CHN

1. This STD is characterized by greenish yellow, frothy musty odorous vaginal discharge accompanied with vaginal itchiness and painful urination? a. Trichomoniasis b. Chancroid c. Moniliasis d. Chlamydia Ans. A. Trichomoniasis 2. DOTS is a comprehensive strategy to detect and cure TB. The primary element of DOTS is a. Health workers counsel and observe their patients swallow each anti-TB medication and monitor progress until cures b. Regular drug supply c. Political will in terms of manpower and funding d. Sputum microscopy services Ans. A. The main strategy of the NTP is Directly Observed Treatment, short course (DOTS). This is a comprehensive strategy to control TB which primary health services around the world are using in the detection and cure TB 3. What is the mode of transmission of Pulmonary Tuberculosis? a. Fecal-oral c. Airborne, droplet b. Direct contact d. Blood borne Ans. C. (Martinez, D. Intensive Final Coaching Primary Health Care, Legazpi City: A1 Review Center, 06, question 36) 4. Standard examination in detecting PTb: a. X-ray c. Ultrasound b. Sputum Exam d. Tuberculin Test Ans. B. 5. In Catergory II of the TB treatment regimen all are prescribed BUT one: a. Relapse case b. New pulmonary smear (+) cases c. Failure cases d. Other (smear +) Ans. B. Category I: Prescribed for a) new pulmonary smear (+) cases, b) new seriously ill pulmonary smear(-) cases with extensive parenchymal involvement and c.) new severely ill extrapulmonary TB cases; Category II: Prescribed for a.) failure cases, b) relapse cases; c) RAD (smear +), and OTHER (smear+); Category III Prescribed for a.) new smear (-) but with minimal pulmonary TB on radiography as confirmed by medical officer and b) new extrapulmonary TB (not serious). ( 6. Malaria can be prevented by the following EXCEPT: a. Avoiding outdoor night time activities b. Use of mosquito repellants c. Planting of herbal plants which can be mosquito repellants d. Spending leisure time in the forest Ans. D. Preventive activities against malaria include all but not limited to the following: 1. Avoid going outdoor between 9pm to 3 am , the peak biting hours of female anopheles mosquitoes

2. Prophylaxis: taking chloroquine every week starting one to two weeks before traveling 3. Using mosquito net or curtain treatment by soaking the mosquito net in insecticidal solution and allow to dry before using 4. House spraying of insecticide inside the house 5. Wearing clothes that cover arms and legs at night 7. During this stage the H fever is said to cause severe abdominal pain, vomiting and frequent bleeding from GI tract: a. Invasive Stage c. Convalescent Stage b. Toxic stage d. Febrile Stage Ans. B. Toxic Stage A. Invasive stage or febrile stage starts abruptly as high fever, abdominal pain and headache; later flushing which maybe accompanied by vomiting and epistaxis; B. Toxic or hemorrhagic stage is the time where severe abdominal pain, vomiting and frequent bleeding from the GI is observed; C. Convalescent or recovery stage most of the vital signs are stable. 8. What is the etiologic agent of Diptheria? a. Klebs-Loffler bacillus b. Bordet Gengou Bacillus c. Vibrio El Tor d. Filterable virus Ans. A. Klebs-Loffler bacillus 9. An example of this route of transmission is the dust particles with infectious agent and residue of evaporated droplets that remain suspended in the air: a. Vectorborne transmission c. Contact transmission b. Airborne transmission d. Droplet transmission Ans. Ans. B. Airborne transmission A. Vectorborne transmission examples are flies, ticks, mosquitoes and flies; B. Airborne transmission includes droplet nuclei, dust particles with infectious agent and organisms shed into the environment from the skin, hair or perineal area; C. Contact transmission includes direct contact, indirect contact and droplet contact; D. theres no such thing as droplet transmission only droplet contact. 10. This chain of infection allows the microorganisms to move from reservoir to host: a. Portal of Exit c. Portal of entry b. infectious agent d. susceptible host Ans. A. Portal of exit A. Some examples of movement from reservoir to host are excretions, secretions and skin droplets; B. The common site for the portal of entry is mucous membranes, GI tract and non-intact skin; C. Examples of infectious agents are bacteria and virus; D. susceptible host are the immunosuppressed patient, fatigued, elderly and other hospitalized patient. 11. Inflammatory processes provided by the WBC (leukocytes), whose main purpose is to limit the effect of harmful bacteria or injury by destroying or neutralizing the

