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Q&A for ppm 1. For most organizations, top management consists of ______. a.

any manager above the level of foreman b. the chief executive officer, the president, and his or her vice

presidents c. the chief executive officer only d. the chief executive officer and the president only
2. The management functions are ______. a. planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling b. organizing, selling, accounting, leading, and controlling c. planning, accounting, controlling, leading, and organizing d. planning, organizing, selling, leading, and controlling 3. The categories of management roles are ______. a. figurehead, leader, and liaison b. monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson c. interpersonal, decisional, and entrepreneur d. interpersonal, informational, and decisional 4. The skills that all managers need are ______. a. planning, organizing, and controlling b. conceptual, technical, and human c. effectiveness, efficiency, and planning d. interpersonal, decisional, and informational 5. Which of the following is a reality of a managers job? a. A managers job is less a science than an art. b. Managers are self-starting, self-directing, and autonomous. c. Managers have no regular duties to perform. d. Managers are reflective and systematic planners. 6. Classical management thinkers ______. a. utilize the it all depends approach b. utilize quantitative decision-making tools c. look for the one best way to do something d. realize that their most important and complex resource is people 7. The Hawthorne studies are an important foundation of the

__________ approaches. a. classical b. human relations c. administrative d. quantitative


8. Models, simulations, and queuing theory are examples of techniques

found in the __________ approach to management. a. classical b. quantitative c. bureaucratic organization d. modern

9. Which of the following statements does not accurately reflect the

characteristics of contingency theory? a. Managers should draw on all past theories in attempting to analyze and solve problems. b. The best way to initially approach all management problems is through scientific management. c. The contingency approach is integrative in nature. d. Managers should stay flexible and consider the alternatives and fallback positions when defining and attacking problems.
10. In a fast-changing environment, the most effective method of improving

the quality of a product would be ______. a. Kaizen b. bureaucracy c. reengineering d. management science

11. An organization that regularly affects and is affected by various and

constantly changing forces can be described as a(n) ______. a. natural force b. sociocultural force c. open system d. closed system
12. Of the following, which is a directly interactive force in an organizations

external environment? a. technological forces b. leadership c. economic forces d. customers


13. Which of the following is not an indirectly interactive force in an

organizations external environment? a. sociocultural forces b. competitive forces c. legal/political forces d. technological forces
14. The term organizational climate defines ______. a. how the employees feel about working for the organization b. how organizations share values, beliefs, habits, norms, philosophies,

experiences, and behaviors c. what the company does best d. a key concept that guides managers and their actions

15. Boundary spanning sources include all of the following except

______. a. customers b. competitors c. government statistics d. core values

16. A managers first step in the decision-making process is to ______. a. define the problem b. identify limiting factors c. develop potential alternatives d. establish a control and evaluation system 17. When a manager knows what the problem is and what the alternatives

are, the manager is making the decision under the condition of ______. a. imperfect resources b. risk c. uncertainty d. certainty
18. A quantitative technique for decision making that shows a complete

picture of potential alternative decision paths is called ______. a. the Delphi technique b. a decision tree c. brainstorming d. payback analysis
19. A group effort of generating alternative ideas that can help a manager

solve a problem is called ______. a. the Delphi technique b. out-of-the box thinking c. brainstorming d. the nominal group technique
20. All of the following are important strategies that a manager can use

to create a more effective decision-making environment except ______. a. encourage others to make decisions b. be ready to try things c. rely solely upon himself or herself d. recognize the importance of quality information

21. The managerial function that provides direction, a common sense of

purpose for the organization through the development of goals and objectives, and the means to reach them is ______. a. planning b. controlling c. leading d. organizing
22. The statement that explains the primary purpose of the organization

and why the organization exists is the ______. a. budget b. strategic plan c. mission statement d. operational plan
23. Plans that usually span one year or less, are developed by middle managers,

And are concerned with what the major subsystems within each Organization must do are ______. a. strategic plans b. tactical plans c. operational plans d. contingency plans
24. Goals that are established by top management and relate to where

The organization wants to be in the future are ______. a. operational objectives b. budgets c. standing goals d. strategic goals
25. All of the following are significant major barriers to effective planning

Except a(n) ______. a. lack of commitment to the planning process b. overreliance on the planning department c. overemphasis on the uncontrollable environmental factors d. lack of focus on the long term

26. The unbroken line of relationships from the bottom to the top of an

organization is called the ______. a. span of control b. unity of command c. division of labor d. chain of command

27. The degree to which organizational tasks are subdivided into separate

work jobs is called ______. a. decentralization b. division of labor c. span of control d. centralization

28. The formal and legitimate right of a manager to make decisions, give

orders, and allocate resources is known as ______. a. accountability b. power c. authority d. responsibility
29. The philosophy of management that focuses upon systematically

retaining authority at the top of the organization is called ______. a. centralization b. decentralization c. departmentalization d. specialization
30. Which of the following statements does not correctly characterize the

difference between the formal and the informal organization? a. In the formal organization, the formal organization authority comes from the position. b. Informal power follows the chain of command, but authority does not. c. Leverage in the informal organization is informal power that goes with the person. d. Groups give power in the informal organization

