AP Multiple Choice Questions By Subject CONSTITUTIONAL FOUNDATIONS 1999 1.

Which of the following is an example of checks and balances, as established by the Constitution? (A) A requirement that states lower their legal drinking age to eighteen as a condition of receiving funds through federal highway grant programs (B) Media criticism of public officials during an election campaign period (C) The Supreme Courts ability to overturn a lower court decision (D) The requirement that presidential appointments to the Supreme Court be approved by the Senate (E) The election of the President by the electoral college rather than by direct election 9. Supreme Court justices were given tenure subject to good behavior by the framers of the Constitution in order to ensure that (A) justices are free from direct political pressure (B)justices remain accountable to the public (C) justices are encouraged to make politically popular decisions (D) cooperation between the judicial and legislative branches is assured (E) Presidents are encouraged to seek younger nominees for the Supreme Court 16. The importance of Shays Rebellion to the development of the Constitution of the United States Constitution was that it (A) revealed the necessity of both adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution and creating a new system of checks and balances (B) demonstrated the intensity of antiratification sentiment within the thirteen states (C) indicated that a strong, constitutionally designed national government was needed to protect property and maintain order (D)convinced the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan (E) reinforced the idea that slavery should be outlawed in the new Constitution 46. The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those powers (A) not specifically granted to the national government or denied to the states (B) implied in the Fifth Amendment (C) listed specifically in the Tenth Amendment (D) exercised by both national and state governments (E) granted to states as part of the implied powers doctrine

2002 12. Of the following, which ahs been used most to expand the power of the national government? (A) the commerce clause of the Constitution (B) The habeas corpus clause of the Constitution (C) The bill of attainder clause of the Constitution (D) The First Amendment (E) The Fifth Amendment 19. The procedure for formally amending the Constitution best illustrates which of the following? (A) The dominance of the national government over the state governments (B) The dominance of the state governments over the national governments (C) The Founding Fathers desire to facilitate rapid constitutional revisions (D) The Supreme Courts power to review constitutional amendments (E) The federal structure of the United States government 36. Which of the following is true under the system of checks and balances? (A) The Supreme Court can overrule the Presidents policy proposals (B) The Senate must ratify treaties negotiated by the President before they become law (C) A bill becomes a law when the House and the Senate pass it, and the Supreme Court declares it Constitutional (D) The Supreme Court can remove members of Congress, and Congress can impeach the President (E) The House of Representatives appoints justices to the Supreme Court and the Senate approves the appointments 38. The Supreme Court ruled the legislative veto unconstitutional on the grounds that such vetoes (A) were the province of the courts alone (B) violated the principal separation of powers (C) would give the executive branch too much power (D) would give too much authority to nonelected officials (E) were an unwarranted infringement on the rights of state governments 41. In The Federalist No. 10 James Madison argued that factions in a republic are (A) a more serious threat if the republic is large (B) natural but controllable by institutions (C) not likely to occur if people are honest (D) prevented by majority rule (E) prevented by free elections 49. Which of the following was the most important effect of replacing the Articles of Confederation with the Constitution of 1787? (A) The protection of free speech (B) The guarantee of states rights (C) The establishment of direct democracy (D) The creation of a strong national government (E) The establishment of judicial review

1989 33. In the Constitution as originally ratified in 1788, the provisions regarding which of the following most closely approximate popular, majoritarian democracy? (A) Election of members of the House of Representatives (B) Election of members of the Senate (C) Election of the President (D) Ratification of treaties (E) Confirmation of presidential appointments 39 POLITICAL CARTOON 47. All of the following issues were decided at the Constitutional Convention EXCEPT (A) representation in the legislature (B) voting qualifications of the electorate (C) method of electing the President (D) congressional power to override a presidential veto (E) qualifications for members of the House and Senate SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD 12. All of the following were concerns about the Articles of Confederation that led to the calling of the Constitutional Convention of 1787 EXCEPT (A) dissatisfaction over safeguards of individual rights and liberties (B) fear for the stability of the central government (C) desire to promote trade among the states (D) the need to give the central government the power to levy taxes (E) dissatisfaction with the central governments ability to provide for national defense 20. Which of the following is argued by James Madison in The Federalist paper number 10? (A) A system of republican representation helps to limit the excesses of factionalism (B) Small republics are better able to ensure individual liberty than are large republics (C) The presence of a few large factions helps to protect the rights of minorities (D) Participatory democracy is the surest way to prevent tyranny (E) The elimination of the causes of factionalism is the best protection against tyranny PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 1. The Constitution as ratified in 1788 most clearly reflects the framer commitment to (A) the idea of direct democracy (B) the principle of limited government (C) the abolition of slavery (D) protecting the rights of the accused (E) maintaining the primacy of the states

2. Which of the following most accurately describes The Federalist Papers? (A) The Federalist party platform during the presidency of John Adams, the first Federalist president (B) A popular anti- British booklet of the pre-Revolutionary era (C) A collection of essays arguing the merits of the Constitution (D) A series of congressional acts defining the relationship between the federal and state Governments (E) The laws under which the South was governed during Reconstruction 17. All of the following are specifically mentioned in the Constitution EXCEPT (A) judicial review (B) the national census (C) rules of impeachment (D) the State of the Union address (E) length of term of federal judgeships 30. Which of the following best illustrates a use of the elastic clause? (A) The Supreme Court allows a lower court ruling to stand by refusing to hear an appeal (B) A congressional committee prevents the full chamber from voting on legislation delaying its report (C) Congress passes legislation establishing a national speed limit (D) A member of the House of Representatives introduces a bill to increase federal income tax rates (E) A governor issues an executive order requiring all state employees to submit to drug testing 31. According to the Federalist Papers, federalism has which of the following effects on political factions? (A) It provides a structured environment in which factions may flourish (B) It limits the dangers of factionalism by diluting political power (C) It allows factions to dominate on the national level while limiting their influence on state governments (D) It eliminates any opportunity for factions to form (E) It prevents factions by declaring them illegal 32. The Constitution, as originally ratified, addressed all of the following weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT the (A) lack of chief executive office (B) national governments inability to levy taxes effectively (C) absence of a central authority to regulate interstate trade (D) insufficiency of the governments power to raise an army (E) omission of a universal suffrage clause

PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 2. The swift adoption of the Bill of Rights in the years following ratification of the Constitution demonstrates the (A) framers unqualified commitment to individual rights (B) small states determination to receive equal representation in the legislature (C) Northern states support for abolitionism (D) Federalists concerns that the system of checks and balances would weaken the national government 16. The Tenth Amendment most often comes into conflict with which section of the Constitution? (A) The full faith and credit clause (B) The necessary and proper clause (C) The provisions for the impeachment of a president (D) The clause prohibiting states from coining money and entering into treaties (E) The provisions for constitutional amendment 17. People who interpret the Tenth Amendment as greatly restricting the powers of the national government are often referred to as (A) Federalists (B) isolationists (C) laissez-faire capitalists (D) loose constructionists (E) states rights 20. The relative stability of American public policy is achieved through (A) cooperation between the two major political parties (B) judicial activism (C) the Constitutional fragmentation of power (D) affirmative action programs (E) the delegation of unique reserved powers to each house of Congress 30. The Supreme Court has used the Fourteenth Amendment to apply portions of the Bill or Rights to state law by citing the amendments (A) prohibition on unreasonable search and seizures (B) due process of law (C) guarantee of privacy rights (D) abolition of slavery (E) reserved powers provision 31. The framers of the Constitution sought to insulate the Senate from public opinion by (A) restricting Senate membership to those who previously served in the House of Representatives (B) delegating the responsibility for electing senators to the state legislatures (C) requiring all spending bills to originate in the House of Representatives (D) empowering the Senate to provide advice and consent to the executive branch (E) assigning exactly two senators to each states congressional delegation

32. Under the Articles of Confederation, the national government had the power to (A) negotiate treaties (B) collect taxes (C) establish a federal judiciary (D) enforce its laws (E) regulate interstate commerce 49. The principles of freedom- we hold these truths to be self evident, that all men are created equalstated in the Declaration of Independence were influenced by the beliefs of political philosopher (A) Thomas Hobbes (B) Niccolo Macchiavelli (C) Jonathan Edwards (D) John Locke (E) John Calvin 50. In Federalist No. 10, James Madison argues that a federal system of government reduces the danger of political factions by (A) creating insurmountable obstacles to the founding of factions (B) making it difficult for one faction to gain the power necessary to govern (C) requiring equal representation of all factions within the government (D) restricting factional political activity to the state level only (E) allowing federal agencies to strictly regulate the activities of factions

FEDERALISM 1999 18. In the federal system of government, political power is primarily (A) vested in local governments (B) vested in the regional governments (C) vested in the central governments (D) divided between the central government and regional governments (E) divided between regional governments and local governments 41. Diversity of public policy throughout the United States is primarily a consequence of (A) federalism (B) separation of powers (C) innovation within bureaucratic agencies (D) decentralization in the Senate (E) lack of party discipline in the House 2002 5. The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to (A) prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government (B) reserve powers to the states (C) restrict the application of judicial review (D) allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest (E) limit the use of the legislative veto 6. CHARTf 9. The terms fiscal federalism and cooperative federalism refer to situations in which (A) the federal government completely dominates state and local governments (B) states are forbidden any activity that has not been specifically approved by the Supreme Court (C) the federal judiciary uses its power of judicial review to ensure congressional dominance over state legislature (D) state, municipal, and local income taxes are pooled by special agreement and redistributed in accordance with individual need (E) federal, state, and local governments work together to complete a project, with the federal government providing much of the project funding

21. Congressional district boundaries are usually redrawn every ten years by (A) Bureau of the Census (B) state legislatures (C) President (D) House Rules Committee (E) Federal Election Commission

29. States and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from (A) categorical grants (B) matching grants (C) block grants (D) project grants (E) grants-in-aid 42. Which of the following actions by the federal government best illustrates the concept of unfunded mandates? (A) Requiring that polling booths remain open beyond the hours of the work day (B) Requiring states the municipalities to provide certain services for their citizens without providing resources to pay for those services (C) Requiring state governments to guarantee short-term bonds issued by large municipalities in their states (D) Requiring all municipalities to impose a minimum property tax on all residential and business properties (E) Requiring states and municipalities to privatize many previously publicly funded services 60. Federal benefits that must be funded by Congress and must be paid to all citizens who meet eligibility criteria are called (A) discretionary appropriations (B) individual entitlements (C) distributive benefits (D) tax expenditures (E) continuing appropriations 1989 Questions 16 -17 refer to the following excerpt from a United States Supreme Court decision We are unanimously of opinion, that the law passed by the legislature of Maryland, imposing a tax on the Bank of the United States, is unconstitutional and void...This is a tax on the operation of an instrument employed by the government of the Union to carry its powers into execution. Such a tax must be unconstitutional... 16. This decision of the Supreme Court upheld the principle that (A) the federal government and the state governments are equal (B) Congress has only those powers specifically enumerated in the Constitution (C) Congress has the power to make laws to carry out its constitutional duties (D) taxation without representation is unconstitutional (E) the federal government alone may levy taxes 17. Which of the following resulted from this Supreme Court decision? (A) The power of the national government was strengthened (B) The power of the Supreme Court was weakened (C) The power of state governments to tax individual citizens was clearly limited (D) Congress was given the power to coin money (E) Congress alone was given the power to charter banks