organism, and by limiting its spread throughout the body: a. First line of defense b. Second line of defense c. Third line of defense d. Fourth line of defense Ans. B. Second line of defense A. First line of defense include the skin and mucus membrane; B. Second line of defense involves leukocytes; C. Third line of defense include the antibodies 12. The immune response is considered to be: a. First line of defense b. Second line of defense c. Third line of defense d. Fourth line of defense Ans. C. Third line of defense A. First line of defense include the skin and mucus membrane; B. Second line of defense involves leukocytes; C. Third line of defense includes the antibodies. 13. Nurse Angelika believed that the complete destruction of all microorganisms, including the spores is: a. Disinfection c. Cleaning b. Sterilization d. all of these Ans. B. Sterilization 14. When asked about the risk of transmitting agents through large particles (5 micrometer or more) Crizelda refer this type of precaution to her clients as: a. Airborne precaution b. Contact precaution c. Standard precaution d. Droplet precaution Ans. D. Droplet precaution 15. It is an upper respiratory condition characterized by escalating fever (peaks 3-5 days), conjunctivitis and coryza: a. Measles b. German Measles c. chicken pox d. Varicella Ans. Measles 16. A day biting female mosquito that breeds in household or standing clean water: a. Female anopheles b. Male anopheles c. Aedes aegypti d. None of these Ans. C. Aedes aegypti 17. The following are the major causes of intestinal parasitic infections in the Philippines, EXCEPT: a. Trichuris trichiura c. Hookworm b. Ascaris lumbricoides d. none of these Ans. D. All of them are the three major causes of intestinal parasitic infections 18. What is the period of communicability of the epidemic parotitis?

a. Begins before the glands are swollen and presumed to last as long as localized glandular swelling remains b. Begins after the glands are swollen especially when the localized glandular swelling remains c. Begins before the glands are swollen and after the glands are swollen even when the glandular swelling is not observed. d. except c Ans. A. Begins before the glands are swollen and presumed to last as long as localized glandular swelling remains 19. Which his TRUE regarding Filariasis? a. Microfilarie rate increases with age and then levels off during the acute stage b. Men have higher micronlariae rate than women c. During the chronic stage the disease develops 2-5 years from the onset of attack d. Hydrocoele is evident in men during the acute stage A. It is not during the acute stage but during the asymptomatic stage: B True that men have higher micronlariae rate than women; C. The disease develops from 10-15 years from the onset of attack; D. It is during the chronic stage when hydrocoele will be noted. 20. Which is FALSE about Tuberculosis? a. The most hazardous period for development of clinical disease is the first 6-12 months after infection b. The risk of developing the disease is highest in children under 3 years old. c. The degree of communicability depends on the virulence of the bacilli, adequacy of ventilation with no direct exposure of bacilli to the sun or UV light d. Susceptibility of the disease is markedly increased in those with HIV infection and other forms of immunosuppression Ans. C. All are true except C because the degree of communicability always involves exposure of the bacilli to the sun or UV light. 21. Which of the following tetanus immunization is given to a mother to prevent from a neonatal tetanus and provide 10 years protection for the mother? a. TT1 b.TT2 c. TT3 d. TT4 Ans. C. Schedule of TT immunization: VACCINATION SCHEDULE PROTECTION DURATION OF PROTECTION TT1 As early as possible during pregnancy 80% TT2 4 weeks after TT1 80% Infants protected from neonatal tetanus. Provides 3 year protection to the mother TT3 6 months after TT2 90% Infants protected from neonatal tetanus. Provides 5 year protection to the mother TT4 1 year after TT3 99% Infants protected from neonatal tetanus. Provides 10 year protection to the mother TT5 1 year after TT4 99% Infants protected from neonatal tetanus. Provides lifetime protection to the mother.

22. Which of the following vaccines is not recommended by IM injection?

a. Measles vaccine c. Hepa B vaccine b. Tetanus toxoid d. DPT Ans. A. Measles vaccine 23. The following are vaccines which are less sensitive to heat: a. oral polio, DPT b. Measles, Hep B c. BCG, TT d. BCG, oral polio Ans. C. BCG and TT Most sensitive to heat: oral polio and measles; least sensitive to heat: DPT, Hep B, BCG, TT

