? a. floodplain is large in relation in stream size b. lag time is short c. channels are relatively small d. amount of rainfall is large in relation to stream capacity Your Answer: floodplain is large in relation in stream size 17: Upstream floods are particularly dangerous because:

a. lag time is short b. stream gradient is steep c. floodplains are relatively narrow d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 18: In terms of flooding, removal of vegetation impacts all of the following except: a. increases amount of overland flow b. decreases rate of infiltration c. decreases amount of sediment pollution d. increases soil erosion and sedimentation Your Answer: decreases amount of sediment pollution 19: Effects of urbanization that increase the risk of flooding include all of the following except: a. destruction of wetlands b. construction of bridges and culverts c. paving surfaces with impermeable materials d. increasing lag time caused by sewers Your Answer: increasing lag time caused by sewers 20: All of the following are effective for reducing flood hazards except: a. construction of dams b. destruction of wetlands c. construction of artificial levees d. channelization Your Answer: destruction of wetlands 1: The most visually striking evidence of global warming is: a. the increased precipitation along the Gulf coast states b. highly varying temperature fluctuations felt during the winter months c. rapid melting of glacial ice on nearly every continent d. all of the above Your Answer: rapid melting of glacial ice on nearly every continent 2: The major reason(s) for the collapse of the great Mayan civilization with a population of millions in 800 AD to about 30,000 by the times Spanish explorers arrived in Mexico were attributed to a. deforestation b. soil loss c. other land-use issues d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 3: We know this (or these) for sure: a. the flooding, thunderstorms and hurricanes have increased over the past 100 years b. the amount of water vapor retained in the atmosphere has increased c. outpouring of greenhouse gases since the industrial revolution is causing the planet to retain more heat

d. all of the above Your Answer: outpouring of greenhouse gases since the industrial revolution is causing the planet to retain more heat 4: Climate represents a. represents the long-term average weather and its statistical variation for a given region b. weather averaged over a year c. it is a measure of variations in the amount of precipitation d. none of the above Your Answer: represents the long-term average weather and its statistical variation for a given region 5: Climate forcing refers to a. the forces that act on the climate b. the forces that affect the weather c. processes that disrupt Earth's heat balance forcing the climate to change d. none of the above Your Answer: processes that disrupt Earth's heat balance forcing the climate to change 6: Greenhouse effect refers to a. ability of atmosphere to retain water vapor b. ability of certain atmospheric gases to trap heat and keep the planet relatively warm c. ability of cloud to scatter electromagnetic radiation d. none of the above Your Answer: ability of certain atmospheric gases to trap heat and keep the planet relatively warm 7: Greenhouse effect is caused by natural affects and anthropogenic effects. If there is no natural greenhouse effect, the Earth's average surface temperature would be around __________?C a. 0 b. 32 c. 14 d. -18 Your Answer: 0 8: One of the orbital parameters in Milankovitch cycles is eccentricity. Changes in eccentricity affects a. the shape of the elliptical orbit b. the difference in solar heating between summer and winter c. the maximum and minimum distance distances to the Sun d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 9: The axial tilt refers to how the inclination of Earth's axis varies between ______ and _______ over a 41,000 year period a. 20.0?; 30.0? b. 22.1?; 24.5? c. 25.0?; 35.0? d. none of the above Your Answer: 22.1?; 24.5?

10: A positive climate feedback a. example is thawing of permanently frozen ground b. is a process that increases or amplifies the system's response to a change in the heat balance c. intensifies Earth's current warming trend that makes global warming a potentially dangerous problem d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 11: Carbon sequestration is a. removal of carbon from the ocean and store it in the land b. removal of carbon from underground (such as hydrocarbon deposit) and storing in Earth's surface c. removal of carbon from the surface environment and placing it in storage d. none of the above Your Answer: removal of carbon from the surface environment and placing it in storage 12: A comparison of the trapping of heat by CO2 and CH4 is that a. CH4 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CO2 b. CO2 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CH4 c. the same amount of heat is trapped by both CO2 and CH4 d. none of the above Your Answer: CH4 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CO2 13: A system of ocean currents that distributes both heat and freshwater around the planet is called a. Gulf stream b. thermohaline circulation c. hydrological cycles d. none of the above Your Answer: thermohaline circulation 14: El Ni?o a. occurs when trade winds slacken b. occurs every 3-5 years and last for 9-12 months c. produce dry conditions in the western Pacific, but commonly bring heavy rains and destructive flooding to parts of coastal North and South America d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 15: The temperature swing between the Medieval Warm Period and the Little Ice Age was only ______?F, which enough to drive the Vikings from Greenland and bring famine to civilized Europe a. 3 b. 5 c. 1.7 d. 2.3 Your Answer: 2.3