46. Which of the following best defines the constitutional interpretation of federalism? (A) The federal government and the states each have separate and mutually exclusive roles and responsibilities; neither controls the other (B) The states have some powers reserved to theme which they may exercise if the Supreme Court permits (C) The federal government and the states have separated but overlapping powers; where these powers conflict the federal government prevails (D) The states may only exercise those powers delegated to them by Congress (E) The federal government may exercise only those powers specifically enumerated in the Constitution SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD 1. In the organization of government, the principle of federalism is illustrated best by the (A) Presidents power as commander in chief (B) separation of powers between the United States Supreme Court and Congress (C) representation system for electing senators (D) qualifications for the office of President (E) federal bureaucracy 18/19 CHART PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 16. Of all of the following, American federalism is most clearly exemplified by the (A) system of checks and balances among the three branches of the national government (B) process by which international treaties are completed (C) special constitutional status of Washington, DC (D) Tenth Amendment to the Constitution (E) presidents power to grant reprieves and pardons PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 1. To which characteristic of American government does the term federalism refer? (A) The system of checks and balances within the national government (B) The power of the Supreme Court to review the constitutionality of laws (C) The Bill of Rights protection of the rights of the accused (D) The process by which the size of each states delegation to the House of Representatives is determined (E) The division and sharing of power between the national and state governments 7. The national and state governments share all of the following powers EXCEPT the power to (A) administer elections (B) impose taxes (C) establish courts (D) borrow money (E) enact laws

19. The government often finds it difficult to make substantive change to entitlement programs for which of the following reasons? (A) Most such programs were established by constitutional amendment (B) These programs are extremely popular among their numerous beneficiaries (C) Such programs are vital to national defense (D) Most such programs primarily benefit the wealthy, a powerful political bloc (E) These programs budgets are determined by nonelected bureaucrats, not by Congress 38. In the majority of cases, federal programs are implemented by (A) private businesses working as subcontractors to the government (B) state and local governments, by means of federal funding (C) Congress, through the local offices of its elected representatives (D) the federal courts by means of criminal prosecutions (E) federal agencies, though their many local offices in cities and towns

ELECTIONS AND CAMPAIGNS 1999 3. A primary election in which voters are required to identify a party preference before the election and are not allowed to split their ticket is called (A) an open primary (B) a blanket primary (C) a closed primary (D) a runoff primary (E) a presidential preference primary 4. When selecting a vice-presidential candidate, a presidential nominee is usually concerned primarily with choosing a running mate who (A) has significant personal wealth (B) adds balance and appeal to the national ticket (C) comes from the same ideological wing of the party as the President (D) can serve as the most important domestic policy adviser to the President (E) can effectively preside over the Senate 5. The primary function of political action committees (PACs) is to (A) serve as fund-raising organizations for challengers (B) provide members of Congress with unbiased information regarding proposed (C) consult with the President regarding domestic policy (D) encourage broader participation in politics among the electorate (E) raise campaign funds to support favored candidates 7. Registered voters directly elect which of the following? I. The President and Vice President II. Supreme Court justices III. Members of the Senate IV. Members of the House of Representatives (A) I only (B) IV only (C) I and II only (D) III and IV only (E) II, III, and IV only 19. Which of the following generalizations about group voting tendencies is true? (A) Jewish voters tend to vote Republican (B) Protestant voters tend to be more liberal than Roman Catholics on economic issues. (C) More women than men identify themselves as Republicans (D) Rural voters are more likely to support Democratic candidates than are urban voters (E) African American Democrats tend to support the more liberal candidates within their party

legislation

20. Which of the following is a significant trend in the presidential nominating process over the past three decades? (A) Replacement of national party conventions by national primaries for each party (B) Increasing importance of presidential primaries rather than state conventions (C) A sharply declining role for political action committees (PACs) (D) Decreasing cost of campaigns (E) Increasing control of political party leaders over outcomes 24. CHART 32. Political socialization is the process by which (A) the use of private property is regulated by the government (B) governments communicate with each other (C) public attitudes toward government are measured and reported (D) political values are passed to the next generation (E) children are trained for successful occupations 33. Which of the following is the most important influence on the choice made by voters in presidential elections? (A) Partisan identification (B) Party platform adopted at the national convention (C) Vice-Presidential running mate (D) Endorsement by political incumbents (E) Appeal of the candidates spouses 34. The advantages of incumbency in congressional elections include which of the following? I. II. III. IV. V. Incumbents receive more campaign contributions than do challengers Incumbents are able to provide important services for individual voters The government provides campaign funds for incumbents The President usually endorses incumbents for reelection Most American voters believe Congress does a good job

(A) I and II only (B) II and IV only (C) I, IV and V only (D) II, III, and V only (E) III, IV, and V only 39. The boundaries of United States congressional districts are usually determined by (A) the Federal Election Commission (FEC) (B) the state legislatures (C) the House Rules Committee (D) a conference committee of the House and Senate (E) the director of the United States Census Bureau

47. Critical elections in the United States typically have occurred (A) as a result of temporary shift in the popular coalition supporting one or both parties (B) whenever a third party has secured more than fifteen percent of the presidential vote (C) each time a Republican has been elected President (D) when voter turnout has declined significantly from the previous election (E) when groups of voters have changed their traditional patterns of party loyalties 48. When 18 to 21 year olds received the right to voted in 1971, in the 1972 elections they did which of the following? (A)Voted overwhelmingly for Republican candidates (B)Voted overwhelmingly for Democratic candidates (C)Voted overwhelmingly for radical candidates (D)Turned out at a lower rate than the rest of the electorate (E) Turned out at the same rate as the rest of the electorate 49. The largest amount of political coverage in newspapers during presidential campaigns is devoted to (A) day-to-day campaign activities (B) the platforms of the major parties (C) candidates policy stands on domestic issues (D) candidates stands on foreign policy issues (E) candidates experience and qualifications 50. A state has 11 electoral votes. In a presidential election, the Democratic candidate receives 48 percent of that states popular vote, the Republican candidate receives 40 percent of the vote, and an independent candidate receives 12 percent of the vote. If the state is similar to most other states, how will the electoral votes most likely be allocated? (A) The Democratic candidate will receive 5 electoral votes, the Republican will receive 4, and the independent will receive 2 (B) The Democratic candidate will receive 6 electoral votes and the Republican will receive 5 (C) The Democratic candidate will receive all the 11 electoral votes (D) The votes will not be allocated until there has been a runoff election between the Democratic and Republican candidates (E) The House of Representatives will determine the allocation of the electoral votes

51. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about political parties in the United States? (A) Parties increasingly identify themselves with coherent ideologies to attract large blocs of voters (B) The percentage of voters identifying themselves as either Democrats or Republicans has been declining since the 1970s (C) National party organizations are generally the strongest party organizations (D) It is increasingly difficult for third parties to gain more than two percent of the popular vote (E) Most candidates prefer to run as independents rather than as Democrats or Republicans 56. An election involving more than two candidates in which the person who receives the most votes is the winner is called (A) a majority election (B) a proportional election

(C) a plurality election (D) a simple election (E) an indirect election 2002 1. Considering all elections at all levels of government, which of the following best describes electoral behavior in the United States? (A) Primary elections tend to elicit a higher voter turnout than do general elections (B) The majority of the electorate does not vote in most elections (C) Voter turnout plays and insignificant role in election outcomes (D) Adult citizens under the age of 30 tend to have the highest rate of voter turnout (E) Voters with strong party identification vote less regularly than do independents 3/4 CHART 10. Which of the following is a result of the Electoral College system? (A) The winner of the presidency often lacks a majority of the popular vote (B) Candidates focus on one-party states in which they can win most of the electoral votes (C) The House of Representatives frequently chooses the President from the top three candidates (D) Candidates focus on the states with the largest populations (E) Campaign spending increases because candidates emphasize television advertising 16/17 CHART

21. Which of the following best explains why delegates to both the Republican and Democratic Conventions in 1996 were much more likely to have college and postgraduate degrees than was the rest of the voting population? (A) College education increases the likelihood of the holding liberal political positions (B) College education increases the likelihood of holding conservative political positions (C) Political activism increases with education levels (D) Education allows people to have more time to attend conventions (E) Some states required delegates to hold college degrees

23. Which of the following took place after presidential candidates Truman in 1948, Nixon in 1968, and Clinton in 1992 won only pluralities of the popular vote? (A) The election was formally decided in the House of Representatives

(B) The election was formally decided in the Senate (C) The winning candidate took office after receiving less than 50 % of the popular votes cast (D) The electoral college votes cast by independents were critical in determining the winner (E) The results of the popular vote necessitated a runoff 24. Which of the following is generally true of the gerrymandering of congressional districts? (A) It results in more Democrats being elected to the House (B) It results in more Republicans being elected to the House (C) It guarantees that all minority parties will be equally represented (D) It creates districts that favor one political party over another (E) It violates the principle of one-person, one-vote 30. CHART 35. An electoral system based on single-member districts is usually characterized by (A) strong, centralized political parties and a weak executive (B) higher rates of voter turnout than are common in other systems (C) legislative representation of each party in proportion to the number of votes it (D) domination of the legislature by two political parties (E) ideological rather than mass-based parties

receives

44. Which of the following is a provision of federal election laws? (A) A small fee must be paid by persons voting in federal elections (B) On-site registration to vote must be permitted on the day of any federal election (C) Electoral districts must be apportioned to equalize the numbers of Democratic and Republican voters wherever a historic imbalance exists (D) Citizens must be automatically registered to vote on their eighteenth birthday (E) In areas with significant populations of linguistic minorities, voting materials must be made available in the preferred languages of the population 58. The concept of critical elections is most closely associated with (A) the electoral college process (B) elections during wartime (C) the nomination process (D) economic recession (E) party realignment

1989

8. Which of the following statements most accurately compares elections in the United States with those in other Western democracies? (A) United States citizens have fewer opportunities to vote in elections (B) Political parties exert a stronger influence over voting in the United States (C) There are fewer obstacles to voting in the United States (D) There are more political parties in the United States (E) The voter turnout rate in the United States is usually lower 11 CHART 12. Suppose that in 1980 strong Democrats who shared Ronald Reagans views on taxation and Republican women who opposed their partys plank on the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) both turned out to vote at unexpectedly low rates. These findings would provide evidence for which of the following hypotheses? (A) Anything that produces cross-pressure reduces turnout (B) Strong party identification promotes participation (C) Rational voters need a sense of civic duty to motivate them to vote (D) Those who express satisfaction with candidate choices are less likely to vote (E) Those who are party activists are not likely to vote 27. Which of the following would result from the direct election of presidential candidates? (A) A national primary would be established (B) Party nominating conventions would be abolished (C) Each vote would count equally in determining which candidate won the election (D) The electoral college would become more influential in the electoral process (E) Third-Party candidates would have less chance of winning the election 28. Since 1960 the presidential election process has been affected by an increase in all of the following EXCEPT the (A) proportion of independents in the electorate (B) influence of political consultants (C) number of primaries (D) turnout of voters (E) role of television 29. Between 1964 and 1984, which of the following would have been most likely to vote for the Democratic presidential candidate? (A) A Cuban- American business executive from Miami (B) A Black teacher from Los Angeles (C) A White doctor from Atlanta (D) A Polish-American truck driver from Phoenix (E) A Methodist farmer from Iowa