24. OPV should be stored in a freezer with a temperature of: a. 2-8 degrees C b. -15 to -25 degrees C c. -2 to -8 degrees C d. none of these Ans. B. -15 to -25 degrees C 25. Hepa B is given at birth with 6 weeks interval from the 1st dose to 2nd dose, 8 weeks interval from the 2nd to 3rd dose. It is given intramuscularly in the: a. outer part of upper arm b. gluteus maximus c. vastus lateralis d. deltoid region Ans. C. vastus lateralis 26. It is the principle practiced in order to assure that all vaccines are utilized before its due date: a. First expiry and first out b. First used and first contained c. First expiry and last out d. First used and last contained Ans. A. First expiry and First out 27. When reconstituting the freeze dried BCG vaccine the nurse must always keep the diluents in the room temperature by sustaining with the BCG vaccine ampules in the clinic table: a. TRUE b. FALSE c. TRUE in Hep B and DPT d. except A Ans. A. FALSE The BCG vaccine must always be kept in cold temperature and sustaining it in the refrigerator or vaccine carrier. 28. What is the classification of disease when the level of management is urgent referral in hospital? a. mild b. moderate c. severe d. most severe

Ans. C. Severe. 29. What is the color presentation to children whose level of management is home care. a. yellow b. red c. green d. pink Ans. C. Green. ( 30. The following BUT one is part of the danger signs that needs to be checked in assessing the child using the integrated case management process? a. vomits everything b. convulsions c. unable to drink/breastfeed d. difficulty breathing Ans. D. Difficulty of breathing is part of the main symptoms that needs to be assessed not the danger signs. The missing danger sign is abnormality sleepy or difficult to awaken.

CHN
The nurse learned that the health of individuals and communities are, to a large extent, affected by a combination of many factors. She understands that these are the determinants of health listed by the World Health Organization, EXCEPT: a. Greater support from families, friends and communities are linked to better health. b. Access and use of services that prevent and treat disease influence health. c. Research, development and implementation of innovative public health solutions is also part d. Customs and tradition, and the beliefs of the family and community is also part Ans. C. Is not part of the determinants of health rather it is one of the functions of public health A. Social support system is part of the determinants of health; B. Health services is also part of the determinants of health; C. Is not part of the determinants of health rather it is one of the functions of public health; D. Culture is part of the determinants of health. ( 2. The classic definition of public health is the science and the art of preventing disease, prolonging life, promoting health and efficiency through organizing community effort for the sanitation of the environment, control of CD, education of personal hygiene, organization of medical and nursing services for the early diagnostic and treatment of disease and the development of the social machinery to ensure everyone a standard of living adequate for the maintenance of health, so organize to enable every citizen to realize his birthright of health and longevity. This definition was coined form: a. WHO Expert Committee on Nursing c. Ruth Freeman b. Dr. C.E. Winslow d. Public Health Nurse Lilian Wald Ans. B. Dr. C.E. Winslow A. WHO defined public health as the art of applying science in the context of politics so as to reduce inequities in health while ensuring the best health for the greatest number; B. Public health defined by Dr. Winslow exactly as mentioned above; C. Freeman defined community health nursing not public health as a service rendered by a professional nurse with communities, groups, familiesfor the promotion of health, prevention of illness, care of the

sick at home and rehabilitation; D. Lilian Wald defined public health nursing not public health as service to all the people. (Cuevas, Frances Prescilla. Public Health Nursing in the Philippines. 10th ed. Philippines: Publication Committee of NLPGN,Inc., 2007 p. 4-7) 3. The Health Care Delivery System involves two major players; the first is financed through a tax-based budgeting system and the other is largely market-oriented. They are known to be as? a. National and Local Government Agencies b. For-profit and Non-profit health providers c. Public sector and LGU d. Department of Health and Non-profit health providers Ans. D. Department of Health and Non-profit health providers (Public and Private Sector) A. The National and Local Government Agencies are part of the public sector; B. For-profit and Non-profit health providers are both part of the private sector; C. The public sector and LGU are the same that took part in the public sector. D. The department of health is a public sector while the Non-profit health provider is part of the private sector. The 2 major players in the Health Care Delivery System are the Public and Private sectors. (Cuevas, Frances Prescilla. Public Health Nursing in the Philippines. 10th ed. Philippines: Publication Committee of NLPGN,Inc., 2007 p. 19-20) 4. What is the vision of the Department of Health? a. FOURmula ONE for health b. Health Sector Reform Agenda c. Health for all in the Philippines d. Guarantee equitable, sustainable and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the poor and shall lead the quest for excellence in health Ans. C. Health for all in the Philippines A. FOURmula One for health is the framework for implementation of Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA); B. Health Sector Reform Agenda is the goal of the DOH; C. Health for all in the Philippines is the vision of the Department of Health; D. This is the Mission of the DOH. (Cuevas, Frances Prescilla. Public Health Nursing in the Philippines. 10th ed. Philippines: Publication Committee of NLPGN,Inc., 2007 p. 25-26) 5. The framework for the implementation of health sector reform agenda of the department of health is: a. FOURmula ONE for health b. Health Sector Reform Agenda c. Health for all in the Philippines d. Guarantee equitable, sustainable and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the poor and shall lead the quest for excellence in health Ans. A. FOURmula ONE for health A. FOURmula One for health is the framework for implementation of Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA); B. Health Sector Reform Agenda is the goal of the DOH; C. Health for all in the Philippines is the vision of the Department of Health; D. Guarantee . is the Mission of the DOH. (Cuevas, Frances Prescilla. Public Health Nursing in the Philippines. 10th ed. Philippines: Publication Committee of NLPGN,Inc., 2007 p. 25-26) 6. The overriding goals of the Department of Health: a. FOURmula ONE for health b. Health Sector Reform Agenda c. Health for all in the Philippines d. Guarantee equitable, sustainable and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the poor

