Posted in CCNA 4 - Accessing the WAN (V4.

0)

CCNA 4 Chapter 1 V4.0 Answers 1. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?
WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support. A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses. A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not. All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2 protocols in use.

2. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
ATM ISDN analog dialup T1 Leased Line

3. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)
low cost availability traffic encryption available bandwidth support for voice and video

4. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
ATM ISDN Frame Relay metro Ethernet

5. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)
ATM switches core routers CSU/DSU Ethernet switches Frame Relay switches repeaters

6. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI DTE DCE BRI PRI

7. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are. Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network. Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint. Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience.

8. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?
Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer. The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile." The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router. Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.

9. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25 DSL ATM ISDN BRI ISDN PRI

10. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices. Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer. Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels. The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

11. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?
Routing protocols are incompatible with this function. It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only. A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data. Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

12. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?
CSU/DSU Frame Relay switch ISDN switch modem PBX switch

13. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?
Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) metro Ethernet Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)

14. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dialout traffic of multiple users to and from a network?
core router access server Frame Relay switch ATM switch

15. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)
modem router CSU/DSU ISDN switch Ethernet switch

16. Which two features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose two.)
53-byte cells DLCI DSLAM PVC SPID

17. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets. Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism. The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check. ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packet-switched rather than circuit-switched technology.

18. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched dedicated switched lines frame-switched packet-switched

19. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?
smaller cells number of subscribers committed information rate distance from the central office of the provider

20. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)
cell DLCI circuit switching packet switching data bearer channels time-division multiplexing

21. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)
Physical Layer Data Link Layer Network Layer Transport Layer Presentation Layer Application Layer

22. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?
PVCs DLCIs tunnels

dedicated Layer 2 links

CCNA 4 Chapter 2 V4.0 Answers 1.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1, the DCE device, has just been configured for PPP encapsulation with authentication. What series of commands will allow another router, the DTE device, to communicate over its serial 0/0/0 interface to router R1?
Router(config)# hostname R3 R3(config)# username R1 password Cisco R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0 R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0 R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap Router(config)# hostname R3 R3(config)# username R3 password Cisco R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0 R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0 R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap Router Router Router Router Router Router Router Router Router Router Router Router (config)# username Router password Cisco (config)# interface Serial 0/0/0 (config-if)# clockrate 64000 (config-if)# encapsulation ppp (config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0 config-if)# ppp authentication chap (config)# username R1 password Cisco config)# interface Serial 0/0/0 (config-if)# clockrate 64000 config-if)# encapsulation ppp (config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0 (config-if)# ppp authentication chap

2. Which serial communications DTE/DCE interface standard is used to provide high-speed connectivity of up to 52 Mbps between LANs and is found on many high-end Cisco routers?
EIA/TIA 232 (RS-232) EIA/TIA 422 (RS-422) EIA/TIA 423 (RS-423) EIA/TIA-612/613 (HSSI) ITU V.35

3. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)

It is responsible for negotiating link establishment. It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP. It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link establishment parameters. It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer. It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link. It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable window size.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show interface Serial0/0 output, how many NCP sessions have been established?
one two three four

5. Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)
TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate. Multiple channels can transmit over a single link. Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination. TDM methods vary depending on the Layer 2 protocol that is used. It allows information from multiple channels to be allocated bandwidth on multiple wires.

6. Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?

MD5 CHAP PAP NCP

7.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered?
All username and password information that is sent will be encrypted. All authentication on the serial link will be accomplished using a two-way handshake. The Predictor algorithm will be used to compress all packets that are sent and received on the serial link. The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.

8. Which three statements are correct about HDLC encapsulation? (Choose three.)
HDLC does not support CDP. HDLC and PPP are compatible. HDLC supports PAP and CHAP authentication. HDLC implementation in Cisco routers is proprietary. HDLC is the default serial interface encapsulation on Cisco routers. HDLC uses frame delimiters to mark the beginnings and ends of frames.

9. What function do Network Control Protocols provide for a PPP connection?

to supply error detection to establish and terminate data links to provide authentication capabilities to PPP to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link

10. What advantage does PPP have over HDLC for serial communications?
It can communicate more efficiently with other Cisco devices It is less complex to configure It has less Layer 2 overhead It supports authentication

11.

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?
LCP is in the process of negotiating a link. LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP authentication to complete. LCP negotiation has been successful, but NCP negotiation is in progress. Data is able to flow across this link.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?
NCP has successfully negotiated. The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication. One router has suggested PAP authentication, and the other has accepted authentication but suggested CHAP authentication. One router can only use PAP authentication while the other router can only use CHAP, so the connection has been rejected.

13. Which three statements correctly describe PPP authentication? (Choose three.)
PAP sends passwords in clear text. PAP uses a 3-way handshake to establish a link. PAP provides protection from repeated trial-and-error attacks. CHAP uses a 2-way handshake to establish a link. CHAP uses a challenge/response that is based on the MD5 hash algorithm. CHAP uses repeated challenges for verification.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)
The remote CSU or DSU has failed. The router is not sensing a CD signal. A timing problem has occurred on the cable. The line is not physically connected to the CSU/DSU. The router configuration contains the shutdown interface configuration command.

15. Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?
Parallel connections do not support error checking. Parallel connections are subject to excessive attenuation. Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires. Parallel connections transmit over only two wires and therefore transmit data more slowly.

16.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding the output shown? (Choose two.)
The router has agreed on IP parameters. The router has negotiated LCP successfully. The router is negotiating IP compression options. The router is requesting an IP address from its peer. The router has accepted IP but not the suggested IP options.

17. What does the demarcation point represent in data communication physical circuits?
DTE/DCE interface on the device connecting to the Internet location of the firewall or router physical point at which the public network ends and the private customer network begins tag assigned to the physical block where a cross-connect occurs

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about PPP operation?

Layer 2 is down. LCP, IPCP, and CDPCP negotiations are in progress. Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully. Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.

19. Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)

link quality authentication dynamic flow control compression and network layer address for IP connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods

20. Which PPP configuration option can be used to establish load balancing over the interfaces of a router?
callback multilink compression error detection

21.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is not able to communicate with a neighbor router that is directly connected to serial 0/0/0. What is the reason for this?
Interface Serial0/0/0 resets very frequently. PPP LQM has shutdown the serial interface. The serial interface has no input or output queues available. The serial interface is not configured for a Layer 2 protocol. The interface has been administratively shutdown with the shutdown command.

CCNA 4 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers

1. Which three actions might a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)
puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set reduces the number of frames it sends over the link re-negotiates flow control with the connected device sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

2. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps. Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link. Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider. Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional hardware for leased service.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

4. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
ARP RARP Proxy ARP Inverse ARP LMI status messages ICMP

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)
The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1. The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1. DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1 Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22. Frames sent by 10.1.1.1 arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22. 6.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
It is currently not transmitting data. It is in the process of establishing the PVC. It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR. It is experiencing congestion.

7.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201. Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled. Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3. Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast. 8.

Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?
It helps to conserve IP addresses. It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces. It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops. It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?
Split horizon must be disabled. The LMI type must be specified. Logical subinterfaces must be used instead. The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

10. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch logical address used to identify the DCE

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?
R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1 R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102 R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1 R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103 R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1 R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1 R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2

102 301 103 201

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Frame Relay connectivity has been configured in the network and OSPF is used as the routing protocol. Router R1 can successfully ping the router R2 serial interface. When R1 attempts to ping network 192.168.3.0/24 the ping fails. What additional configuration should be applied on all routers to remedy the problem?
Add the broadcast keyword in the Frame Relay map command on both routers. Issue the frame-relay interface-dlci command in addition to the frame-relay map command on both router interfaces. Remove the frame-relay map command and replace with the frame-relay interface-dlci command on both router interfaces. Apply the no frame-relay inverse-arp command on both router interfaces.

13. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point subinterfaces will consume. Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues. Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC. Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?
LMI updates are not being received properly. The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration. Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface. The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

15. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

ISDN circuit limited access circuit switched parallel circuit virtual circuit

16. Which Frame Relay topology is a compromise of costs, reliability, and complexity when the WAN contains one headquarters site, 40 regional sites, and several sites within each regional site?
star full mesh partial mesh point-to-multipoint point-to-point

17.

Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
110 115 220 225

18. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery. It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames. FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors. The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender. The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected. 19.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)
The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4. The local DLCI number is 401. Inverse ARP is being used on this connection. This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters. Multicast is not enabled on this connection.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?
The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023. The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default. The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device. The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

21. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword. Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay nodes. Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks. To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?
one multipoint subinterface two point-to-point subinterfaces with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface

CCNA 4 Chapter 4 V4.0 Answers 1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk. Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security. Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked. Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses. Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks. Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not. Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans. A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters. Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
reconnaissance access DoS worm virus Trojan horse

4.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?
to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic to enable SSH encryption of traffic to create an IPsec tunnel

5. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources. It communicates consensus and defines roles. It is developed by end users. It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested. It defines how to handle security incidents. It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

securing monitoring testing improvement reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers describe how the firewall must be configured document the resources to be protected identify the security objectives of the organization identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255. DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers. Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network. The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance. The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers. 9.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?
SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command. SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues. SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services. SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as fix it to apply the suggested security changes.

10. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
DoS DDoS virus access reconnaissance

11. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled. It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services. It automatically configures the router to work with SDM. It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network. It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

12. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers. SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC. SDM should be used for complex router configurations. SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

13. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS. The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run. The software is version 12.1, 4th revision. The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size. The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum. The TFTP client on the router is corrupt. The router cannot connect to the TFTP server. The TFTP server software has not been started. There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
ROM monitor boot ROM Cisco IOS direct connection through the console port network connection through the Ethernet port network connection through the serial port

16.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?
The password is sent in plain text. A Telnet session is established with R1. The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password. The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly. The authentication method is not configured correctly. The HTTP server is not configured correctly. The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration. Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON. Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule antivirus scans. Schedule antispyware scans . Schedule training for all users. Schedule operating systems updates.

20. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command. Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command. Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command. Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command. Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router. The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols. The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities. The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities. 22. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose

two.)
The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings. Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention. Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control. Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices. Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

CCNA 4 Chapter 5 V4.0 Answers 1. The following commands were entered on a router: Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24 Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed. The access list statements are misconfigured. All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks. No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

2. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first. Both ACLs are applied to the interface. The network administrator receives an error. Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

3. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99. Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement. Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses. Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL. Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

4. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot. Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction. Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message. In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

5.

Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted. TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted. Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted. Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement. A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched. A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement. A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default. Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list. Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

7.

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
Web traffic does not use port 80 by default. The access list is applied in the wrong direction. The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3. The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50. 8. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL? the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored. The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored. The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked. The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked. The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

10. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

close to the source close to the destination on an Ethernet port on a serial port

11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

by destination UDP port by protocol type by source IP address by source UDP port by destination IP address

12. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
Only named ACLs allow comments. Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL. Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs. Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs. More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3. Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes. Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes. Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured two access lists on R1. The list inbound on the serial interface is named Serial and the list inbound on the LAN interface is named LAN. What affect will be produced by the access control lists?
PC1 will be able to telnet to PC3. R3 will not be able to communicate with PC1 and PC3. PC3 cannot telnet to R3 and cannot communicate with PC1. PC1 will not be able to telnet to R3 and PC3 will not be able to communicate with PC1.

15. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.) access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20 access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21 access-list 101 permit ip any any
FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied. All traffic is implicitly denied. FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied. Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied. Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

16. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?

Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named. They should be placed as close to the destination as possible. They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port. When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface. 17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network. It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24. It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24. It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

18. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
packet size protocol suite source address destination address source router interface destination router interface

19.

Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is allowed because of the implicit deny any. It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL. It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16. It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

20. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

blocked in and out of all interfaces blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces permitted in and out of all interfaces blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

21.

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
ISP Fa0/0 outbound R2 S0/0/1 inbound R3 Fa0/0 inbound R3 S0/0/1 outbound

22.

Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1. Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1. Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL. Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

23. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?
dynamic port-based reflexive time-based

24. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

25. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
extended ACL reflexive ACL console logging authentication Telnet connectivity user account with a privilege level of 15

CCNA 4 Chapter 6 V4.0 Answers 1. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
ATM CHAP IPsec IPX MPLS PPTP

2. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
accounting authentication authorization data availability data confidentiality data integrity

3. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES DES AH hash MPLS RSA

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend. Data is flowing downstream. Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions. The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

5. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
use higher RF frequencies allocate an additional channel subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
digital certificates encryption encapsulation hashing passwords

7. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH L2TP ESP GRE PPTP

8. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates ESP hashing algorithms smart cards WPA

9. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

Diffie-Hellman digital certificate pre-shared key RSA signature 10.

Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a GRE tunnel a site-to-site VPN a remote-access VPN the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

11. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text. The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software. Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting a single user environment. Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections using POTS.

12. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
users are on a shared medium uses RF signal transmission local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km) physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

13. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworkers site?
a WiMAX tower a one-way multicast satellite a WiMAX receiver an access point connected to the company WLAN

14. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
cable DSL ISDN POTS

15. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths access method maximum data rate modulation techniques compression techniques

16.

Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary permissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network. Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network. Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network. All locations can support VPN connectivity.

17. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection. The devices must have the VPN client software installed. The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs. The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms. The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel. The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

19. Which statement describes cable?

Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range. The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS) Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth. Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

CCNA 4 Chapter 7 V4.0 Answers

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
ip nat pool statement access-list statement ip nat inside is on the wrong interface interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address 2.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated defines which addresses are allowed into the router defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

3. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
32 48 64 128 4.

Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0 1 2 3 4

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.125 179.9.8.95 179.9.8.98 179.9.8.101 179.9.8.112 6.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled. The inside interface for DCHP is not defined. The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface. The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients. All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

7. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
8 16 80 128

8. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP. Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces. Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces. Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command. 9.

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID. It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface. It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface. The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

10. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address. Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses. Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required. PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
dynamic NAT NAT with overloading open port 20 open port 21 open port 23 NAT with port forwarding 12.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator. The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses. The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment. The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080. The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3. A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80. A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned or renewed by this DHCP server?
1 6 7 8 9

15. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses. It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network. It increases routing performance. It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier. It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.

16.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
10.1.1.1 172.30.20.2 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.255 17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated. Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated. Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address. A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation. External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.

18. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
NAT overload static NAT dynamic NAT PAT 19.

Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
10.1.1.2 192.168.0.100 209.165.20.25 any address in the 10.1.1.0 network

20. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician. Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data. The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available. Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.

21. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6. Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island. Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology. Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

CCNA 4 Chapter 8 V4.0 Answers 1. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

physical data link network transport 3.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
A carrier detect signal is present. Keepalives are being received successfully. Default encapsulation is used on this serial link. Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size. The reliability of this link is very low. The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

4. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
physical layer data link layer network layer transport layer application layer

5. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
narrowing the scope gathering symptoms from suspect devices analyzing existing symptoms determining ownership

6. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
physical data link network transport

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
The web server should be tested for an application layer problem. Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem. The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2. An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2. The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
bottom up top down divide and conquer middle out

9. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
application transport network data link physical

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
physical data link network application

11. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers. The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers. Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model. The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network. The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts. The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only. Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations. Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram. Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram. Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

13. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect encapsulation incorrect STP configuration incorrect ARP mapping incorrect clock rate

14. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling. Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center. The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally. Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

15. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
baselining tool knowledge base protocol analyzer cable tester

16. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
cable analyzer network analyzer protocol analyzer knowledge base

17. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
cable types connector types interface identifiers DLCI for virtual circuits operating system versions

18. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design IP addressing allocation on the network requirements about the service provider setup requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic expected performance under normal operating conditions

19. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Determine fault. Get to know the user to build trust. Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions. Impress the user with use of technical language and skills. Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event. Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

20. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
All layers Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3 Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 Layer 6 and Layer 7

CCNA 4 Final Exam V4.0 Answers 1. What functionality do access control lists provide in the implementation of dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?
define which addresses can be translated define which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool define which addresses are allowed out the router define which addresses can be accessed from the inside network

2. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it. Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords. Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length. Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters. Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out. Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember. 3.

Refer to the exhibit. Every time the administrator reboots this router, the boot process ends in setup mode. What is a possible problem?
There is insufficient RAM for the IOS to load on this router. A password recovery process should be done on this router. The bootstrap version and the version of the IOS are different. The IOS image is damaged and must be reloaded using tftpdnld.

The configuration register is set to ignore the startup configuration.

4. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?
BE DE CIR CBIR 5.

Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 10.1.1.1". What is the problem?
The 10.1.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0. The default router for the 10Network pool is incorrect. The ip helper-address must be added to Fa0/0 interface. The pool of addresses for the 10Network pool is incorrect.

6. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?
ATM Frame Relay HDLC PPP SDLC

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet. The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command. The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router. It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.

8. Compared with IDS systems, what can IPS systems do to provide further protection of computer systems?
detect potential attacks stop the detected attack from executing update OS patches for computer systems scan computer systems for viruses and spyware

9. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable?
Wi-Fi satellite WiMAX Metro Ethernet

10. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously. Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved. Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites. Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks. 11.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic in the output of the command?
The bandwidth capability of the interface increases and decreases automatically based on BECNs. The Serial0/0/1 interface acquired 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server. The mapping between DLCI 100 and 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP. DLCI 100 will automatically adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.

12. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?
extended reflexive standard time-based

13. Which two statements are true about IPv6 link local addresses? (Choose two.)
They begin with the 2000::/3 prefix. They begin with the FE80::/10 prefix. They are assigned by IANA to an organization. They must be manually configured by the administrator. They are assigned to a host by a stateless autoconfiguration process.

14. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
reduced jitter reduced costs reduced latency the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers 15.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1?
failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password

16. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces. Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access. Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases. Disable the HTTP server service. Enable SNMP traps.

17. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation?
Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently. It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently. Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation. Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform. 18.

Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?
application transport network data link physical

19. Which technology is used to dynamically map next hop, network layer addresses to virtual circuits in a Frame Relay network?
Inverse ARP LMI DLCI FECN

20. An administrator learns of an e-mail that has been received by a number of users in the company. This e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator. The e-mail asks the users to confirm their account and password information. Which type of security threat does this e-mail represent?
cracking phishing phreaking spamming 21.

Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?

TDM PPP HDLC SLIP

22.

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop. The VTP domain names do not match. Only one switch can be in server mode. S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

23. What is the result of adding the global command service password-encryption to the configuration of a router?
Line passwords are encrypted with type 7 encryption. Enable passwords are encrypted with type 5 encryption. All services must provide an encrypted password to function. Only encrypted messages are allowed for router communication.

24. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer network layer data link layer physical layer

25. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop DTE cable on router demarcation point demilitarized zone

26. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router. Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5. The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5. The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5. 27.

Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction. Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface. Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL. Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

28.

Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?
/19 /20 /21 /22 /23 /24

29.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?
Enable RIP authentication on R2. Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2. Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2. Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates. 30.

Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?
improper LMI type interface reset PPP negotiation failure unplugged cable

31. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?
PAP uses a two-way handshake. The password is unique and random. PAP conducts periodic password challenges. PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

32. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology. Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces. RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology. IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

33. What is tunneling?

using digital certificates to ensure that data endpoints are authentic creating a hash to ensure the integrity of data as it traverses a network using alternate paths to avoid access control lists and bypass security measures encapsulating an entire packet within another packet for transmission over a network

34. Which statement is true about NCP?

Link termination is the responsibility of NCP. Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP. NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices. NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.