30. Voting is partly a matter of habit: the more frequently a person has voted in the past, the more likely she or he is to vote in the current election All of the following support the observation above EXCEPT: (A) Immediately after Twenty- Sixth Amendment in 1971 gave 18-to-21 year olds the vote, the proportion of eligible voters who actually voted declined. (B) Immediately after the Nineteenth Amendment in 1920 gave women the right to vote, the proportion of eligible voters who actually voted declined. (C) Immediately after the passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965, the participation rate of Black voters in the South was lower than the White voters in the South. (D) Unmarried persons over the age of 65 are less likely to vote than are married persons in that age group. (E) Newly naturalized citizens may need special inducements to vote. 55. During the past forty-five year, all of the following changes in public opinion and political behavior have occurred in the United States EXCEPT (A) a decline in party competition in the South (B) a decline in the level of trust in government (C) a drop in voter turnout (D) an increase in ticket-splitting (E) an erosion of party loyalties, especially among young people SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD 2. All of the following contribute to the success of incumbent members of Congress in election campaigns EXCEPT (A) Incumbents usually raise more campaign funds than do their challengers (B) Incumbents tend to understand national issues better than do their challengers (C) Incumbents are usually better known to voters than are their challengers (D) Incumbents can use legislative staff to perform campaign services (E) Incumbents often sit on committees that permit them to serve district interests 15. The primary election system of selecting presidential candidates has had which of the following effects? (A) It has increased importance of state party organizations (B) It has loosened the hold of party leaders over the nominations process (C) It has reduced the role of citizens in the candidate selection process (D) It has lowered the cost of running for office (E) It has led to a decline in the importance of party voter-registration drives 23 CHART

PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 13. Voters who rely exclusively on television network news coverage of national elections are most likely to be aware of (A) which special interest groups have endorsed which candidates (B) the relative strength of each candidates support, as indicated by public opinion polls (C) candidates positions on international crisis (D) candidates positions on domestic issues (E) candidates congressional voting records 27. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the voting behavior of Americans over the age of 65? (A) They are as, or more, likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they have received the highest level of formal education of all age groups (B) They are as, or more, likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they believe that they have a personal stake in government policy (C) They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they are less likely to be aware of election schedules (D) They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they are less likely to be aware of election schedules (E) They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because very few senior citizens run for political office 35. Which of the following statements about the electoral college is correct? (A) Each state must split its electoral votes among all the candidates that receive votes (B) Each state is equally represented in the electoral college (C) The electoral college was created by an amendment to the Constitution (D) The results of electoral college voting tend to distort the winners margin of victory, when compared with the popular vote for president (E) Each states delegation to the electoral college consists of that states U.S. senators and representatives 36. Which of the following statements is true of congressional incumbents who run for reelection? (A) Incumbent senators are more likely to be reelected than are incumbent members of the House of Representatives (B) Incumbents are prohibited by law from spending more on their reelection campaigns than their challengers spend (C) Incumbents have a great advantage over challengers because they are better known and can raise campaign funds more easily (D) Ever since the 1994 election, the majority of congressional incumbents have failed in their reelection attempts (E) Most incumbents who run for reelection are unopposed in the general election

40. The boundary lines of congressional districts must be redrawn every 10 years to (A) reflect population shifts indicated by the national census (B) guarantee the turnover of the majority of congressional seats (C) make sure each states congressional delegation exactly mirrors its residents party affiliations (D) determine which partys leader will be named Speaker of the House (E) increase the number of female and minority members of Congress 41 CHART 56 CHART 57. Which of the following factors would mist likely explain why voter registration records underestimate the number of Independent voters in the United States? (A) Independents are less likely than Republicans or Democrats to register to vote (B) Many Americans who consider themselves Independent do not participate in elections (C) Independents make up only a small portion of the electorate (D) Because Independents in many states are not allowed to participate in primary elections, many Independents register as either Republicans or Democrats (E) The majority of Independents are non-citizens who are not allowed to vote PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 13. All of the following can be considered true about the impact of a higher level of education on voting habits EXCEPT (A) voters are more likely to support government-enforced racial and sexual equality (B) voters are more likely to support environmental protection efforts (C) voters are more likely to support public prayer in schools (D) voters are less likely to support restrictions on abortion rights (E) voters are more likely to promote civil liberties 23. In the past decade many states have moved forward the date of their presidential primary elections in an effort to (A) minimize the cost of running the election (B) convince the national government to move forward the date of the general election (C) restrict the number of entrants in the presidential race (D) focus greater national attention on their state primary races (E) increase the significance of their election results 35. The rules governing the electoral college make it especially important for presidential candidates to (A) win as many states as possible, regardless of the size of the states (B) spend most of their time campaigning in the south (C) campaign most aggressively among those who will be chosen as electors (D) concentrate their campaign efforts on battleground states (E) concentrate on the states in which they are farthest behind, to reduce the margin of their eventual losses in those states

41. An open primary is a primary election in which (A) voters registered as independents may not vote (B) candidates do not specify the office for which they are running (C) voters may register at their polling place on election day (D) candidates need not announce their candidacy until the day of the primary (E) voters may vote in the election of a party other than the one to which they are registered 42. Which of the following describes an unintended result of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1974? (A) Limits were placed on the amount of money individuals could donate to a federal election campaign (B) Federal funding became available to presidential candidates who agree to abide by spending (C) Candidates drastically decreased the amount of money spent on television advertising (D) Thousands of political action committees were created to raise funds for candidates (E) The number of third-party campaigns for the presidency decreased dramatically 43. Politicians and political reporters are natural adversaries; the adversarial nature of their relationship, however, is tempered by the fact that (A) younger politicians who are more comfortable with the media are gradually displacing older politicians (B) government regulations on interaction between the two groups are very strict (C) each group is dependent on the other to perform its job effectively (D) very few media outlets will cover a story that is embarrassing to a political leader (E) most government activity is classified and therefore inaccessible to the media 60. Which of the following is true of congressional redistricting? (A) The responsibility for redrawing congressional districts belongs to congressional committees (B) It is a noncontroversial process because it has few political ramifications (C) It occurs every 10 years to reflect changes in population according to the census (D) The Supreme Court has ruled that legislators may not consider racial demographics when redrawing districts

LOBBYING AND INTEREST GROUPS

1989 43. All of following are commonly used by interest groups to influence the political process EXCEPT (A) lobbying (B) contributing money to candidates (C) nominating candidates (D) filling lawsuits (E) appealing to public opinion 51. Which of the following techniques would a corporate lobbyist by likely to use influence political outcomes in Congress? I. II. III. IV. Organizing a demonstration in Washington just before a key House vote Ensuring that the corporations political action committee (PAC) makes donations to the campaigns of members of key committees Meeting informally with Senate aides over lunch or cocktails Bringing influential constitutions to Washington to discuss important policy matters with their representatives

(A) II only (B) I and II only (C) II and IV only (D) I, II and IV only (E) II, III, and IV only

58. Which of the following statements about political action committees (PACs) is true? (A) PACS may give unlimited contributions to the election campaigns of individual candidates (B) PAC spending has not kept pace with inflation (C) PAC activity is limited to direct contributions to candidates (D) Social issue groups are the source of most PAC dollars (E) PAC spending makes up a higher percentage of congressional campaign funds than of presidential campaign funds

1999 19. A corporate lobbyist would be LEAST likely to have an informal discussion about a pending policy matter with which of the following?

(A) A member of the House in whose district the corporation has a plant (B) A member of the White House staff concerned about the issue (C) A member of the staff of the Senate committee handling a matter of concern to the corporation (D) A federal judge in whose court a case important to the corporation is being heard (E) A journalist for a major newspaper concerned about the issue 37. Interest groups and political parties both promote United States democracy by (A) expressing detailed, ideologically distinct programs (B) centralizing public authority (C) linking citizens to the political process (D) increasing domination of the political process by elites (E) lobbying members of Congress 8. Which of the following is true of amicus curiae briefs? (A) They are used by interest groups to lobby courts (B) They are used exclusively by liberal interest groups (C) They are used exclusively by conservative interest groups (D) They are now unconstitutional (E) They are means by which of litigant seeks Supreme Court review of a lower court decision 2002 27. Lobbyists try to influence legislators mainly through (A) wining and dining legislatures (B) orchestrating petition drives and letter-writing campaigns (C) placing persuasive advertisements in the media (D) threatening to help the legislators opponent in the next election (E) providing legislators with information on technical issues 55. Political action committees (PACs) representing which of the following groups have increased in number most substantially since the mid-1970s? (A) Labor (B) Business (C) Health-care professionals (D) Veterans groups (E) Civil rights advocates

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD 21. An interest group is most likely to have influence in Congress when the issue at stake

(A) is narrow in scope and low in public visibility (B) is part of the Presidents legislative package (C) has been dramatized by the media (D) engages legislators deeply held convictions (E) divides legislators along party lines PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 12. The primary function of political action committees (PACs) is to (A) contribute money to candidates for reelection (B) coordinate local get-out-the-vote campaigns (C) promote the defeat of incumbents in the federal and state legislatures (D) organize protest demonstrations and other acts of civil disobedience (E) contact Congress to suggest legislation 42. Interest groups representing businesspeople and investors are often among the most successful lobbying groups in Washington, DC, for all of the following reasons EXCEPT (A) Such groups have the financial resources to mount sustained campaigns on their own (B) Many such groups have been in existence for several decades or more, allowing them master the legislative system and to develop close ties with legislators (C) In many districts, these groups constituents make up the majority of voters (D) These groups constituents contribute heavily to many legislators campaigns, and in so, gain greater access to legislators (E) Economic lobbyists often campaign for obscure or minute changes to tax law about the public knows little, and therefore frequently meet little opposition 53. The term iron triangle refers to the interrelationship of the (A) president, Congress, and the Supreme Court (B) electorate, Congress, and political action committees (C) local, state, and federal governments (D) State Department, the Pentagon, and the National Security Council (E) federal bureaucracy, congressional committees, and lobbyists PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 5. The legislative successes of the National Rifle Association, antiabortion activists, and other powerful interest groups demonstrate that (A) United States domestic policy has grown more conservative in the 1990s (B) the influence of political action committees has weakened in recent years (C) the power of interest groups depends on the degree of support for their positions in the White House (D) majority opinion on an issue can sometimes be overridden by the intensity of a minoritys commitment of activism (E) the most powerful interest groups in the United States are generally those that support uncontroversial positions 8. Which group most frequently benefits from political action committee (PAC) donations? (A) Charitable organizations (B) Federal judges behalf to doing which