and shall lead the quest for excellence in health Ans. B. Health Sector Reform Agenda A. FOURmula One for health is the framework for implementation of Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA); B. Health Sector Reform Agenda is the goal of the DOH; C. Health for all in the Philippines is the vision of the Department of Health; D. Guarantee . is the Mission of the DOH. (Cuevas, Frances Prescilla. Public Health Nursing in the Philippines. 10th ed. Philippines: Publication Committee of NLPGN,Inc., 2007 p. 25-26) 7. The goal of this element in FOURmula ONE is to ensure the quality and affordability of health goods and services. a. Health financing c. Health regulation b. Health service delivery d. Good governance Ans. C. Health regulation A. Health financings goal of this health reform area is to foster greater, better and sustained investments in health; B. Health service deliverys goal is to improve and ensure the accessibility and availability of the basic and essential health care in both public and private facilities and services; C. Health regulation ensure the quality and affordability of health goods and services; D. Good governance help enhance the health system performance at the national and local levels. Cuevas, Frances Prescilla. Public Health Nursing in the Philippines. 10th ed. Philippines: Publication Committee of NLPGN,Inc., 2007 p. 26) 8. The first international conference of Primary Health Care was held in Alma Ata, USSR on September 6-12, 1978 by WHO. The goal was adopted in the Philipppines on October 19, 1979. What is its underlying theme? a. Health in the Hands of the People by 2020 b. Health for All by the year 2000 c. Health for all in the Philippines d. Health Sector Reform Agenda Ans. A. Health in the Hands of the People by 2020 A. Health in the Hands of the People by 2020 is the underlying theme in the Philippines; B. Health for All by the year 2000 is the goal during the conference; C. Health for all in the Philippines is the vision of the Department of Health; D. Health Sector Reform Agenda is the goal of the DOH 9. The primary components of the PHC include: a. Immunization and Control Communicable Diseases b. Health Education c. Environmental Sanitation d. All of the above Ans. D. All of the above The elements or components of PHC include: Environmental Sanitation; Control of Communicable diseases; Immunizations; Health Education; Maternal and Child Health and Family Planning; Adequate Food and Proper Nutrition; Provision of Medical Care and Emergency Treatment; Treatment of Locally Endemic Diseases and Provision of Essential Drugs. 10. Mark is a trained community worker in the community. He is identified at what level of primary health care worker? a. BHWs b. Volunteer c. Intermediate level health care