35.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?
Replace the serial cable . Replace the WIC on RA. Configure RA with a clock rate command. Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB. 36.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output as shown, which two statements correctly define how the router will treat Telnet traffic that comes into interface FastEthernet 0/1? (Choose two).
Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is denied. Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is denied. Telnet to 172.16.0.0/24 is permitted. Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is permitted. Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is permitted.

37. Which Frame Relay flow control mechanism is used to signal routers that they should reduce the flow rate of frames?
DE BE CIR FECN CBIR 38.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24 network from reaching the Internet. The access control list also permits traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24 network to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network. On which interface and in which direction should the access control list be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound interface Fa0/0, outbound interface S0/0/0, inbound interface S0/0/0, outbound

39. Which configuration on the vty lines provides the best security measure for network administrators to remotely access the core routers at headquarters?

Answer: 3nd option

40.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host. The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10. The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network. Port address translation is in effect.

41. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs. Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer. ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient. Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

42.

Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?
ATM VPN ISDN Frame Relay broadband DSL

43. Which three physical network problems should be checked when a bottom-up troubleshooting approach has been chosen to troubleshoot network performance? (Choose three.)
cable connectivity high collision counts STP failures and loops address mapping errors high CPU utilization rates excess packets that are filtered by the firewall

44.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to configure a Frame Relay network. The administrator enters the commands as shown in the exhibit on R2, but the Frame Relay PVCs are inactive. What is the problem?
The incorrect DLCI numbers are being configured on R2. The S0/0/0 interface on R2 needs to be point-to-point. The frame-relay map commands are missing the cisco keyword at the end. A single router interface cannot connect to more than one Frame Relay peer at a time.

45. Which IP address and wildcard mask would be used in an ACL to block traffic from all hosts on the same subnet as host 192.168.16.43/28?
access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.31 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.16 0.0.0.31 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.16 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.15 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.43 0.0.0.16

46. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
PPP with PAP PPP with CHAP HDLC with PAP HDLC with CHAP

47. When would the multipoint keyword be used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration?
when global DLCIs are in use when using physical interfaces when multicasts must be supported when participating routers are in the same subnet

48. A network technician analyzes the network and notices late collisions. The collisions occur accompanied by jabber that originates from the server. What is the likely cause of the problem?
faulty switch port web server CPU overload faulty NIC in the web server misconfiguration of web server services 49.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2:1234 172.30.20.1:1234 172.30.20.1:3333 192.168.1.2:80

50.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet. STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to. Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN. S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

51. When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits?
LCP LMI DLCI Inverse ARP

52. A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?
The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic. The West side of town is downloading larger packets. The service provider is closer to the location on the East side. More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

CCNA 4 Final Exam 1. Which functions are provided by LCP and NCP as part of the PPP layered architecture?
LCP sets up the PPP connection and its parameters. NCP terminates the PPP connection. LCP sets up the PPP connection and its parameters. NCP handles higher layer protocol configurations. LCP includes the link-establishment phase. NCP includes link-maintenance and link-termination phases. LCP negotiates options for multiple network layer protocols. NCP agrees automatically on encapsulation formats.

2.

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on routers R1 and R2. Connectivity across the Frame Relay switch between routers R1 and R2 is successfully verified using the ping command. However, no EIGRP routes are appearing in the routing table. What could be a cause for this failure?
The Frame Relay switch has failed. The frame-relay map statement is incorrect. The S0/0/0 interface of router R1 is administratively down. The S0/0/0 interface of router R2 has an incorrect IP address.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop. The VTP domain names do not match. Only one switch can be in server mode. S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is considering updating the IOS on Router1. What version of IOS is currently installed on Router1?
1 12.4 15 1841

5.

Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the San Jose router to the DC router?
DLCI 103 DLCI 301 172.16.1.18 172.16.1.19

6. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
reduced jitter reduced costs reduced latency the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction. Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface. Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL. Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

8. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC CHAP and PPP PAP and HDLC PAP and PPP

9. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?

A wildcard mask must be created by inverting the subnet mask. A wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask. A wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 means the address should match exactly. A wildcard mask uses a "1" to identify IP address bits that must be checked.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured to allow traffic coming from 192.168.10.0/24 network to go to any destination limited to ports 80 and 443. ACL 130 should allow only requested HTTP traffic to flow back into the network. What additional configuration is needed in order for the access lists to fulfill the requirements?

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset unplugged cable improper LMI type PPP negotiation failure

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the configuration is true?

10.10.10.1 is most likely assigned to the local LAN interface. 10.10.10.1 through 10.10.10.255 is available to be assigned to users. All DHCP clients looking for an IP address will use 10.10.10.1 and 10.10.10.2. All DHCP clients in the 10.10.10.0/24 network will use 10.10.10.2 as the default gateway.

13. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?
IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface. A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface. A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured the interface. Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?

TDM PPP HDLC SLIP

15. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?
PAP uses a two-way handshake. The password is unique and random. PAP conducts periodic password challenges. PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

16. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes

17. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT. Configure dynamic NAT. Configure static NAT with overload. Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

18. Which statement is true about the PPP authentication phase?

CHAP uses a 2-way handshake to exchange the credentials. PAP can perform continuous authentication after a link is established. CHAP sends an encrypted username and password during the authentication process. The authentication phase takes place before the NCP configuration phase begins.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay on router HQ. It is desired that each Frame Relay PVC between the routers be in a separate subnet. Which two commands on HQ will accomplish this task for the connection to R1? (Choose two.)
HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0 HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 multipoint HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 point-to-point HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 103 HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 301 HQ(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 301 broadcast

20. Which wildcard mask would specify all IP addresses from 192.168.8.0 through 192.168.15.255?
0.0.0.7 0.0.7.255 0.0.8.255 0.0.15.255 0.0.255.255

21.

Refer to the exhibit. WestSW is supposed to send VLAN information to EastSW, but that did not occur. What will force WestSW to send a VLAN update to EastSW?
Change EastSW to be a VTP server. Reload both WestSW and EastSW at the same time. Erase the VLAN database on EastSW and reload the switch. Reset the configuration revision number on EastSW to zero. Reload EastSW.

22. Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?
flow control error control authentication synchronous communication

23. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it. Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords. Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length. Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters. Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out. Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

24. Which three physical network problems should be checked when a bottom-up troubleshooting approach has been chosen to troubleshoot network performance? (Choose three.)
cable connectivity high collision counts STP failures and loops address mapping errors high CPU utilization rates excess packets that are filtered by the firewall

25. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously. Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved. Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites. Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

26.

Refer to the exhibit. Users who are connected to R1 report that they are unable to establish connectivity to the users who are connected to router R2. A network administrator tests the link with the debug ppp authentication command. Based on the output shown, which statement correctly defines the problem on the link?
R1 uses PAP as a method of authentication, and R2 uses CHAP. R1 uses CHAP as a method of authentication, and R2 uses PAP. R1 uses an incorrect user name or password for CHAP authentication. R2 uses an incorrect user name or password for PAP authentication.

27.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet. STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to. Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN. S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

28. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq telnet is entered in an access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
All traffic that originates from 192.168.4.0/24 is permitted. All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied. All Telnet traffic from the 192.168.0.0/16 network is permitted. All traffic from the 192.168.4.0/22 network is permitted on TCP port 23.

29.

Refer to the exhibit. Router RT is not receiving routing updates from router RTA. What is causing the problem?
The ip rip authentication key-chain command specifies exam rather than test. The name of the keystring is not the name of the neighboring router. The key chains are given the same name on both routers. The passive-interface command was issued for RTA.

30. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology. Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces. RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology. IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

31. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP SLIP HDLC Frame Relay

32.

Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?
/19 /20 /21 /22 /23 /24

33. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers. Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM. The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made. All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

34. What translation method will allow a server to always keep the same public address?
static NAT dynamic NAT static NAT with overload dynamic NAT with overload

35. A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?
The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic. The West side of town is downloading larger packets. The service provider is closer to the location on the East side. More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

36. A light manufacturing company wishes to replace its DSL service with a nonline-of-sight broadband wireless solution that offers comparable speeds. Which solution should the customer choose?
Wi-Fi satellite WiMAX Metro Ethernet

37.

Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6 NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2 static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

38.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request packet that enters interface S0/0/0, and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 172.16.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created by access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router. The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by access-list 101 permit ip any any command. The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 command, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router. The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.

39. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?
QoS latency reliability confidentiality

40. Which technology is used to dynamically map next hop, network layer addresses to virtual circuits in a Frame Relay network?
Inverse ARP LMI DLCI FECN

41.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is teaching a trainee to interpret the results of various Frame Relay troubleshooting commands. What conclusion can be drawn from the output that is shown?
Neighboring routers should use DLCI 177 to reach the Branch router. DLCI 177 will be used to identify all broadcasts that are sent out the Branch router. The Branch router has the address 192.168.3.1 configured for the S0/0/0 interface. To reach 192.168.3.1, the Branch router will use the virtual circuit that is identified by DLCI 177.

42. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop DTE cable on router demarcation point demilitarized zone

43. A company has its headquarters office in Dallas and five branch offices located in New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Seattle, and Atlanta. WAN links are used for communications among offices in six sites. In planning the WAN links, the network designer is given two requirements: (1) minimize cost and (2) provide a certain level of WAN link reliability with redundant links. Which topology should the network designer recommend?
star full mesh hierarchical partial mesh

44.