(C) Political interest groups (D) Research institutes (E) Incumbents running for reelection 28. CHART 57. Considered as a single group, the Small Business Administration, the Small Business committees in the House and Senate, and small business advocacy groups are an example of (A) an iron triangle (B) a conference committee (C) a regulatory agency (D) dual Federalism (E) a third party

POLITICAL PARTIES/IDEOLOGY

1989 10. Which of the following best describes the relationship between socioeconomic status and participation in politics? (A) The lower ones socioeconomic status the more likely it is that one will run for public office (B) The higher ones socioeconomic status, the greater the probability of active involvement in the political process (C) Adults who are unemployed have a greater personal interest in policy and tend to participate more actively in politics than do employed adults (D) People in the lower middle class are not the most likely to participate in politics (E) There is no relationship between socioeconomic status and political participation 13. Which of the following were LEAST likely to have been part of the New Deal electoral coalition? (A) Blue-collar workers (B)Racial minorities (C)Southerners (D)Northern business leaders (E) Farm laborers 22. Which of the following statements reflects a pluralist theory of American politics? (A) American politics is dominated by a small elite (B) Public policies emerge from cooperation among elites in business, labor, and government (C) Public policies emerge from compromises reached among competing groups (D) American politics is dominated by cities at the expense of rural areas (E) The American political arena is made up of isolated individuals who have few group affiliations outside the family 42. American political culture is characterized by strong popular support for all of the following EXCEPT (A) the rule of law (B) limited government (C) individual liberty (D) equality of opportunity (E) economic equality 54. Which of the following is an accurate statement about political participation in the United States today? (A) A majority of Americans campaign for a candidate in each presidential election (B) Over 75% of Americans vote in presidential elections (C) People who participate in the political process are usually angry at the government (D) Similar proportions of eligible men and women vote in presidential elections (E) People in their thirties or forties are less likely to be active in politics than are those aged 18 to 21

1999 2 CHART

2002 13. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of the two major political parties in the United States? (A) Parties have no organizations except at the traditional level (B) Parties are centrally organized to provide a smooth transition from one national campaign to the next (C) Parties are organized much like a large corporation, in that decisions flow from national to state and local levels (D) Local and state parties have virtually no power in the party system (E) Separate and largely independent party organizations exist at the national, state and local levels 16/ 17 CHART 28. CHART SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD 8. CHART 10. Which of the following statements about Democrats and Republicans is true? (A) City dwellers are more likely to call themselves Republicans than Democrats (B) Republicans are more likely than Democrats to label themselves conservatives (C) African American citizens are more likely to call themselves Republicans than Democrats (D) Republicans are more likely than Democrats to believe that adequate medical care should be guaranteed by the federal government (E) People in working-class occupations are more likely to call themselves Republicans than Democrats 11. Of the following groups of eligible voters, which is least likely to vote? (A)The young with low education levels (B) The middle-aged with low education levels (C)Middle-aged and older women (D) Blue-collar workers (E) Middle-class African American citizens

14. Political parties serve which of the following functions in the United States? I. Informing the public about political issues II. Mobilizing voters and getting them to the polls III. Organizing diverse interests within society IV. Establishing the rules governing financial contributions to political candidates

(A) II only (B) I and II only (C) III and IV only (D) I, II, and III only (E) I, III, and IV only 16. Of the following, which best predicts the likelihood that citizens will vote? (A) Their race (B) Their religion (C) Their educational level (D) Their gender (E) Their region of residence 24. Political socialization is the process by which (A) the use of private property is regulated by the government (B) governments communicate with each other (C) public attitudes toward government are measured and reported (D) political values are passed to the next generation (E) children are trained for successful occupations PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 8. Which of the following best describes the practice of ticket splitting? (A) A presidential nominee selects a running mate who can appeal to voter groups whose support of the nominee is weak (B) A voter chooses the presidential nominee of one major party, but chooses congressional nominees of the other major party (C) A mayor orders the local police force to hand out fewer parking violations in the weeks leading up to the general election (D) A delegate to a national party convention supports the front-runner but remains uncommitted on the party platform (E) A member of Congress votes against legislation proposed by his or her party leader 10. Compared with political parties in countries such as England and Israel, both of which have multiparty systems, American political parties are (A) less interested in influencing the outcome of elections (B) less clearly indentified with consistent political ideologies (C) less effective at raising money from political supporters (D) better able to reflect the goals of their entire constituencies (E) more likely to organize around a single issue or goal 23. Successful candidates for the Republican presidential nomination tend to be more conservative than rank-and-file Republicans because (A) moderate Republicans are less likely than conservative Republicans to gain widespread support in the general election (B) most moderate Republicans have approved of the Democratic presidential candidate (C) most rank-and-file Republicans do not care whether their partys nominee shares their political views

(D) party activists, whose political participation is disproportionate to their numbers, tend to be very conservative (E) the Republican Party does not allow rank-and-file member to participate in the selection of the partys nominee 28. A member of which of the following demographic groups is most likely to support a Republican presidential candidate? (A) White male (B) White female (C) African American, male or female (D) Youths under the age of 25, male or female (E) Individuals earning below poverty-level wages, male or female 43. Of the following groups that have traditionally supported the Democratic Party, which would LEAST likely be cited by someone arguing that the Democrats represented only liberal constituencies? (A) White southerners (B) Labor union members (C) African Americans (D) Northern ethnic minorities (E) Environmentalists 44. The greatest number of American voters identify themselves as (A) liberal (B) conservative (C) progressive (D) reactionary (E) moderate 45. People who join a political party other than the one to which their parents belong most often do so because of (A) peer pressure (B) economic issues (C) religious beliefs (D) pressure from their employers (E) issues of international politics

46. Which of the following best describes the fate of most popular third-party movements? (A) They displace one of the two major parties and become major parties themselves (B) The are ultimately abandoned by the public because their politics are perceived as too radical (C) Their supporters become frustrated and withdraw from the political process (D) They remain active participants in the American political system indefinitely (E) They disintegrate when one or both of the major parties adopt the third partys goals

PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 10 CHART 11. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the leadership of the two major political parties? (A) The national party organization controls all facets of party activity throughout the country (B) Party leadership is dispersed among numerous officials at the national, state, and local levels (C) The highest elected official in each national party directs that partys activities and operations all the way down to the state and local levels (D) All major decisions concerning party activities are made during each partys presidential nomination conventions (E) Prominent former officeholders, such as ex-presidents, lead their respective political parties 15. Under which of the following conditions are people most likely to vote? (A) When they believe that none of the contested races is close (B) When media coverage of the election is intense (C) When the voter is unfamiliar with the candidates (D) When the voter is unaffiliated with a political party (E) During a midterm election 37. The absence of a political party solely dedicated to labor and working class issues in the United States (A) the membership of committees often over-represents (B) is the result of government restrictions placed on the political activities of labor unions (C) reflects the difficulty of unifying a party around a single issues in a winner-take-all f format (D) demonstrates that, in the United States, most political issues regarding workers have been decided in the workers favor (E) illustrates that race, not class, is the primary political division in the United States 44. All of the following contribute to lower voting rates among Americans in the 18-to-25 age bracket EXCEPT (A) college attendance in a state other than ones home state (B) frequent relocation of ones primary residence (C) the remoteness of most political issues to the daily lives of young people (D) the fact that the minimum voting age in some states is 21 (E) military service 46. When the Democratic Party pursues liberal social policies, it is most likely to alienate which of its traditional bases? (A) People holding advanced academic degrees (B) Northeastern city dwellers (C) Southerners (D) Jewish Americans (E) Urban African Americans 53. Which of the following is true of most third parties in U.S. history? (A) They arose and succeeded during times of prosperity

(B) They were created to protest wars (C) At some point they won a majority of seats in Congress (D) They flourished during periods of widespread dissatisfaction (E) They arose in response to increased government regulation 56. Which of the following statements about voting patterns is NOT true? (A) Non-whites are more likely to vote Democratic than are whites (B) Women are more likely to vote Democratic than are men (C) Low-income Americans are more likely to vote Democratic than are upperincome Americans (D) Fundamentalists are more likely to vote Democratic than are non-religious Americans (E) Homosexuals are more likely to vote Democratic than are heterosexuals

LEGISLATIVE BRANCH
1989 2. A first-term member of the House of Representatives from North Dakota who wished to maximize opportunities for constituent service would be opportunities for constituent service would be most likely to seek placement on which of the following? (A) Judiciary (B) Agriculture

(C) Rules (D) Foreign affairs (E) Science and technology 3. In the last years, the single most important variable in determining the outcome of an election for a member of the House of Representatives has been (A) Incumbency (B) Personal wealth (C) Previous political offices held in the district (D) Membership in the political party of the President (E) Positions on key social issues 4. The power of the Rules Committee in the House of Representatives rests on its authority to (A) Choose the chairs of other standing committees and issues rules for the selection of subcommittee chairs (B) Initiate all spending legislation and hold budget hearings (C) Place a bill on the legislative calendar, limit time for debate, and determine the type of amendments allowed (D) Determine the procedures by which nominations by the President will be approved by the House (E) Choose the President if no candidate wins a majority in the electoral college 18. The details of legislation are usually worked out in which of the following settings? (A) A party caucus (B) the majority leaders house (C) The floor of the House (D) Legislative hearings (E) A subcommittee 21. Pork barrel legislation helps the reelection chances of a member of Congress because such legislation (A) gives the member of Congress national standing and coverage on national television news (B) helps earn the member of Congress a reputation for service to his or her district (C) attracts campaign contributions from ideological political action committees (PACs) (D) prevents other candidates from claiming that the member of Congress is too liberal for his or her district (E) requires the member of Congress to travel extensively 34. Most of the bills introduced in the House and the Senate are then (A) passed by one chamber but not the other (B) passed by both chambers but vetoed by the President (C) referred to committee but never sent to the full Congress (D) voted down during the amendment stage of the floor debate (E) killed in the Rules Committee 36. A President may persuade recalcitrant members of Congress to vote for a particular bill by (A) having members who oppose the bill transferred to unpopular committees (B) denying campaign funds to members who oppose the bill (C) threatening to deny re-nomination to members who oppose the bill

(D) regulating certain industries to protect the public interest (E) increasing the Presidents patronage powers 40. Which of the following has decreased in Congress over the past thirty years? (A) the chances of members reelection (B) the influence of committee chairs (C) the power of subcommittees (D) the total number of congressional staff employees (E) the cost of congressional elections 49. CHART 52. Congress has exerted the greatest influence on the operation of a federal agency by doing which of the following? (A) Requiring the agency to participate in interagency task forces (B) Dismissing and agency head who disagrees with congressional priorities (C) Reviewing the annual budget appropriations for the agency (D) Passing sunset legislation that terminates programs after a certain period (E) Asking the Supreme Court for advisory opinions on agency regulations 60. Debate of a bill in the House of Representatives under a closed rule means that (A) the bill can only be amended by section (B) debate on the bill will consist of five-minute speeches, pro and con (C) only senior members are allowed to participate (D) amendments to the bill cannot be offered (E) the bill must be approved by two-thirds of the House 1999 8. The role of a conference committee in Congress is to (A) hold hearings on proposed legislation (B) oversee the actions of the executive branch of the government (C) decide which bills should be considered by the full Senate (D) conduct hearings that make information available to the public (E) reconcile differences in bills passed by the House and Senate