d. Trained Hilot Ans. A. There are two levels of primary health care workers in the community. They are: 1. Village or Barangay Health Workers who are the trained community health workers, health auxiliary volunteers, TBSs and trained healers and 2. Intermediate Level Health Workers such as the general medical practitioner, PHN, midwife, rural sanitary inspector and midwife. 11. 10. There are 4 cornerstones/pillars in PHC. Of the following which is NOT included? a. Government Funds b. Intra and intersectoral linkages c. Use of appropriate technology d. Active community participation Ans. A. Government Funds A. Government Funds is not part of the pillars of PHC; B. Intra and Intersecoral linkages is part of the 4 pillars; C. The use of appropriate technology is also part; D. Active community participation is also part of the PHC cornerstone. The missing pillar is Support Mechanism. 12. The intention of this level of prevention is to halt the disease or injury process and assist the person in obtaining an optimal status according to his present capabilities: a. Secondary Level b. Tertiary Level c. Primary Level d. Quaternary Level Ans. B. Tertiary Level A. Secondary level: Early diagnosis, detection, screening, case finding, and prompt treatment. Examples are Sputum exam, cataract screening, ORESOL , etc.; B. Tertiary level: Rehabilitation. Services provided after a disease or disability has occurred and the recovery process has begun. Ex. Community based rehabilitation program; C. Primary level: Health promotion and specific protection, seeks to prevent a disease or condition before the person gets sick. To encourage optimal health and to increase the persons resistance to illness examples are prenatal care; D. There is no such thing as quaternary level. 13. The PHN understands that this function is the most inherent function. Her practice as a nurse is based on the science and art of caring, in whatever setting she maybe or role she may presume. a. Collaborating and coordinating function b. Supervisory function c. Health promotion and Education function d. Nursing care function Ans. D. Nursing Care function A. Collaborating and coordinating function bring the PHN its activities systematically into proper relation or harmony with each other; B. Supervisory function supervises the midwives and other auxiliary health workers in the catchment area. C. Health Promotion and Education function tells that her activities go beyond health teachings and health information campaign; D. Nursing care function is the inherent function, as such PHNs are expected to provide nursing care. 14. The nursing process is systematic, scientific, and dynamic, on going interpersonal process in which the nurse and the clients are viewed as system with each affecting the other and both being affected by the factors within the behavior. The following are part of the Planning Nursing Action, EXCEPT: a. Develop evaluation parameters b. Identify needed alterations

c. Prioritize needs d. Construct action and Operational plan Ans. B. Identify needed alterations A. Developing evaluation parameter is part of planning nursing action; B. Identifying needed alterations is part of Evaluation of care and services rendered; C. Prioritize needs is in planning nursing action; D. Constructing action and Operational plan is also part of the planning nursing action phase. 15. Maita a student nurse when asked by her clinical instructor the basic principles of health education responded INCORRECTLY when she mentioned that health education is: a. a creative process b. achieved by doing c. recognized as a basic function of the people d. helping people attain their health through their efforts Ans. C. Recognize as a basic function of the people A. a creative process is part of the basic principles of health education as well as B. achieved by doing; C. is wrong because it should be the primary function of the public health workers not the people; D. is correct also because it emphasizes the own effort of the people. 16. The primary focus of community health nursing is health promotion. What is its ultimate goal? a. worth and dignity of man b. making the community health nurses as generalist c. raise the level of health of the citizenry d. provide quality nursing services to individuals, families and communities utilizing as basis the standards set community health nursing practice. Ans. C. raise the level of health of the citizenry A. worth and dignity of man is the philosophy of CHN; B. making the community health nurses as generalist in the nursing profession; C. raising the level of health of citizenry is the ultimate goal; D. Provide quality nursing. Is one of the objectives. 17. These are the following principles of Community health nursing, EXCEPT: a. In CHN, the family is the unit service b. The CHNurse is responsible for her own professional growth. c. The CHNurse utilizes the already-existing active organized groups in the community. d. Opportunities for continuing staff education programs for nurses are the CHNurses responsibility. Ans. D. Opportunities for continuing staff education programs for nurses are the CHNurses responsibility A,B and C are part of the principles of Community Health Nursing. 18. The primary group focus of community health nursing practice especially in terms of maintaining the peoples optimum level of functioning is: a. Health Promotion b. Rehabilitation c. Reduction of lifestyle diseases d. Prevention of communicable disease Ans. A. Health Promotion Although letters b, c and d are also functions of community health nursing, health promotion is the primary group focus of community health nursing practice especially in terms of maintaining the peoples OLOF.