Refer to the exhibit. A system administrator must provide connectivity to a foreign network for ten hosts in a small remote office. The commands that are listed in the exhibit were entered into the router that connects the foreign network. The users in the remote office report occasional failure to connect to resources in the foreign network. What is the likely problem?
The source addresses are not correctly designated. The translated address pool is not correctly sized. The access-list command is referencing the wrong addresses. The wrong interface is designated as the source for translations.

45. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation?
Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently. It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently. Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation. Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

46. Which method is most effective in protecting the routing information that is propagated between routers on the network?
Disable IP source routing. Configure passive interfaces. Configure routing protocol authentication. Secure administrative lines with Secure Shell.

47.

Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?
The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL. The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL. The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists. The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.

48. Which statement accurately describes a role that is played in establishing a WAN connection?
ISDN and ATM are circuit-switched technologies that are used to establish on demand a path through the service provider network. Data link layer protocols like PPP and HDLC define how data is encapsulated for transmission across a WAN link. A packet-switching network establishes a dedicated circuit between nodes for the duration of the communication session. Frame Relay switches are normally considered to be customer premises equipment (CPE) and are maintained by local administrators.

49. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum digital certificates encapsulation encryption hashing

50. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
access control list routing protocol inbound interface ARP cache

51.

Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point. LMI types must match on each end of a PVC. The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

52.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?
Enable RIP authentication on R2. Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2. Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2. Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates.

53. A network administrator can ping the Perth router, but gets a Password Required but None Set message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Perth router to allow remote access?
Router(config)# line console 0 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config)# line virtual terminal Router(config-line)# enable login Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# enable secret Router(config-line)# password cisco Router(config)# enable secret cisco Router(config)# enable cisco

54. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the administrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
The configuration register is set for 02100. The configuration register is set for 02101. The configuration register is set for 02102. The configuration register is set for 02142. Boot system commands are not configured. Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM

CCNA 4 Final Exam Answers 2011

1. Which Frame Relay flow control mechanism is used to signal routers that they should reduce the flow rate of frames? DE BE CIR FECN CBIR 2. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem? When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology. Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces. RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology. IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng. 3. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers? ATM Frame Relay HDLC PPP SDLC 4. An administrator issues the command confreg 02142 at the rommon 1> prompt. What is the effect when this router is rebooted? Contents in RAM will be erased. Contents in RAM will be ignored. Contents in NVRAM will be erased. Contents in NVRAM will be ignored. 5. Which type of network attack exploits vulnerabilities in the compromised system with the intent of propagating itself across a network? virus worm Trojan horse

man-in-the-middle 6. Which important piece of troubleshooting information can be discovered about a serial interface using the show controllers command? queuing strategy serial cable type interface IP address encapsulation method 7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection? The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation. A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection. The ACTIVE status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion. Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link. 8.

Refer to the exhibit. Computers on the internal network need access to all servers in the external network. The only traffic that is permitted from the external network must be responses to requests that are initiated on the internal network. Which security measure would satisfy this requirement? a numbered extended ACL a named standard ACL a reflexive ACL a dynamic ACL 9. A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet? Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously. Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites. Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved. Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks. 10. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider? BE DE CIR CBIR 11.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to configure a Frame Relay network. The administrator enters the commands as shown in the exhibit on R2, but the Frame Relay PVCs are inactive. What is the problem? The incorrect DLCI numbers are being configured on R2. The S0/0/0 interface on R2 needs to be point-to-point. The frame-relay map commands are missing the cisco keyword at the end. A single router interface cannot connect to more than one Frame Relay peer at a time. 12. A DHCP server is configured with a block of excluded addresses. What two devices would be assigned static addresses from the excluded address range? (Choose two.) a protocol analyzer DNS server for the network network printer that is used by many different users a laptop that will get a different address each time it boots up 13.

Refer to the exhibit. WestSW is supposed to send VLAN information to EastSW, but that did not occur. What will force WestSW to send a VLAN update to EastSW? Change EastSW to be a VTP server. Reload both WestSW and EastSW at the same time. Erase the VLAN database on EastSW and reload the switch. Reset the configuration revision number on EastSW to zero. Reload EastSW. 14.

Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses? /19 /20 /21 /22 /23 /24 15. Which configuration on the vty lines provides the best security measure for network administrators to remotely access the core routers at headquarters?

16.

Refer to the exhibit. In the partial router configuration that is shown, what is the purpose of access list BLOCK_XYZ? to prevent source IP address spoofing by hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN to block access by Fa0/0 LAN hosts to all network services beyond the router to prevent users on the Fa0/0 LAN from opening Telnet sessions on the router to secure Fa0/0 hosts by allowing only locally sourced traffic into the Fa0/0 LAN 17.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that three VLANs created on SW1 do not show in SW3. Based on output from the show vtp status and show running-config commands, what is the cause of the problem in the SW3 configuration? VTP version 2 is disabled. The VTP mode is misconfigured. The configure revision number for VTP does not match. Trunk mode is not configured on FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2. 18.