10. The committee system is more important in the House than in the Senate because (A) the seniority system plays no role in the House and therefore committees must play a larger role (B) the Constitution mandates the type of committee structure in the House (C) committee members are appointed by the President (D) the House is so large that more work can be accomplished in committees than on the floor (E) the majority party in the House prefers to give priority to the work of committees 21. Congressional standing committees are best described as (A) specially appointed investigative bodies

(B) joint committees of the two houses of Congress (C) committees created for each session (D) permanent subject-matter committees (E) advisory staff agencies 23. In which of the following did Congress move to regain powers previously lost to the executive branch? (A) Budget and Impoundment Control Act (B) Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Act (C) Presidential Disability Act (D) Gulf of Tonkin Resolution (E) Persian Gulf War Resolution 25. Which of the following actions can Congress take if the Supreme Court finds a federal law unconstitutional? (A) Appeal the Courts decision to the District of Columbias Court of Appeals (B) Formally request the President to veto the Courts decision (C) Remove certain members of the Court and replace them with new members (D) Try to amend the Constitution (E) Reenact the same law 26. Which of the following statements about Congress is true? (A) Members of Congress only occasionally are interested in and pay attention to constituents (B) The legislative process is frequently lengthy, decentralized, and characterized by compromise and bargaining (C) Lobbyists and political action committees (PACs) successfully induce most members of Congress to trade with votes for campaign contributions (D) The growth in the size of Congress as an organization is the principal cause of growth in the federal budget deficit (E) Debate in both houses is structured by elaborate rules enacted by leaders of the majority party 28. In the 1992 election, the membership of Congress was altered significantly by an increase in the number of (A) conservative Democrats (B) liberal Republicans (C) third-party representatives (D) political independents (E) minorities and women 35. Which of the following statements about rules of procedure in the House and Senate is correct? (A) Debate by a determined minority in either chamber cannot be halted (B) The rules in each chamber are determined by the majority whip (C) The rules are specified in Article I of the Constitution (D) The rules can be changed by the President during a national emergency (E) The House operates more by formal rules, while the Senate operates more on informal understandings 43. One of the formal tools used by Congress for oversight of the bureaucracy is (A) the line-item veto (B) authorization of spending (C) impoundment bills

(D) private bills (E) senatorial courtesy 52. The congressional power that has been contested most frequently in the federal courts is the power to (A) establish post offices (B) coin money (C) levy taxes (D) regulate commerce with foreign nations (E) regulate interstate commerce 53. Which of the following is an accurate statement about committees in Congress? (A) The work of a committee ends when it submits a bill to the full House or Senate for consideration (B) An individual representative or senator can serve on only one committed and one subcommittee (C) Membership on key committees such as House Rules and Senate Finance is limited to fixed terms (D) Standing committees oversee the bureaucracys implementation of legislation (E) Committee recommendations tend to have little influence on floor voting 55. Which of the following for an iron triangle? (A) President, Congress, Supreme Court (B) President, House majority leader, Senate majority leader (C) Interest group, Senate majority leader, House majority leader (D) Executive department, House majority leader, President (E) Executive department, Congressional committee, interest group 2002 11. Which of the following committees of the House of Representatives sets the conditions for debate and amendment of most legislation? (A) Ways and Means (B) Appropriation (C) Judiciary (D) Rules (E) Government Operations 22. The franking privilege refers to the (A) Federal Reserve Boards control over interest rates (B) practice of permitting senators to preview lists of judicial nominees (C) practice whereby legislators with the most seniority select the committees on which they want to serve (D) right of the chair to control the schedule of his or her congressional committee (E) right of members of Congress to send mail to their constituents at the governments expense 51. A major difference between the House of Representatives and the Senate is that (A) filibusters are possible only in the House (B) revenue bills must originate in the Senate (C) judicial nominations originate in a House committee (D) each state has equal representation in the House but not in the Senate

(E) there is unlimited debate in the Senate but not in the House 54. To which of the following congressional committees would a proposal to reform the national incometax system initially be sent? (A) House Appropriations Committee (B) House Ways and Means Committee (C) House Budget Committee (D) Senate Budget Committee (E) Senate Finance Committee SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD 3. The voting patterns of members of Congress correlate most strongly with (A) the population density of their districts (B) their economic background (C) their educational level (D) their political party affiliation (E) the location of their districts 13. A member of the House of Representatives who wished to be influential in the House itself would most likely seek a place on which of the following committees? (A) Agriculture (B) International Relations (C) Transportation and Infrastructure (D) Rules (E) Veterans Affairs PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 9. The Rules Committee is considered among the most powerful in the House of Representatives because it has great power over the (A) ethical conduct of House members (B) selection of federal judges (C) number of subcommittees that a standing committee may establish at any given time (D) scheduling of votes and the conditions under which bills are debated and amended (E) regulations governing federal elections 11. Which of the following people would most likely be accused of influence peddling? (A) A congressperson who retires to take a position teaching political science at a university (B) A former president who advises a current president on a particular foreign policy issue (C) A voter who researches the positions of all candidates in a race before choosing whom to support (D) A judge who consistently hands down the maximum sentence to convicted felons (E) An official who leaves the State Department to work as a paid consultant to foreign governments 19. The line-item veto was found unconstitutional because (A) it gave executive powers to the legislature (B) it gave legislative powers to the bureaucracy (C) it gave legislative powers to the president

(D) it delegated too many powers to the states (E) it permitted the Senate to use judicial review to reverse the House of Representatives 24. Those who argue that the House of Representatives is the government institution most responsive to the will of the public are most likely to cite as evidence the fact that (A) congressional reelection campaigns are extremely costly (B) term limits may soon restrict the number of years a congressperson may serve (C) Congress has oversight power over many executive agencies (D) average citizens may, on occasion, be called to testify before a congressional committee (E) representatives must run for reelection every two years 26. Which of the following generally results when the Senate and House of Representatives pass different versions of the same bill? (A) The president signs the version he prefers (B) The bill goes back to each houses committee and restarts the legislative process (C) All amendments to the bill are invalidated, and the original version of the bill is sent to the president to sign (D) The Senates version of the bill is sent to the president because the Senate is the higher legislative body (E) The two legislative bodies form a conference committee 33. Congresss power to determine national policy (A) usually increases as a presidents popularity decreases, and vice versa (B) has declined steadily since the ratification of the Constitution (C) is severely limited by the elastic clause of the Constitution (D) increases during times of war (E) stems primarily from its control over the judicial branch 37. Before serving in the House of Representatives or Senate, the greatest number of federal legislators (A) own and operate small businesses (B) are professional athletes (C) teach political science at the college level (D) work as journalists (E) earn law degrees 38. A member of the House of Representatives wishing to influence tax policy would most likely try to serve on which of the following committees? (A) Commerce (B) Ways and Means (C) Education and the Workforce (D) Resources (E) Judiciary 50. The largest portion of the federal budget covers the costs of (A) national defense (B) social welfare programs (C) interest on the national debt (D) entitlement programs (E) tax collection

51. Which of the following accurately describes congressional committees? I. The committee chairpersons always belong to the majority party II. Seats on each committee are divided between the two major parties in exact proportion to the parties representation in Congress III. They recommend whether Congress should pass various pieces of legislation, and those recommendations are always approved by the full congressional body IV. When a committee vote results in a tie, the vice president casts the tie breaking vote (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and IV only PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 18. Which committee in the House of Representatives determines the procedure by which bills are debated and amended? (A) Ways and Means (B) Judiciary (C) Ethics (D) Rules (E) Government Reform 24. Incumbent members of the House of Representatives win reelection more often than incumbent senators for all of the following reasons EXCEPT (A) representatives constituents more often belong largely to the representatives party (B) senators have more political power than representatives, and Senate races are accordingly contested more aggressively (C) representatives may use federal funds to publicize their achievements via direct mail to constituents (D) representatives more often run uncontested (E) the fact that Senate races are held statewide generates more media coverage and thus more public awareness 26. Congress would be required to use the elastic clause of the Constitution to (A) change citizenship requirements (B) impose workplace safety standards (C) increase tax rates (D) authorize the treasury to print money (E) declare war 33. Congress has attempted to protect independent regulatory agencies from political influence by requiring that each agency (A) be led by a group of commissioners representing both major political parties (B) plan policy cooperatively with the appropriate congressional committees (C) reapply for funding at the end of each fiscal year (D) submit all planned policy changes to the president for approval (E) seek the advice and cooperation of the industries they regulate

36. They opinions of congressional committees often fail to accurately mirror public opinion because (A) the membership of committees often over represents constituencies with the greatest stake in the committees business (B) most committees are too small to include representatives of all popular opinions (C) the minority party controls nearly half of all committees (D) committee members often lose track of their constituents priorities because of their frequent contact with special-interest lobbyists (E) committee members rely primarily on their legislative aides to develop their positions on committee business 45. Which of the following defines salience of a political issue? (A) The amount of coverage the issue receives in the major news media (B) The degree to which public opinion on the issue is likely to shift quickly (C) The number of people affected by the issue (D) The degree to which the issue can be addressed through government action (E) The importance of the issue to a particular individual or group 52. House members are more concerned about their committee assignments than are senators because (A) House members may serve on only one committee at a time (B) Senate committees have relatively little power to alter legislation (C) bills in the Senate must pass through all committees before reaching the floor (D) senators may change their committee assignments whenever they wish (E) the rules make it extremely difficult for representatives to influence legislation on the House floor 55. Which of the following is true of Congresses power of oversight? (A) Congressional oversight activities most often take place at the committee and subcommittee level (B) State challenges to congressional oversight have severely weakened Congresss oversight powers (C) Congressional oversight is primarily directed at the judicial branch (D) Constituent input does not influence congressional oversight (E) Congressional oversight primarily concerns Congresss power to discipline its own members 59. Filibusters are less likely to occur in the House of Representatives than in the Senate because (A) Senate decorum forbids one senator from attempting to stop anothers speech (B) the House meets for substantially fewer hours per day than does the Senate (C) Senate sessions, unlike House sessions, are open to the public (D) debate in the House is in most instances strictly regulated by the rules (E) all speeches in the House are delivered by the House Speaker

EXECUTIVE BRANCH
1989 7. The activities of the Federal Reserve Board have the most direct influence on (A) bank interest rates (B) government spending (C) oil prices (D) troop-strength levels of the armed services (E) availability of scarce minerals 8. Which of the following statements most accurately compares election s in the Untied States with those in most other Western democracies? (A) United States citizens have fewer opportunities to vote in elections (B) Political parties exert a stronger influence over voting in the United States