16: Over the past 800,000 years, the CO2 concentration in the atmosphere (based on Dome core project in Antarctica) ranged between ______ and ______ ppm a. 180; 375 b. 100; 340 c. 350; 700 d. 180; 280 Your Answer: 180; 280 17: High precipitation areas are where humid air mass ________ and arid zones are found where dry air ______ a. rises; descends b. descends; rises c. rises; rises d. descends; descends Your Answer: rises; descends 18: The effect(s) of global warming is (are) a. shifting of climatic zones from the equator toward Earth's polar regions b. expansion of circulating cells located on both sides of the equator by about 110 km c. changes in Earth's biomes d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above 19: Loss of sea ice by melting in the Arctic Ocean a. will result in sea-level rise b. may result in positive feedback that amplifies global warming c. will result in cooler temperature in the Arctic d. none of the above Your Answer: may result in positive feedback that amplifies global warming 20: Scientists predict the pH of seawater to decrease to _____, representing a (n) _____% increase in acidity over the record 2007 conditions a. 7.96; 40 b. 7.99; 46 c. 7.89; 64 d. 7.8; 80 Your Answer: 7.8; 80 1: In what year was the Environmental Protection Agency first established? a. 1810 b. 1933 c. 1945 d. 1970 Your Answer: 1970 2: Which piece of federal legislation first eliminated the discharge of raw sewage into the nation's waterways? a. 1970 Clean Air Act

b. 1972 Water Pollution Control Act c. 1976 Resource Conservation and Recovery Act d. 1980 Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act Your Answer: 1972 Water Pollution Control Act 3: What is meant by the term "contamination"? a. the concentration of a toxic substance is above natural levels b. the concentration of a toxic substance is not above natural levels c. the concentration of a toxic substance is harmful to humans d. the concentration of a toxic substance is harmful to all organisms Your Answer: the concentration of a toxic substance is above natural levels 4: Examples of nonpoint sources of pollution include all of the following except: a. agricultural fields b. pipe discharging waste from a factory c. parking lots d. golf courses Your Answer: pipe discharging waste from a factory 5: What is the single greatest source of solid waste? a. mining b. municipalities c. agriculture d. industry Your Answer: agriculture 6: Examples of hazardous household wastes include all the following except: a. PCBs b. batteries c. insecticides d. paint Your Answer: PCBs 7: What is the toxic substance contained by typical electronic waste? a. PCBs b. dioxin c. pesticide-like compounds d. heavy metals Your Answer: heavy metals 8: Strategies for disposing of hazardous liquid wastes include all of the following except: a. deep well injection b. secured landfill c. composting d. incineration Your Answer: composting

9: For what is a septic system used? a. treating hazardous waste from industrial sources b. treating wastewater from homes c. treating radioactive wastes from nuclear reactors d. collecting leachate from secured landfills Your Answer: treating wastewater from homes 10: What organism is used to treat municipal wastewater? a. aerobic bacteria b. green algae c. red algae d. freshwater fish Your Answer: aerobic bacteria 11: Pollutants derived from agriculture include all of the following except: a. pesticides b. PCBs c. animal waste d. sediments Your Answer: PCBs 12: What is an adverse effect of sediment pollution? a. it stimulates excessive growth of algae b. it stimulates excessive growth of bacteria c. reduced visibility is detrimental to fish because they can not see their prey d. it stimulates feeding by aquatic organisms Your Answer: reduced visibility is detrimental to fish because they can not see their prey 13: All of the following are examples of low-level radioactive waste except: a. contaminated reactor water b. spent fuel rods c. contaminated clothing d. contaminated cleaning equipment Your Answer: spent fuel rods 14: The unique problem associated with radioactive waste disposal is: a. toxicity to humans b. adverse impacts on ecosystems c. contamination of groundwater d. long life expectancy of waste Your Answer: long life expectancy of waste 15: Where is nuclear waste ultimately going to be stored in the U.S.? a. Chino, California b. Billings, Montana