19. These are the steps in conducting home visit. Arrange in order of priority: I. Put the bag in a convenient place then proceed to perform the bag technique II. Record all important data, observation and care rendered III. State the purpose of the visit IV. Perform the nursing care needed and give health teachings V. Greet the patient and introduce yourself a. III,V,I,II, and V b. V,III,I,IV and II c. III,V,IV,I and II d. V,I,III,IV and II Ans. B. V,III,I,IV and II. Steps in conducting home visits: 1. Greet the patient and introduce self; 2. State the purpose of the visit; 3. Observe the patient and determine the health needs; 4. Put the bag in a convenient place then proceed to perform the bag technique; 5 Perform the nursing care needed and give health teachings; 6. Record all important data, observation and care rendered and 7. Make appointment for a return visit. 20. In the Philippine Health Care Delivery System, the secondary level of health service is provided by the: a. Regional Medical Center c. Provincial hospitals b. Puericulture Centers d. Rural Health Units Ans. C. Provincial hospitals The RHCDS provides three levels of health services: a. Primary Level: BHS, RHU, Community Hospitals, Lying in centers, puericulture centers, clinics of private practitioner b. Secondary Level: Emergency hospitals, District Hospitals, Provincials and City Hospitals c. Tertiary Level: Regional Hospitals, National Medical Centers and Training Hospitals 21. The devolution of health services to the local government unit was mandated by: a. R.A. 7160 b. E.O. 851 c. R.A. 6713 d. R.A. 8749 Ans. A. RA 7160 is the local autonomy code, which transferred local health services under the authority of the local governments. EO 851 is the law of the Reorganization of DOH. RA 6713 is the code of conduct and ethical standards of public officials and employees. AR 8749 is the Clean Air Act, Approved in 2000 and took effect in 2001. 22. Nurse Cara learned that bag technique is a tool by which the nurse, during her visit enabled her to perform a nursing procedure with ease and deftness, to save time and effort in rendering nursing care to clients. Which of the following equipments are carried separately? a. Spirit of ammonia, Zephiran solution and 70% alcoohol b. Sphygmomanometer, Thermometer and Stethoscope c. Sphygmomanometer only d. Stethoscope and sphygmomanometer Ans. D. Stethoscope and sphygmomanometer A. Spirit of ammonia et als. Are carried in the bag; B. Thermometer is carried in the bag; C. Lacking stethoscope; D. Both are carried separately 23. The basic qualification of a CH Nurse is: a. Masters of Public Health b. Bachelor of Science in Nursing b. Licensed Practical Nurse d. b only Ans. D. b only

24. A process of analyzing and determining the community health status is community diagnosis. These are the following demographic variables needed in the diagnosis, EXCEPT: a. age and sex composition c. pattern of migration b. educational level d. total population Ans. B. Educational level A, C and D are all demographic variables; B. educational level is part of socio-economic and cultural variable. 25. The nurse gathered data that will be used in community diagnosis. She assessed the physical/geographical characteristics. In what factor does this belong? a. Socioeconomic and cultural variable b. Environmental Indicator c. Demographic data d. both B and D Ans. B. Environmental Indicator 26. What level of water source where a system with a source is observed, there is reservoir and piped distribution network up to the household. a. Level I b. Level II c. Level III d. Level IV Ans. C. Level III A. Level I- a protected well or developed spring with outlet but without distribution; B. Level II a system composed of source, a reservoir and piped distribution network and communal faucet located not more than 2 meter from the nearest household; C. there is piped distribution network up to the household; D. no Level IV 27. Water system and deep well construction require the approval of: a. Mayors permit b. Secretary of health c. Rural sanitary inspector d. City health engineer Ans. B. The certification of the potability of an existing water source is also issued by the secretary of the DOH. 28. Which of the following is level 1 approved type of toilet facility? a. Water sealed b. Flushed type c. Pit latrines d. Water carriage type Ans. C. Level 1: non water carriage such as pit latrines, reed odorless earth closet; Level II water carriage type such as water sealed and flushed type septic tank; Level III water carriage type connected to septic tanks and sewerage system. 29. Vital Statistics refers to the systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses, marriages, divorce, separation and deaths. It is the measure of the risk of dying from the cause related pregnancy, child birth and puerperium. a. Infant Mortality Rate b. Maternal Mortality Rate c. Maternal Morbidity rate d. Specific Death Rate Ans. B. Maternal Mortality Rate

30. In vital statistics, this measures the frequency of occurrence of the phenomenon during a given period of time. a. Prevalence Rate b. Incidence Rate c. Specific Rate d. except c Ans. B. Incidence Rate A. Prevalence Rate measures the proportion of the population which exhibits particular disease at a particular time; B. is the correct answer; C. Specific Rate the relationship is for a specific population class or group. It limits the occurrence of the event to the portion of the population definitely exposed to it; D. only Incidence Rate or letter B 31. This is the phase of COPAR where nurse do an ocular survey of short listed community. a. Pre-entry c. Organization Building b. Entry d. Sustenance and Strengthening Ans. A. Pre-entry