(C) There are fewer obstacles to voting the in the United States (D) There are more political parties in the United States (E) The voter turnout in the United States is usually lowers 19. Which of the following is responsible for the preparation of executive spending proposals submitted to Congress? (A) Treasury Departments (B) Council of Economic Advisors (C) Federal Trade Commission (D) Department of Commerce (E) Office of Management and Budget 20. In United States v. Nixon the Supreme Court rule that (A) the judicial branch should not intervene in political disputes between the President and Congress (B) presidential power is not automatically extended during times of national emergency (C) Presidents must account to the Court for the way in which they implement policy (D) there is no constitutional guaranteed of unqualified executive exchange (E) the President does not have the power of and item veto over congressional legislation 23. All of the following are formal or informal sources of presidential power EXCEPT (A) presidential authority to raise revenue (B) presidential access to the media (C) precedents set during previous administrations (D) public support (E) the Constitution 24. An advantage that bureaucrats in federal government have over the President in the policymaking process is that bureaucrats (A) control the budget process (B) have an independence from the President that is guaranteed by the Constitution (C) find it easier to marshall public support than does the President (D) usually have a continuity of service in the executive branch that the President lacks (E) have better access to the media than does the President 27. Which of the following would result from the direct election of presidential candidates? (A) A national primary would be established (B) Party nominating conventions would be abolished (C) Each vote would count equally in determining which candidate won the election (D) The electoral college would become more influential in the electoral process (E) Third-Party candidates would have less chance of winning the election 28. Since 1960 the presidential election process has been affected by and increase in all of the following EXCEPT the (A) proportion of independents in the electorate (B) influence of political consultants (C) number of primaries (D) turnout of voters (E) role of television

36. A President may persuade recalcitrant members of Congress to vote for a particular bill by (A) having members who oppose the bill transferred to unpopular committees (E) denying camping funds to members who oppose the bill (C) threatening to deny re-nomination to members who oppose the bill (D) threatening to item veto part of a different bill that enjoys bipartisan support in Congress (E) making a direct appeal to the public through the mass media 37. In general, independent regulatory commissions are created primary for the purpose of (A) supporting and helping cabinet-level departments (B) proposing policy alternatives during period of crises (C) regulating the activities of other bureaucratic agencies to ensure that they act in a fair an objective manner (D) regulating certain industries to protect the public interest (E) increasing the Presidents patronage powers 38, The Presidents veto power is accurately described by which of the following statements? I. A President sometimes threatens to veto a bill that is under discussion in order to influence congressional decision-making II. A President typically vetoes about a third of the bills passed through Congress III.. Congress is usually unable to override a Presidents veto (A) I only (B) III only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III

41. Invocation of the War Powers Act of 1973 would be most important in determining which of the following? (A) The nature of the commitment of United States Marine to a peace-keeping role in Lebanon (B) The amount of financial aid to the Contras of Nicaragua (C) The timing of naval maneuvers off the coast of Libya (D) The appointment of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (E) The legality of extraditing foreign agents responsible for acts of terrorism against United States citizens abroad 48. The usefulness to the President of having cabinet members as political advisors is undermined by the fact that (A) the President has little latitude in choosing cabinet members (B) cabinet member have no political support independent of the President

(C) cabinet members are usually drawn from Congress and retain loyalties from Congress (D) the loyalties of cabinet members are often divided between loyalty to the President and loyalty to their own executive departments (E) the cabinet operates as a collective unit and individual members have no access to the President 50. Cabinet departments differ from independent regulatory agencies in which of the following ways? (A) The President can use and executive order to create a cabinet department but not to create an independent regulatory agency (B) The President can dismiss cabinet officers, but not commissioners of independent regulatory agencies (C) The president seeks appointees who reflect administration views in making cabinet appointments but not in making appointments to independent regulatory agencies (D) Thought the appropriations process, Congress can exert control over the cabinet departments but not over independent regulatory agencies (E) The courts can overrule regulations issued by cabinet departments, but not those issued by independent regulatory agencies 1999 12. A President attempting to influence Congress to pass a legislative program might employ all of the following strategies EXCEPT (A) using the media to draw attention to the legislative program (B) assigning legislative liaisons in the Executive Office of the President to lobby legislators (C) denying campaign reelection funds to legislators who oppose the Presidents policy stand (D) exploiting a partisan majority for the Presidents party in both the House and Senate (E) reminding legislators of high popularity ratings for the President in public opinion polls 13. Presidents have had the most success in changing the direction of decisions of the federal judiciary by (A) threatening to ask Congress to impeach specific judges (B) using the media to build consensus for the Presidents position (C) requesting that Congress reduce the term of office that judges may serve (D) using the appointment process to select judges with judicial philosophies similar to those of the President (E) pressuring Congress to pass the appropriate legislation to override judicial opinions 22. All of the following powers are granted to the President by the Constitution EXCEPT (A) commissioning officers in the armed forces (B) addressing the Congress on the state of the union (C) receiving ambassadors (D) granting pardons for federal offenses (E) forming new cabinet-level departments 27. Which of the following is articulated in the War Powers Resolution? (A) the President may declare war (B) the President must finance any war efforts from a special contingency fund (C) the President must bring troops home from hostilities within 60 to 90 days unless Congress extends the time (D) the President may not nationalize state militias without congressional consent (E) the President may not send troops into hostilities without a declaration of war from Congress or a resolution from the United Nations

36. Which of the following procedures results in the removal of the President from office? (A) The House and Senate vote for impeachment, and the Supreme Court reaches a guilty verdict (B) The House votes for impeachment, and the Senate conducts a trial and reaches a guilty verdict (C) The House and Senate both vote for a bill of impeachment (D) Only the House votes for a bill of impeachment (E) A criminal court finds the President guilty of high crimes and misdermeanors 42. All of the following have contributed to an increase in presidential power in the post-1945 era EXCEPT (A) tensions between the United States and the Soviet Union during the Cold War period (B) an increase in public expectations for services from the federal government (C) economic and domestic problems such as inflation, unemployment, and civil rights issues (D) increasing United States involvement in international affairs (E) legislation granting the President the power to impound funds appropriated by Congress 54. The request of recent Presidents for the line-item veto is a challenge to which of the following principles? (A) Separation of powers (B) Senatorial courtesy (C) Eminent domain (D) Executive privilege (E) Congressional oversight 57. Cabinet members often do not have a dominant influence on presidential decision-making because (A) cabinet members generally maintain close independent ties to Congress (B) cabinet members generally view their position only as a stepping-stone to further their own political ambitions (C) cabinet members are not permitted to disagree publicly with the President (D) presidential goals often conflict with the institutional goals of individual cabinet level agencies (E) only half of all cabinet members can be members of the Presidents party 58. A fundamental source of power for the federal bureaucracy lies in its (A) role in moving legislation out of subcommittees (B) role of mediating interstate conflicts (C) ability to convince Congress to fund most projects it supports (D) ability to mobilize public opinion in support of legislative initiatives (E) ability to set specific guidelines after receiving a general mandate from Congress 2002 2. In which of the following scenarios would a presidential veto most likely be upheld? (A) the President has the support of the Supreme Court (B) the President is in a second term, removed from partisan politics (C) the proposed legislation enjoys widespread bipartisan support (D) the proposed legislation was originally adopted by a large majority in both houses of Congress (E) two-thirds of the representatives and senators are members of the same party as the President

18. In recent presidential administrations, the principal staff for the President has been made up of members of the (A) White House Office (B) cabinet (C) Congress (D) national committee of the Presidents party (E) civil service 31. CHART 33. Which of the following is NOT a presidential role authorized by the Constitution? (A) to be commander in chief of the armed forces (B) to lead the political party of the President (C) to negotiate treaties with foreign nations (D) to be chief executive (E) to present the State of Union address 39. The President can do which of the following with out seeking the consent of either the House or the Senate? (A) Ratify a treaty (B) Appoint ambassadors (C) Appoint district court judges (D) Deploy troops (E) Declare war 40. Which of the following is true about the line-item veto? (A) It is specifically granted to the President by the Constitution (B) It is used by many state governors (C) It is basically the same as a pocket veto (D) Its use was upheld by the Supreme Court (E) It would, if instituted, strengthen the power of congressional leaders

52. Senate confirmation is required for which of the following presidential appointments? I. Secretary of state II. White House chief of staff III. Director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) IV. Attorney General (A) I only (B) II and III only (C) II and IV only (D) I, III, and IV only (E) I, II, III, and IV 56. Since the 1970s Presidents have made use of executive order to an increasing rate because executive orders (A) are noncontroversial measures that can be easily implemented (B) are rarely defeated in Congress

(C) do not need to be passed by Congress (D) avoid judicial review (E) must be ratified by the Senate rather than by the House SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD 5. In vetoing a bill, the President does which of the following? (A) Rejects only a part of the bill without rejecting it entirely (B) Prevents any further action on the bill (C) Sends the bill back to conference committee (D) Rejects all sections of the bill (E) Decides the bills constitutionality 6. All of the following are true about the relationship between regulatory agencies and the industries they regulate EXCEPT (A) Agency employees are often recruited from the regulated industry (B) Agencies often rely on support from regulated industries in making budget requests before Congress (C) An agencys relationship with a regulated industry may change when a new President takes office (D) Agencies usually make decisions without consulting the regulated industry (E) Agency employees often are employed by the regulated industry once they leave the agency 25. Which of the following is ture to a presidential veto of a piece of legislation? (A) It is rarely overridden by Congress (B) It is not binding unless supported by the cabinet (C) It can only be sustained on revenue bills (D) It is automatically reviewed by the Untied States Supreme Court (E) It is subject to approval by a congressional committee

PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 5. American foreign policy is directed primarily by the (A) House of Representatives (B) Senate (C) president (D) Supreme Court (E) federal bureaucracy 7. Under which of the following circumstances is Congress LEAST likely to pass a bill the president has threatened to veto? (A) The presidents public approval rating is extremely high (B) A failed attempt has been made to develop a compromise bill with the White House (C) The party controlling Congress is not the presidents party (D) The president has also expressed the possibility that he might not veto the bill (E) Congressional leaders believe they have the votes necessary to override a veto

20. Among the executive branchs checks on the legislative branch is the presidents power to (A) call special sessions of Congress (B) introduce bills to the floor of Congress (C) address Congress during its debate on bills (D) vote on acts of Congress (E) disband congressional committees 21. The amount of access cabinet secretaries have to the president is most likely to be controlled by the (A) vice president (B) presidents chief of staff (C) national security advisor (D) chair of the Federal Reserve Board (E) presidents press secretary 25. Which of the following accounts for the fact that the power and prestige of the presidency have grown since 1932? I. Americas increased prominence in international affairs II. continually improved public confidence in the federal government III. the New Deal and other programs that have expanded federal responsibility IV. the presidents increased visibility, due to the development of mass media (A) I only (B) I and IV only (C) I, III, and IV only (D) II and IV only (E) II, III, and IV only 34. In recent years, presidents have come to rely most heavily on the advice of (A) the full cabinet (B) the vice president (C) congressional delegations (D) the White House staff (E) foreign ambassadors 58. The difference between a pardon and a reprieve is (A) a pardon lasts 10 years, a reprieve lasts one year (B) a reprieve grants a release from legal punishment, while a pardon postpones it (C) a pardon grants a release from legal punishment while a reprieve postpones it (D) only state governors can issue pardons (E) only state governors can issue reprieves PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 21. Uncertainty over the limits to presidential power is caused primarily by the fact that (A) the constitutional definition of those powers is broad and unspecific (B) most people agree that the Constitution places too many limits on presidential power (C) the Supreme Court consistently refuses to rule on cases concerning presidential powers (D) constitutional amendments have greatly increased presidential powers (E) some states cede more power to their governors than the national government cedes to the president