c. Raleigh, North Carolina d. Yucca Mountain, Nevada Your Answer: Yucca Mountain, Nevada 16: What is the principal source of acid rain? a. burning high sulfur coal b. emissions of radioactive materials from nuclear power plants c. volcanic gases d. methane from oil refineries Your Answer: burning high sulfur coal 17: Adverse effects of acid rain include all of the following except: a. accelerated chemical weathering of building materials b. damage to forests and crops c. damage to septic systems d. damage to aquatic organisms Your Answer: damage to septic systems 18: What is a primary source of mercury fallout? a. testing of nuclear weapons b. no-till agriculture c. fossil fuel combustion d. launches of spacecraft Your Answer: fossil fuel combustion 19: Why is mercury particularly hazardous? a. it is highly radioactive b. it is increasing global warming c. it is increasing depletion of the ozone layer d. the concentration increases up the food chain Your Answer: the concentration increases up the food chain 20: What is the process that results in dangerous buildups of toxic radon gas? a. volcanism b. chemical weathering c. fossil fuel combustion d. erosion Your Answer: chemical weathering

1: All of the following are alternative energy sources except: a. nuclear b. natural gas c. wind d. tar sands Your Answer: natural gas

2: The U.S. and China currently rely on fossil fuels for how much of their energy needs? a. 25% b. 50% c. 66% d. 90% Your Answer: 90% 3: Which of the following is true about alternative energy sources? a. comparatively cheap b. intermittent in nature c. more energy intensive d. highly concentrated Your Answer: intermittent in nature 4: Synfuels are derived from which natural resource? a. coal b. uranium c. water d. solar power Your Answer: coal 5: Drawbacks to the use of coal-based synthetic fuels include all of the following except: a. it will significantly reduce the life expectancy of coal reserves b. it will increase environmentally problems already associated with the mining and burning of coal c. it will increase demand for conventional crude oil d. its production generates large amounts of carbon dioxide Your Answer: it will increase demand for conventional crude oil 6: Bitumen is a type of heavy crude found in which resource? a. anthracite b. coal gas c. tar sands d. lignite Your Answer: tar sands 7: Which of the following is true about tar sands? a. much is located near the surface and thus amenable to strip mining b. it is not currently used to produce synthetic crude c. the U.S. has the world's largest reserves d. it is less costly and labor intensive to produce than conventional crude Your Answer: much is located near the surface and thus amenable to strip mining 8: What is one of the principal drawbacks of oil shale as an alternative energy source? a. it can not be processed in situ b. it has low production costs

c. no oil shale reserves are found in the U.S. d. it expands upon heating creating a waste disposal problem Your Answer: it expands upon heating creating a waste disposal problem 9: What natural resource may ultimately limit the development of oil shale deposits in some places? a. wind b. water c. air d. soil Your Answer: water 10: Gas hydrates may worsen which global environmental problem we are already faced with? a. smog b. depletion of the ozone layer c. global warming d. groundwater depletion Your Answer: global warming 11: Advantages of ethanol over conventional use of gasoline include all of the following except: a. it is carbon-neutral b. it is renewable c. it can be mixed with gasoline to produce gasohol d. all things considered, it produces more energy than is consumed to make it Your Answer: all things considered, it produces more energy than is consumed to make it 12: Drawbacks to the use of biofuels include all of the following except: a. increased global warming b. increased world food prices can c. not be used for oxygenated gasoline d. increased use of farmland for fuel production Your Answer: not be used for oxygenated gasoline 13: Disadvantages in the use of hydropower include all of the following except: a. it blocks fish migration b. it impacts ecosystems through changes in stream flow c. it is nonrenewable d. significant political resistance Your Answer: it is nonrenewable 14: Which of the following is not true about nuclear power? a. it does not generate carbon dioxide b. it does not have a significant waste disposal problem c. it does not generate acid rain d. it does not generate particulate matter Your Answer: it does not have a significant waste disposal problem