32. What part of the pre-entry phase where the nurse pay courtesy call to the community leaders, sensitize community leaders and conduct baseline survey? a. Community preparation selection c. Coordination b. Final preparation d. Community preparation survey Ans. B. Final Preparation 33. When the Core group is selected the phase of COPAR is said to be: a. Phase I c. Phase II b. Phase III d. Phase IV Ans. C. Phase II 34. These are ways of partnership in COPAR, EXCEPT: a. Networking c. Collaboration b. Competition d. Cooperation Ans. B. Competition 35. The fundamental unit of any society, composed of father, mother and children related by blood or marriage is the family. When the authority inside the family is 50-50 basis or there is sharing of decision. This is said to be: a. Matriarchal c. Egalitarian b. Patriarchal d. Equalitarian Ans. C. Egalitarian A. Matriarchal mother is the dominant figure of authority; B. Patriarchal father is the dominant figure of authority; C. Egalitarian 50-50 basis, sharing of decision making; D. There is no such thing as Equalitarian 36. When the health status of the family is measured by nutritional status weight, height, mid-upper arm circumference. It is called: a. Nutritional assessment c. Dietary History b. Arthropometric assessment d. Eating/feeding habits, practices Ans. B. Arthropometric assessment A. Nutritional assessment especially for vulnerable or at risk members; B. Arthropometric assessment is the correct answer; C. Dietary history specifying the quality and quantity of

food/nutrient intake per day; 37. It is the term used for intermittent occurrence of disease in a few and unrelated cases within a given locality. a. Endemic occurrence c. Epidemic occurrence b. Sporadic occurrence d. Pandemic occurrence Ans. B. Sporadic occurrence 38. Mortality and morbidity are categorized as community health nursing problems on: a. health resources c. health-related b. health status d. health indicators Ans. B. Vital Statistics is the collection of data of significant events that occur over a period of time within a population. Morbidity and mortality are among of the significant data needed to determine the health status of the community. 39. What is the leading cause of mortality in the Philippines as of 2003 statistics? a. Malignant Neoplasm c. Heart Diseases b. Vascular System Diseases d. Tuberculosis, all forms Ans. C. Heart Disease Mortality Statistics (2003) 1. Heart Diseases 2. Vascular System Diseases 3. Malignant Neoplasm 4. Accidents 5. Pneumonia 6. Tuberculosis, all forms 40. The nurse is well versed in environmental health and sanitation. She understands that the components and factors in the prevention of illness lie in the following, EXCEPT: a. environment b. disease agent c. food safety practices d. man Ans. C. Food safety practices is not part 41. What would you include in your health teaching in iodine deficiency? a. Eat sea foods and vegetables b. Eat beans c. Eat meats and vegetables d. Eat sweet potatoes Ans. A. Good source of iodine include sea foods and iodized salt( 42. A traditional plant used to lower the uric acid. a. Pansit pansitan b. Lagundi c. Bayabas d. Sambong Ans. A Pansit pansitan , also known as ulasimang bato (Peperonia pellucida) is a herbal medicine which is known to lower uric acid and beneficial in persons with rheumatism and gout. Its leaves 1 cups leaves to two glassful of water are boiled and the decoction is taken three times a day. Fresh leaves can also be eaten as a salad three times a day. 43. A traditional plant use to treat diarrhea: a. Lagundi b. Bayabas c. Pansit pansitan

d. Sambong Ans. B. Bayabas or guava (Psidium guajava) is a fruit bearing tree. Its leaves are boiled for 15 minutes at low fire and decoction. It can be used for the following medicinal purposes: washing, diarrhea, mouth gargle and relief of tooth ache. 44. An alternative for mefenamic acid for toothache is: a. Tsaang gubat b. Lagundi c. Sambong d. Bawang Ans. D. Bawang or ajos is pounded and applied to the aching tooth. To lower cholesterol and for hypertension, 2 pcs. Bawang may be fried, roasted, soaked in vinegar or boiled and taken three times a day. 45. Used to relieve muscle and joint pain: a. Lagundi b. Akapulko c. Yerba Buena d. Sambong Ans. C Yerba Buena is indicative for the following ailments: Headache, stomachache, cough and colds, arthritis causing joint pains, swollen gums, toothache, etc. 46. In the principle of from cleanest to the dirtiest care. Which of the following is arranged correctly? a. measles case, pregnant woman, newborn b. post-partum, newborn, measles case c. tuberculosis, hypertension, measles d. post-partum, measles case, newborn Ans. B. Post-partum, newborn, measles care 47. To disseminate information, the BEST type of nurse-family contact is: a. home visit b. clinic visit c. community assembly d. except b&c Ans. C. community assembly 48. The type of public health nursing that focuses on the promotion of health and wellness of pupils, teaching and non teaching personnel of the school. a. Occupational Health Nursing b. School Nursing c. Mental Health Nursing d. All of the above Ans. B. School Nursing 49. This type of vaccines are the most sensitive to heat. They are in the form of live attenuated and freeze dried: a. DPT, Hep B b. BCG, Tetanus Toxoid c. Measles, Oral Polio d. BCG, Measles Ans. C. Oral Polio Vaccine and Measles were the most sensitive to heat with storage temperature of -15 to -25 degree C at the freezer. 50. In DPT the Diptheria and Tetanus are in the form of weakened toxin, what is the form of Pertussis?