25. A member of the presidents cabinet is aid to have gone native when that cabinet member (A) resigns to take a position as a consultant to lobbying groups (B) cedes control of his or her department to lifelong bureaucrats (C) places his or her departments priorities about the presidents (D) accepts bribes or expensive favors from business regulated by his or her department (E) suggests merging his or her department into another executive department 40. Both the War Powers Act of 1974 and the Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 represent efforts by Congress to limit the powers of the (A) Joint Chiefs of Staff (B) House Ways and Means Committee (C) Central Intelligence Agency (D) secretary of defense (E) president 51. Under which of the following circumstances does a president usually experience a reduction in political power? I. The president is in the final two years of his or her second term II. The number and severity of international crises is increasing III. Different parties control Congress and the White House IV. The economy is strong and the presidents approval ratings are high (A) I only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) II, III, and IV only

Judicial Branch
1989 5. In Marbury v. Madison (1803), the Supreme Court assumed the power to (A) decide whether internal congressional procedures are constitutional (B) advise Congress on the constitutionality of a proposed by law (C) regulate slavery (D) decide on the constitutionality of a law or an executive action (E) approve executive agreements 35. Which of the following best defines the term judicial activism? (A) The demands on judges to hear large numbers of cases (B) The efforts of judges to lobby Congress for funds (C) The attempts by judges to influence election outcomes (D) The unwillingness of judges to remove themselves from cases in which they have a personal interest (E) The tendency of judges to interpret the Constitution according to their own views

53. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the Supreme Court and public opinion? (A) The court assesses public opinion on a controversial issue and then tries to follow it (B) Court prestige is so high that its decisions become public consensus (C) The existence of a public consensus on an issue limits the extent to which the Court will render decisions contrary to that consensus (D) Public opinion has no bearing on the effective implementation of the Courts decisions (E) There is no relationship between public opinion and the Courts decisions 57. Which of the following statements best describes the Supreme Courts actions with respect to disputes between Congress and the President? (A) The Court has steadily favored the expansion of presidential power at the expense of Congress (B) The Court has refused to allow Congress to subpoena officials from the executive branch (C) The Court generally has tried to avoid deciding conflicts between Congress and the President (D) The Court has supported congressional limits on the Presidents powers as commander-inchief (E) The Court has supported congressional use of the legislative veto as a means of controlling the President 1999 11. The most important source of the Supreme Courts caseload is (A) its original jurisdiction (B) its appellate jurisdiction (C) instruction from the solicitor general (D) the special masters certification of cases for review (E) Congress certification of cases for review 14. Which of the following did the most to expand civil rights in the 1950s? (A) State legislative decisions desegregating public accommodations (B) State court decisions outlawing poll taxes (C) The passage of voting-rights legislation by Congress (D) Executive orders mandating affirmative action (E) The Supreme Court decision declaring state mandated school segregation to be unconstitutional 31. In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court established which of the following principles? (A) States cannot interfere with or tax the legitimate activities of the federal government (B) The judicial branch cannot intervene in political disputes between the President and Congress (C) The federal Bill of Rights places no limitations on the states (D) The federal government has the power to regulate commerce (E) It is within the judiciarys authority to interpret the constitution 38. Which of the following statements accurately describes the selection of the caseload for the United States Supreme Court? (A) The United States Constitution spells out all of the categories of cases that the Supreme Court must hear (B) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the authority to select the cases that the court will hear (C) The Solicitor General in the Department of Justice determines the Supreme Courts agenda (D) The Supreme Court is free to choose the cases it hears with only a few limitations (E) The Attorney General screens cases for consideration by the Court

44. Decisions reached by the Supreme Court under the leadership of Chief Justice Earl Warren (19531969) did all of following EXCEPT (A) rule against malapportionment in state legislatures (B) void state statutes that permitted school segregation (C) invalidate state abortion statutes (D) expand the rights of criminal defendants (E) increase protection for First Amendment freedoms 2002 7. When a lower court decision is appealed to the Supreme Court, which of the following is most likely to occur? (A) The Supreme Court will reconsider the case, and overturn the lower court decision (B) The Supreme Court will reprimand the lower court judge for improperly deciding the case (C) The plaintiffs or defendents will file motions for a change of venue (D) The case will be retired at the lower court level (E) The Supreme Court will not hear the appeal 15. CHART 37. A major reason why the majority of Supreme Court justices have had political experience prior to appointment to the Court is that (A) justices are expected to act like politicians in their decision-making (B) Presidents seek to place individuals on the Court whose policy views are similar to their own (C) the Senate will refuse to confirm any nominee to the Court who is not familiar with the political process (D) appointment to the Supreme Court is a reward for political party loyalty (E) the Court is expected to defer to the political branches in making its decisions

50. The doctrine of original intent holds that (A) Supreme Court justices must emphasize independent and original thinking in considering constitutional matters (B) the meaning of the Constitution depends on the intention of the framers (C) cases selected for review by the Supreme Court must address an original and new concern not previously addressed by the Court (D) Supreme Court justices should avoid bias by documenting their original impressions of a case (E) the Supreme Court should review all treaties that alter previously established foreign policy 53. All of the following serve as checks on the power of federal courts EXCEPT: (A) Federal judges can be impeached (B) The voters can oust federal judges in national elections (C) Congress can pass a law clarifying legislative intent (D) Presidents, governors, and local executives can refrain from enforcing court rulings (E) Congress and state legislatures can amend the Constitution 59. CHART

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD 0 PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 3. A Supreme Court that demonstrates a willingness to change public policy and alter judicial precedents is said to be engaging in (A) judicial activism (B) due process (C) judicial restraint (D) ex post facto lawmaking (E) judicial review 4. A writ of certiorari from the Supreme Court indicates that the Court (A) will review a lower court decision (B) has rendered a decision in a case (C) has decided not to hear an appeal (D) will recess until the end of the calendar year (E) plans to overturn one of its previous rulings 15. The Supreme Court holds original jurisdiction in all of the following types of cases EXCEPT (A) if the United States is a party in a case (B) in controversies in criminal law between a citizen and a state (C) in controversies under the Constitution, federal laws, or treaties (D) if a case is between citizens from different states (E) if cases arise under admiralty and maritime laws

18. Which of the following correctly state the relationship between the federal and state judiciaries? (A) Federal courts are higher courts than state courts and may overturn state decisions on any grounds (B) The two are entirely autonomous, and neither ever hears cases that originate in the other (C) The two are generally autonomous, although federal courts may rule on the constitutionality of state court decisions (D) State courts are trial courts; federal courts are appeals courts (E) State courts try all cases except those that involve conflicts between two states, which are tried in federal courts PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 3. Which of the following is true of court cases in which one private party is suing another? (A) They are tried in civil court (B) The federal court system has exclusive jurisdiction over them (C) They are tried in a criminal court (D) The state court system has exclusive jurisdiction over them (E) They are tried before a grand jury 27. Which of the following is true of the Supreme Court?

(A) Every case appealed to the Supreme Court is rule upon by the court (B) The Court helps set the public agenda by deciding which appeals to hear (C) The Court hears all cases when two or more justices agree that the case has merit (D) In deciding cases, the chief justices vote counts as two votes (E) The Court does not rule on cases in which five justices refuse to sign a single opinion 39. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the federal court system? (A) The creation of new federal courts requires a constitutional amendment (B) The creation of new federal courts requires the unanimous consent of all 50 states (C) The Supreme Court has the sole power to create new federal courts (D) Congress has the power to create new federal courts (E) The number of federal courts is fixed by the Constitution and cannot be changed 47. Under Chief Justice Earl Warren, the Supreme Court (A) greatly expanded the rights of criminal defendants (B) greatly limited the power of the federal government over the states (C) established the principle of judicial review (D) refused to enforce the Sherman Antitrust Act (E) weakened the constitutional division between church and state 48. The Supreme Court case Regents of University of California v. Bakke concerned which of the following issues? (A) The rights of students to protest on a publicly funded campus (B) In-class prayer at a publicly funded school (C) The rights of students to carry concealed weapons on campus (D) Accommodations for disabled students at publicly funded schools (E) The use of racial quotas in public university admissions

54. Failed felony prosecutions at the state level are sometimes retired at the federal level (A) on appeal by state prosecutors (B) under the double jeopardy provision of the Constitution (C) because new evidence has voided the state level verdict (D) as a result of a gubernatorial veto (E) as civil liberties violations 58. Which of the following is true of federal judges? (A) They serve four-year terms that coincide with the presidential term (B) They are appointed for life and can only be removed by impeachment (C) They are elected by Congress and serve ten year terms (D) They are appointed for life and cannot be removed from office (E) They are appointed by the Supreme Court to life terms

CIVIL RIGHTS
1989 1. Which of the following principles protects a citizen from imprisonment without trial? (A) Representative government (B) Separation of powers (C) Due process (D) Checks and balances (E) Popular sovereignty 14. The federal Constitution guarantees all of the following rights to a person arrested and charge with a serious crime EXCEPT the right to (A) remain silent (B) Racial minorities (C) Southerners (D) Northern business leaders (E) Farm laborers 15. The Constitution limits the size of the District of Columbia to ______________ - State of Alabama literacy test, 1936 The question above and the literacy test from which it came were most likely designed to

(A) determine the literacy of potential voters (B) prevent Black people from exercising their right to vote (C) assess the general populations understanding of the Constitution (D) promote opposition to statehood for the District of Columbia (E) stop people from moving to the District of Columbia 31. CHART 32. All of the following statements reflect positions the Supreme Court has taken with regard to the right of free speech EXCEPT: (A) A restriction on the right of free speech should always be view with skepticism (B) There are not acceptable governmental restrictions on free speech (C) Government has an obligation to try to ensure citizens the right to be heard (D) The right to free speech is a fundamental natural right (E) The First Amendment protects free speech from incursions of both the federal and state governments

Questions 44-45 are based on the following excerpt from a major Supreme Court decision. Such considerations apply with added force to children in grade and high schools. To separate them from others of similar age and qualifications solely because of their race generates a feeling of inferiority as to their status in the community that may affect their hearts and minds in a way unlikely ever to be undone We conclude that in the filed of public education the doctrine of separate but equal has no place. Separate educational facilities are inherently inequal. Therefore, we hold that the plaintiffsare, by reason of the segregation complained of, deprived of the equal protection of the laws guaranteed by the Fourteenth Amendment. 44. The doctrine of separate but equal referred to above had previously been upheld by which of the following Supreme Court decisions? (A) Dredd Scott v. Sanford, 1857 (B) Plessy v. Ferguson, 1896 (C) Youngstown Sheet and Tube Company v. Sawyer, 1952 (D) Engel v. Vitale, 1962 (E) Swann v. Charlotte- Mecklenburg County Board of Education, 1971 45. The Supreme Court decision quoted above did which of the following?