15: What is the basic fuel supply used in fusion-type nuclear reactors? a. water b. carbon dioxide c. plutonium-239 d. uranium-238 Your Answer: water 16: Which of the following is not true about solar power? a. it can be used for passive heating b. it can be used for active heating c. it can be used to generate electricity d. it is nonrenewable Your Answer: it is nonrenewable 17: Advantages of wind power over solar power include all of the following except: a. it can generate electricity even at night b. it is more profitable at present c. it does not alter the landscape d. it can generate electricity even on cloudy days Your Answer: it does not alter the landscape 18: What is the source of heat in geothermal power? a. active heating driven by solar power b. radioactive elements inside the Earth c. coal burning d. a fusion-type reactor Your Answer: radioactive elements inside the Earth 19: Which of the following is true about tidal power? a. it can be used to generate electricity b. it produces considerable carbon dioxide c. it is nonrenewable d. it does not require a high tidal range Your Answer: it can be used to generate electricity 20: Which of the following are conservation measures for reducing energy demand? a. reduce temperature in home thermostats b. develop more efficient home appliances c. increased gas mileage standards for automobiles d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above

1: How efficient is a typical gasoline engine? a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 45% Your Answer: 25%

2: Where does the wasted energy go when energy is converted from one form to another? a. changes into heat b. changes into light c. changes into steam d. changes into nuclear radiation Your Answer: changes into heat

3: Examples of renewable resources include all of the following except: a. solar power. b. coal. c. wind power. d. water power. Your Answer: coal.

4: What is one of the primary advantages of oil over coal as an energy source? a. it is less expensive to produce b. it is easier to find c. it is lighter d. it is liquid Your Answer: it is easier to find

5: Coal is formed from? a. land plants b. marine algae c. diamonds d. dinosaurs Your Answer: land plants

6: Which type of coal has the highest energy content? a. bituminous b. sub-bituminous c. anthracite d. all of the above

Your Answer: anthracite

7: Adverse environmental impacts of coal mining include all of the following except: a. decreasing input of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. b. acid mine drainage. c. permanently altered streams and ecosystems. d. subsidence and collapse of the ground. Your Answer: decreasing input of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.

8: Petroleum is formed from? a. land plants b. marine algae c. diamonds d. dinosaurs Your Answer: marine algae

9: All of the following are required to form an oil reservoir except: a. source rock. b. reservoir rock. c. a "leaky" cap rock. d. petroleum trap. Your Answer: a "leaky" cap rock.

10: How are hidden traps of petroleum located? a. seismic exploration b. surface mapping of domes c. identifying domes using aircraft d. identifying domes using satellite imagery Your Answer: seismic exploration

11: How is petroleum refined? a. scintillation b. gasification c. refraction d. distillation Your Answer: distillation

12: What is the main advantage of light crude in comparison to heavy crude oil? a. light crude is more viscous b. more gasoline can be refined from a barrel of light crude c. a barrel of heavy crude costs more d. heavy crude has a higher recovery rate

Your Answer: more gasoline can be refined from a barrel of light crude

13: Adverse environmental impacts of oil and gas production include all of the following except: a. air pollution with carbon monoxide. b. damage to ecosystems caused by spills. c. damage to the ozone layer caused by oil spills. d. air pollution with nitrogen oxide. Your Answer: damage to the ozone layer caused by oil spills.

14: Who consumes the greatest amount of energy resources? a. developed countries with large populations b. undeveloped countries with large populations c. developed countries with small populations d. undeveloped countries with small populations Your Answer: developed countries with large populations

15: Which energy resource is used the most in the United States? a. gas b. oil c. coal d. solar power Your Answer: oil

16: Which resource is most commonly used to produce electricity in the United States? a. gas b. oil c. coal d. solar power Your Answer: coal

17: When did the peak in U.S. (domestic) oil production occur? a. 1956 b. 1970 c. 2000 d. it won't peak until 2020 Your Answer: 1970

18: According to "Hubbert's peak," when will world peak oil production occur? a. 1956 b. 1970 c. 2000

d. it won't peak until 2020 Your Answer: 2000

19: Non-conventional oil sources include all of the following except: a. tar sands. b. biofuels. c. liquified natural gas. d. coal. Your Answer: liquified natural gas.

20: Which of the following are possible ways of extending the oil supply? a. increase use of electric and hybrid cars b. reduce demand through conservation c. increase energy efficiency d. all of the above Your Answer: all of the above