a. Freeze dried bacteria b. Live attenuated c. Weakened toxoid d. Killed bacteria Ans. D. Killed bacteria. Oral Polio is live attenuated. Measles and BCG are freeze dried bacteria. Diptheria and Tetanus are weakened toxin. 51. It helps the nurse to explain the probable cause of health conditions that occur in the community: a. Vital Statistics b. Demography c. Epidemiology d. Multiple causation theory Ans. C. Epidemiology. Vital Statistics are indices of health and illness status of the community; Demography describes the characteristics of the population in terms of size, composition and distribution in space. Multiple causation theory explains disease as caused not by single condition but by several conditions. 52. It is the intrinsic property of microorganism to survive and multiply in the environment to produce disease. a. Agent c. Causative Agent b. Host d. Environment Ans. A. Agent A. is the correct answer; B. Host influences exposure, susceptibility or response to agents; C. Causative agent is the infectious agent or its toxic component that is transmitted from the source of infection; D. Environment is the sum total of all external condition 53. The following are the components of the environment, EXCEPT: a. Physical c. Spiritual b. Biological d. Socio-economic Ans. C. Spiritual A. Physical environment is composed of the inanimate surroundings such as the geophysical conditions of the climate; B. Biological environment makes up the living things around us such as plants and animal life; C. There is no such thing as spiritual environment; D. Socioeconomic environment which may be in the form of level of economic development of the community, presence of social disruptions and the like. 54. Marco was bitten by a dog. You interviewed Marco and his father to take the history before seeing a doctor. You told Marcos father not to kill the dog because the dog will be: a. Given a vaccine b. Confined c. Observed for 10 days d. Be examined Ans. C. When a person is bitten by a dog, the animal should be observed for 10 to 14 days. 1. The person bitten is immunized with rabies immunoglobulin and tetanus toxoid right after the incident to provide immediate protection; 2. If the dog dies before the the observation period is completed, the bitten person should be immunized with rabies vaccine; and 3. If the dog shows signs of rabies, the person should be immunized with rabies vaccineand the dog should be killed immediately and its brain be examined for the presence of Negri bodies, the diagnostic sign of the disease. 55. In patient with dengue fever, which of the following will you give to the patient as part of your intervention?

a. Water and salt solution b. Oresol c. Saline solution d. IV fluids Ans. B. H-Fever is characterized by internal bleeding that could result in hypovolemia so rapid fluid replacement is the most important part of the treatment. ORESOL at 75ml/kg in 4-6 hours. Up to 2-3 liters can be given in adult clients. 56. What is the test that confirms the diagnosis of Dengue Fever? a. Torniquet Test b. Capillary Fragility Test c. Platelet Count d. Rumpel Lead Test Ans. C. 57. In doing a tourniquet test, how would petechiae be considered positive? a. 10 b, 20 c. 30 d. 5 Ans. B. The tourniquet test for H-Fever is also known as Rumpel Leads Test. The procedure in taking the test is: 1. Take BP 2. Inflate the BP cuff midway between the systolic and diastolic pressure and leave for 5 minutes 3. Release cuff 4. Count then umber of petechiae below the cuff at the atecubital fossa that would fit inside a 2.5cm square of 1 inch square. The test is positive if thepatient develops 20 or more petechiae with in the area 58. The communicable disease that causes infertility in both male and female? a. Gonorrhea c. Herpes b. Syphilis d. Chlamydia Ans. A 59. Which of the following is the most common and highly contagious STD? a. Gonorrhea c. Herpes b. Syphilis d. Chlamydia Ans. D 60. Which STD causes oral thrush? a. Trichomoniasis c. Chlamydia b. Candidiasis d. Gonorrhea Ans. B