31. Which of the following would characterize a mechanistic structure? a. Free flow of information b. Few rules and regulations c. Centralized decision making d. All of the above

32. Which of the following organizations would most likely have an

organic structure? a. A small organization utilizing small-batch technology in a changing environment b. A young organization operating in a very stable environment c. A large, old organization operating in a stable environment d. An old organization operating with mass production

33. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of the functional

structure? a. Minimized duplication b. Quick response time to changes in the environment c. Well-defined channels of communication d. Simplified training
34. Which of the following statements characterizes the matrix structure? a. Communicating and coordination are decreased in the matrix

structure. b. The matrix structure is the best of all possible structures and has few disadvantages. c. Although its flexible, the matrix structures will always adversely affect the motivation level of the individual employee. d. The matrix structure is flexible and combines the advantages of functional specialization and the accountability of the divisional structure.
35. Which of the following is an important disadvantage of the team

structure? a. Large amounts of time are required for employee meetings and training. b. It eliminates levels of management. c. It hurts employee motivation. d. Time required for decision making is increased

36. The first step in the process of planned change is a. develop the goal(s). b. recognize the need for change. c. diagnose the problem. d. select the method of intervention. 37. Management consultant Larry Greiner contends that it takes a(n)

__________ for an organization to evolve to the next phase of growth. a. crisis b. opportunity c. loss of sales d. merge with another company
38. The bridge of __________ separates people from change. a. acceptance b. resistance c. economics d. opportunity

39. Before a new established behavior can take place, the previous behavior(

s) must be. a. forgotten and retrained. b. unfrozen and completed. c. thawed and changed. d. frozen and unfrozen.
40. A management technique for instituting change by thoroughly analyzing

problems and implementing long-term solutions is known as a. management by objectives. b. creative management. c. organizational development. d. occupational management.

41. In order for a group to be considered a team, a. at least two people must be involved. b. the members must interact regularly and coordinate their work. c. the members must share a common objective. d. All of the above. 42. Teams designed to complete a specific task in an organization are

called a. product development teams. b. project teams. c. quality teams. d. process teams.
43. The stage of group development in which the team members come

together to resolve conflict, achieve unity, and understand the roles members pay is: a. performing. b. storming. c. forming. d. norming.
44. The benefits of teams include all the following except a. flexibility. b. commitment. c. team training costs. d. synergy.

45. When a manager chooses to ignore a conflict situation, the manager

is choosing which conflict resolution strategy? a. Compromise b. Collaboration c. Appeal to a super ordinate objectives

46. Several studies regarding leadership traits have proven which of the

following: a. Leadership traits are universal. b. No specific list of successful leadership traits exists. c. Leadership traits, skills, and behaviors are common. d. Successful leaders have similar personalities.
47. Which type of power is least associated with the autocratic style of

leadership? a. Referent b. Expert c. Formal d. Nonconforming


48. When sport coaches listen to players suggestions and feedback during

game intermission, they are using what type of leadership? a. Free-rein b. Autocratic c. General d. Participating
49. The contingency, path-goal, and life-cycle theories of leadership are

considered a. autocratic. b. organizational. c. situational. d. unrealistic.


50. Vision, charisma, integrity, and symbolism are all on the list of

attributes associated with what type of leaders? a. Contingency b. Informal c. Transformational d. Transactional

51. Communication is complete when which of the following takes place? a. Verbal expression b. Face-to-face communication c. Written reply d. Mutual understanding

52. A return look of disdain without comment from an unhappy person

may be interpreted as a a. verbal reply. b. stereotype. c. nonverbal communication. d. semantics.


53. Guess what I just heard about the managers new secretary?

typifies a. feedback. b. the grapevine. c. noise. d. downward communication


54. The objectives that eventually determine the selection of control

methods are developed during what function? a. Planning b. Organizing c. Staffing d. Leading
55. The control process requires managers to establish standards for performance,

measure performance against those standards, and a. know their organizations mission. b. establish technical standards. c. take necessary actions to correct deviations. d. control unexpected situations.

56. Which of the following are the three basic types of controls? a. Prevention, diagnostic, and therapeutic b. Feedforward, in-process, and diagnostic c. Prevention, feedback, and feedforward d. Feedforward, concurrent, and feedback

57. A budget is purposefully designed as what type of control to provide

summary information to management? a. Prevention b. Feedback c. Feedforward d. Concurrent

58. Performance appraisals are a part of what type of controls? a. Accounting b. Human resource c. Inventory d. Financial

1b 2a 3d 4b 5a 6c 7b 8b 9b 10 c 11 c 12 d 13 b 14 a 15 a 16 b 17 b 18 b 19 c 20 c 21 a 22 c 23 b 24 d 25 c 26 d 27 b 28 c 29 a 30 b 31 c 32 a 33 b 34 d 35 a 36 b 37 a 38 b 39 c 40 c 41a 42c 43c 44c 45 a 46 d 47 b 48 d 49 c 50 d 51 b

52 a 53 d 54 c 55 c 56 d 57 c 58 b

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