(A) Brought a rapid end to school segregation in the South (B) Prohibited segregation in hotels and restaurants (C) Required desegregation of teaching staff (D) Initially affected only schools where segregation was mandated by law (E) Affected segregation in the North rather than in the South 56. The amendments to the Constitution that were ratified during Reconstruction were primarily designed to (A) protect the rights of women against infringement by the federal government (B) protect the rights of Black citizens against infringement by state governments (C) ensure equal economic opportunity for Black citizens (D) facilitate the rebuilding of the Southern economy (E) limit the power the President had gained during the Civil War 59. Which of the following Supreme Court cases involved the principle of one person, one vote? (A) Baker v. Carr (B) Roe v. Wade (C) Mapp v. Ohio (D) Korematsu v. United States (E) Gideon v. Wainwright 1999 29. Discrimination in public accommodations was made illegal in the United States as a direct result of the (A) Supreme Court decision in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (B) Supreme Court decisions in Sweatt v. Painter (C) Civil Rights Act of 1964 (D) Montgomery bus boycott (E) Voting Rights Act of 1965 30. Most of the individual protections of the Bill of Rights now apply to the states because of the Supreme Courts interpretation of the Constitutions (A) Preamble (B) necessary and proper clause (C) supremacy clause (D) Tenth Amendment (E) Fourteenth Amendment 45. The Miranda warning represents an attempt to protect criminal suspects against (A) unfair police interrogation (B) biased jury selection (C) imprisonment without trial (D) illegal wiretapping (E) unjustified police surveillance 60. Griswold v. Connecticut and Roe v. Wade are similar Supreme Court cases in that both cases are based on the (A) rights of gay men and lesbian women (B) right of privacy (C) right to an abortion (D) right to freedom from cruel and unusual punishment

(E) right of women to equal protection before the law 2002 14. Following the Civil War, the Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution was designed to overturn the (A) Dredd Scott decision (B) Plessy v. Ferguson (C) Emancipation Proclamation (D) Civil Rights Act of 1866 (E) Slaughterhouse cases 25. Which of the following is one of the central concerns of the First Amendment? (A) The supremacy of the national government over the state governments (B) The right of citizens to bear arms (C) The division of powers among the three branches of government (D) The right of citizens to petition the government for redress of grievances (E) The protection of the rights of those accused of committing a crime 32. In Miranda v. Arizona, the Untied States Supreme Court declared that (A) Illegal aliens have the same right to an education as United States citizens (B) Evidence seized during an illegal search cannot be used in court (C) Affirmative action programs cannot employ numerical quotas (D) Police must inform criminal suspects of their constitutional rights before questioning suspects after arrest (E) The death penalty is constitutional so long as juries are supplied with sentencing guidelines

46. The Supreme Court established the incorporation doctrine when the Court (A) interpreted the Fourteenth Amendment as extending most of the requirements of the Bill of Rights to the states as well as the federal government (B) interpreted the Ninth Amendment as requiring national health and worker-safety standards to protect the individuals implied right of personal safety (C) stripped the armed forces of their discretionary powers regarding military service for gay men, lesbians, and married people (D) strengthened local police forces by granting them the power to investigate and prosecute federal offenses (E) granted the federal government the power to declare acts of Congress unconstitutional 48. The 1973 Roe v. Wade decision that upheld a womans right to secure an abortion was based on the right to (A) privacy implied in the Bill of Rights (B) equality guaranteed by the Fourteenth and Fifteenth amendments (C) due process of law enumerated in the Fifth and Sixth amendments (D) adequate medical care implied in the Preamble to the Constitution (E) life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness enumerated in the Declaration of Independence SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD

4. The Constitution and its amendments expressly prohibit all of the following EXCEPT (A) slavery (B) double jeopardy (C) cruel and unusual punishment (D) unreasonable searches and seizures (E) sex discrimination in employment 9. In Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, the Supreme Court established which of the following principles? (A) A school official can search a student for drugs (B) Everyone must go to school at least until the age of 16 (C) Tuition for private schools cannot be tax deductible (D) Separation of students by race, even in equally good schools is unconstitutional (E) A moment of silent prayer at the beginning of the school day is allowable under the first amendment 17. In the United States, which of the following is a rule on voting found in the Constitution or its amendments? (A) No person may denied the right to vote merely for lack of either state or federal citizenship (B) No person eighteen years of age or older may be denied the right to vote on account of age (C) No person may be denied the right to vote merely because he or she has previously served a prison sentence (D) A state may not establish a residency requirement for voting (E) A state may require a person to pay a poll tax in order to register to vote PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) We conclude that in the field of education the doctrine of separate but equal has no place. Separate educational facilities are inherently unequal 6. The Supreme Court issued this opinion in its ruling on which of the following cases? (A)Gideon v. Wainwright (B) Marbury v. Madison (C) Engel v. Vitale (D) Regents of University of California v. Bakke (E) Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka 14. Which of the following describe limitations that may constitutionally be placed on freedom of speech and freedom of the press? I. II. III. IV. Under no circumstances may the government limit speech or censor the press The government may censor the press in the interest of national and military security The government may outlaw obscene publications The government may prevent individuals from engaging in offensive speech

(A) I only (B) II only (C) II and III only

(D) III and IV only (E) II, III, and IV only 29. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was passed to reinforce the (A) presidential veto (B) system of checks and balances (C) states power to challenge federal regulation (D) Fourteenth Amendment (E) Taft-Hartley Act of 1947 47. A constitutional amendment would be required to ban flag burning because that activity is currently protected by the right to (A) due process (B) assembly (C) free exercise of religion (D) protection against confiscation of private property (E) free speech 48. The Supreme Courts decision in Miranda v. Arizona was based mainly on the (A) Constitutional prohibition of ex post facto laws (B) incorporation of the Fifth Amendment through the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment (C) Eighth Amendment restriction against cruel and unusual punishment (D) abolition of slavery by the Thirteenth Amendment (E) full faith and credit clause of the Constitution

49. The Supreme Court has used the practice of selective incorporation to (A) limit the number of appeals filed by defendants in state courts (B) extend voting rights to racial minorities and women (C) apply most Bill of Rights protections to state law (D) hasten the integration of public schools (E) prevent the states from calling a constitutional convention 55. Which of the following most accurately describes the right of American citizens to privacy? (A) The right to privacy is determined entirely by the states on a case-by-case basis (B) The right to privacy is explicitly granted in the Preamble to the Constitution (C) The Supreme Court has rule that the right to privacy is implied by the Bill of Rights (D) Common law requires the government to respect citizens right to privacy (E) Americans have no right to privacy, but the government rarely violates individuals privacy because to do so is not in the governments interest 59. The government promotes preferential treatment for members of groups that have historically suffered from discrimination by means of (A) the New Federalism (B) affirmative action programs (C) Social Security benefits (D) bills of attainder

(E) gerrymandering 60. The exclusionary rule was established to (A) create separate but equal facilities to facilitate racial segregation (B) allow private organizations to restrict their memberships (C) limit the governments ability to use illegally obtained evidence (D) deny control of interstate commerce to the states (E) provide the president with greater independence in negotiating foreign policy PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review) 14. In Gideon v. Wainwright, the Supreme Court ruled that criminal defendants in state cases have the right (A) to representation by an attorney (B) not to incriminate themselves (C) to a speedy trial (D) not to be punished excessively (E) to a jury trial 29. Which of the following statements best describes the central constitutional issue concerning the death penalty? (A) The death penalty violates the prohibition of double jeopardy (B) Different states use different means of executing convicts in capital cases (C) The death penalty arguably constitutes cruel and unusual punishment (D) Federal law and state law differ in their definitions of what constitutes a capital crime (E) Capital trials fail to meet the standard set by the speedy and public trial clause

ANSWERS
1989 1.C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. A 8.E 9.A 10.B 11.B 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.B 16.C 17.A 18.E 19.E 20.D 21.B 22.C 23.A 24.D 25.E 26.B

27.C 28.D 29.B 30.E 31.D 32.B 33.A 34.C 35.E 36.E 37.D 38.C 39.A 40.B 41.A 42.E 43.C

44.B 45.D 46.C 47.B 48.D 49.A 50.B 51.E 52.C 53.C 54.D 55.A 56.B 57.C 58.E 59.A 60.D

1999 1.D 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.E 6.C 7.D 8.E 9.A 10.D 11.B 12.C 13.D 14.E 15.A 16.C 17.D 18.E 19.D 20.B 21.D 22.E 23.A 24.C 25.D 26.B 27.C 28.E 29.C 30.E

31.A 32.D 33.A 34.A 35.E 36.B 37.C 38.D 39.B 40.A 41.A 42.E 43.B 44.C 45.A

46.A 47.E 48.D 49.A 50.C 51.B 52.E 53.D 54.A 55.E 56.C 57.D 58.E 59.C 60.B

2002 1.B 2.E 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.E 7.E 8.A 9.E 10.D 11.D 12.A 13.E 14.A 15.C 16.E 17.D 18.A 19.E 20.C 21.B 22.E 23.C 24.D 25.D 26.C 27.E 28.C 29.C 30.D 31.D 32.D

33.B 34.A 35.D 36.B 37.B 38.B 39.D 40.B 41.B 42.B 43.B 44.E 45.B 46.A

47.C 48.A 49.D 50.B 51.E 52.D 53.B 54.B 55.B 56.C 57.C 58.E 59.E 60.B

PRACTICE TEST #1 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 1.B 2.C 3.A 4.A 5.C 6.E 7.A 8.B 9.D 10.B 11.E 12.A 13.B 14.C 15.B 16.D 17.A 18.C 19.C 20.A 21.B 22.C 23.D 24.E 25.C 26.E 27.B 28.A 29.D 30.C 31.B 32.E

33.A 34.D 35.D 36.C 37.E 38.B 39.E 40.A 41.D 42.C 43.A 44.E 45.B 46.E

47.E 48.B 49.C 50.D 51.A 52.C 53.E 54.B 55.C 56.C 57.D 58.C 59.B 60.C

PRACTICE TEST #2 AP REVIEW BOOK (Princeton Review ) 1.E 2.D 3.A 4.E 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.E 9.C 10.C 11.B 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.B 17.E 18.D 19.B 20.C 21.A 22.E 23.E 24.C 25.C 26.B

27.B 28.D 29.C 30.B 31.B 32.A 33.A 34.C 35.D 36.A 37.C 38.B 39.D 40.E 41.E 42.D 43.C

44.D 45.E 46.C 47.A 48.E 49.D 50.B 51.C 52.E 53.D 54.E 55.A 56.D 57.A 58.B 59.D 60.C

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR US GOV AND POL COLLEGE BOARD

1. C 2. D 3. D 4.E 5.D 6.D 7.D 8.E 9.D 10.B 11.A 12.A 13.D

14.D 15.B 16.C 17.B 18.D 19.A 20.A 21.A 22.E 23.D 24.D 25.A