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the core router devices?

They use multiport internetworking devices to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN. They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network. They provide termination for the digital signal and ensure connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring. They support multiple telecommunications interfaces of the highest speed and are able to forward IP packets at full speed on all of those interfaces. 19. When would the multipoint keyword be used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration? when global DLCIs are in use when using physical interfaces when multicasts must be supported when participating routers are in the same subnet 20. A light manufacturing company wishes to replace its DSL service with a non-line-of-sight broadband wireless solution that offers comparable speeds. Which solution should the customer choose? Wi-Fi satellite WiMAX Metro Ethernet 21.

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command would result in the output in the exhibit? ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 172.16.76.3 ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 192.168.0.10

ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 10.1.200.254 ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 192.168.0.10 ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 172.16.76.3 ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 10.1.200.254 22. A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation? Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform. Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently. It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently. Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation. 23. A network technician wants to implement SSH as the means by which a router may be managed remotely. What are two procedures that the technician should use to successfully complete this task? (Choose two.) Configure the login banner. Configure authentication. Define the asymmetrical keys. Configure the console password. Enter the service password-encryption command. 24. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated? show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down. show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down. show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down. show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down. 25. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session? PAP uses a two-way handshake. The password is unique and random. PAP conducts periodic password challenges. PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

26. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties? QoS latency reliability confidentiality 27. Which address provides an example of an IPv6 link-local address? FE80::1324:ABCD 2001:2345:AB12:1935::FEFF 2001:1234:0000:9CA::0876/64 1234:ABCD:5678:EF00:9234:AA22:5527:FC35 28. What major benefit does Cisco HDLC provide that ISO standard HDLC lacks? flow control error control multiprotocol support cyclic redundancy checks 29. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server? Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router. Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5. The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5. The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5. 30. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router? TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted. Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port. Traffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations. 31.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration? The serial interfaces are in different subnets. The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces. The RIPng network command is not configured. The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2. 32.

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2? There is a Layer 2 loop. The VTP domain names do not match. Only one switch can be in server mode. S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does. 33. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider? demilitarized zone (DMZ) demarcation point local loop cloud 34. Which IP address and wildcard mask would be used in an ACL to block traffic from all hosts on the same subnet as host 192.168.16.43/28? access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.31 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.16 0.0.0.31 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.16

access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.15 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.43 0.0.0.16 35. Which statement is true about wildcard masks? Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask. The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask. A network or subnet bit is identified by a "1" in the wildcard mask. IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a "0" in the wildcard mask. 36. A company has its headquarters office in Dallas and five branch offices located in New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Seattle, and Atlanta. WAN links are used for communications among offices in six sites. In planning the WAN links, the network designer is given two requirements: (1) minimize cost and (2) provide a certain level of WAN link reliability with redundant links. Which topology should the network designer recommend? star full mesh hierarchical partial mesh 37.

Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks? Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface. Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL. Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet. 38. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.) reduced jitter reduced costs reduced latency the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers 39. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? PPP with PAP PPP with CHAP HDLC with PAP HDLC with CHAP 40. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found? physical layer data link layer network layer application layer 41. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.) checksum digital certificates encapsulation encryption hashing 42.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem? Use correct source file name in the command. Verify that the TFTP server software is running. Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup. Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides. 43. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router? access control list routing protocol inbound interface ARP cache 44.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem? The default gateway is in the wrong subnet. STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to. Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN. S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface. 45. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs? Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs. Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer. ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources. Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL. 46.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology? frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1 frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2 frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1 frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2 frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1 frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2 frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1 frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2 47.

Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dnsserver commands made available? The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients. The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3. The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1. The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254. 48.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output as shown, which two statements correctly define how the router will treat Telnet traffic that comes into interface FastEthernet 0/1? (Choose two). Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is denied. Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is denied. Telnet to 172.16.0.0/24 is permitted. Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is permitted. Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is permitted. 49. While troubleshooting a PPP link that uses PAP authentication, a network administrator notices an incorrectly configured password in the running configuration. The administrator corrects the error by entering the command ppp pap sent-username ROUTER_NAME password NEW_PASSWORD, but the link still does not come up. Assuming that the rest of the configuration is correct and that the link has no physical layer problems, what should the administrator do? Save the configuration to NVRAM. Shut down the interface then re-enable it. Generate traffic by pinging the remote router. Use CHAP to ensure compatibility with the remote router.

50. A network administrator determines that falsified routing information is propagating through the network. What action can be used to address this threat? Update the IOS images. Change console passwords. Employ end-user authentication. Configure routing protocol authentication. 51. What is tunneling? using digital certificates to ensure that data endpoints are authentic creating a hash to ensure the integrity of data as it traverses a network using alternate paths to avoid access control lists and bypass security measures encapsulating an entire packet within another packet for transmission over a network 52.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been asked to configure PPP with CHAP authentication over the serial link between routers R1 and R2. What additional configuration should be included on both routers to complete the task?