1. It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through different modes of transmission: a.

Contagious disease b. Communicable disease c. Infectious disease d. Iatrogenic disease 2. animal a. b. c. d. A clinically manifest disease of a man or resulting from an infection: Contagious disease Communicable disease Infectious disease Iatrogenic disease

b. c. d.

Nosocomial infection True infection Parasitic infection

9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is: a. Communicable b. Infectious c. Contagious d. Virulent 10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and contagious? a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious c. Both are contagious and infectious

3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as: a. Tell tall signs b. Pathognomonic sign c. Distinctive sign d. Fastigium sign 4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial? a. When infection occurred upon admission b. When infection is acquired before discharge c. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital d. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay 5. A infection that is completely manifested by signs and symptoms: a. Opportunistic infection b. True infection c. Communicable infection d. Contagious infection 6. Which of the following is the main cause of nosocomial infection? a. Surgical wound infection b. Sepsis c. Urinary tract infection d. Respiratory tract infection 7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted in the hospital? a. S. aureus b. P. aeruginosa c. E. Coli d. H. influenza 8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when the body is immunocompromised: a. Opportunistic infection

d.

Gonorrhea and influenza contagious but only infectious

are

not

11. Which of the following statements are true? a. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious. b. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious. c. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious. d. Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable. 12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host: a. Causative agent b. Reservoir c. Bacteria d. Carrier 13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of: a. Pathogenecity b. Communicability c. Teratogenecity d. Epidemiology 14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000 bacteria to initiate disease. This property of microorganism is known as: a. Viability b. Toxigenecity c. Virulence d. Invasiveness 15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what property of the causative agent?

a. b. c. d.

Dose Antigenicity Specificity Mode of action

22.

16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some communicable disease is known as: a. Patient b. Carrier c. Contact d. Suspect 17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when they lyse themselves (suicide bomber): a. Exotoxin b. Enterotoxin c. Endotoxin d. Epitoxin

Which of the following is considered a fomite? a. Staphylococcus aureus carrier b. Urinals c. Mosquito d. Hands 23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir: a. Mechanical vector b. Biological vector c. Accidental host d. Intermediate vector 24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease? a. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic b. A pregnant mother c. A healthy sexual worker

d.
hospital

A patient who is discharged from the

18.

The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the intestinal tract: a. Exotoxin b. Enterotoxin c. Endotoxin d. Epitoxin 19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and are self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate parasite: a. Virus b. Protozoa c. Amoeba d. Bacteria 20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented. This is done by: a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from each other d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible. 21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air current in the form of droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is: a. Airborne b. Droplet c. Pressurized d. Fomites

25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is: a. Incubation period b. Prodromal period c. Invasion/ fastigium period d. Convalescent period 26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is pattern of disease occurrence is known as: a. Endemic b. Epidemic c. Sporadic d. Pandemic 27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States: a. Sin Nombre Coli b. E. coli O157:H7 c. Colicollus coli d. Legionairres coli 28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state: a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quarternary 29. Which of the following is a primary level of disease prevention: a. Mass screening b. Contact tracing

c. d.

Hand washing Prompt treatment

a. It is given for mothers for two doses with one month interval with booster doses every next pregnancy.

30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of IEC that involves behavioral change? a. Information b. Education c. Communication d. Integration 31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if: a. Able to apply everyday b. If shared with other members of the family or even the society c. If kept and considered as own d. Written and well documented

b.

It is given with 0.05 cc, IM at deltoid region c. It provides 99% immunity at the third dose d. Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years if TT2 is given 37. Environmental sanitation refers to the study of all factors in mans physical environment which may exercise or may not exercise deleterious effect on his health and well-being. Which of the following is not included? a. Safe and Water Supply b. Proper Excreta and Waste Disposal c. Food Sanitation d. Sexual workers occupation sanitation program 38. The four Rs of food sanitation includes all of the following, except: a. Right Source b. Right Price c. Right Storage d. Right Cooking 39. An adequately cooked food is heated with the temperature of: a. 10-60 degrees C b. 70 degrees C c. 100 degrees C d. 150 degrees C 40. For right storage, the following is correct except: a. Foods should not be stored longer than 2 hours b. Reheat with 60 degrees centrigrade. c. Food must not be stored with room temperature d. No rethawing, if possible. 41. Food establishments in the community shall be appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the following is important for the cook or cook helper to have? a. Inspection b. Approval of all food sources c. Updated health services d. Compliance to health certificate 42. A patient is removed from the other persons because he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This kind of isolation is called as: a. Strict isolation b. Contact isolation c. Source isolation d. Reverse isolation

32.

Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region? a. BCG b. DPT c. Measles d. Hep B 33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the freezer? a. Measles b. DPT c. BCG d. Hep B 34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is:

a.

At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8 weeks after the 2nd dose b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses c. At birth with 4 weeks interval d. Given together with DPT and OPV 35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT? a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered. b. Do not give the second dose of DPT. c. Give the child DTaP instead. d. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and developed pertussis with the first dose.

36.

Which of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid?

43. Which of the following is true regarding source isolation? a. Negative pressure in the room and positive outside b. Positive pressure in the room and negative outside c. Equalized pressure from both areas d. Negative pressure should be maintained inside and out 44. The restriction of activities of well person that has been exposed to a case of communicable disease to prevent disease transmission during the incubation period but without limitation to movements: a. Complete quarantine b. Source isolation c. Surveillance d. Separation 45. A patient with typhoid fever and have several bouts of diarrheal stool prompts a nurse to use what kind of precaution: a. Contact b. Reverse Isolation c. Drainage precaution d. Enteric precaution 46. Which of the following statements about source isolation is false? a. Air entering the room is passed through filters b. The room is under negative air pressure c. Source isolation is appropriate for patients with meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza d. Transmission-based precautions will be necessary

b. c. d.

Strict isolation Droplet precaution Universal precaution

50. Which of the following statements about medical asepsis is false? a. Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique

b.

Hand washing is a medical aseptic technique c. Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique d. The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all microorganisms 51. It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. It can be done through dry heat, moist heat and radiation: a. Disinfection b. Sterilization c. Sanitation d. Disinfestation 52. You are caring a client in isolation. After nursing care is done what will you remove first after handling the patient? a. Mask b. Gown c. Gloves d. Bonnet

53.

47.

Which of the following is not part of the standard precaution? a. Hand washing between patient contacts b. Placing a patient in a private room having negative air pressure c. Proper disposal of needles, scalpels and other sharps d. Wearing gloves, masks, eye protection and gowns when appropriate

The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and dessication. This process is used for making vaccine: a. Use of formaldehyde b. Lyophilization c. Attenuation d. Moist heat application 54. The process of rendering surface that has been heavily exposed to infectious pathogen safe to handle is known as: a. Disinfection b. Decontamination c. Sterilization d. Anti-septic 55. When a nurse uses alcohol on the clients skin before an injection, she uses what kind of chemical-removing-microorganism? a. Antiseptic b. Disinfectant c. Decontaminant d. Antimicrobial 56. The removal of stains and any contaminants from a kitchen utensils done at home is also known as: a. Sanitization b. Sanitation

48.

A patient with suspected tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is not appropriate? a. Droplet precautions b. Source isolation c. Standard precautions d. Use of a type of N95 respirator by the health care provider 49. Which of the following doesnt require any private room? a. Reverse isolation precautions

c. d.

Decontamination Disinfection

b. c.

57.

The client with tuberculosis is expelling large amount of sputum. The nurse, every time the client coughs, removes the soiled linen and discards the tissues and burns it. This technique is what kind of disinfection? a. Terminal b. Concurrent c. Longitudinal d. Post-expulsion 58. The process of filling animal forms through use of gaseous agent. a. Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS) b. Disinfestation c. Sanitation d. Gaseous Desentisization 59. ___ and a. b. c. d. Medical hand washing can be done for with elbows ___ : 10 15 seconds: down 10 15 seconds: up 3 - 5 minutes: down 3 5 minutes: up harmful

d.

Direct control over contraction of muscles Absence of sodium potassium pump that inhibits contraction Stimulation of salivary which produces excessive salivation

65. The initial sign of tetanus is: a. Trismus b. Abdominal rigidity c. Opisthotonus d. Risus sardonicus 66. The pathognomonic sign of tetanus is: a. Trismus b. Abdominal rigidity c. Opisthotonus d. Risus sardonicus 67. Which of the following management neutralized the toxins present in the body with tetanus? a. Anti-tetanus toxin b. Tetanus immunoglobulin c. Penicillin d. Equine anti toxin 68. DPT immunization provides how many years of protection? a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 7 years d. 10 years 69. Tetanus toxoid for mothers are given, except:

60. The removal of all microorganisms is also known as: a. Medical asepsis b. Surgical asepsis c. Sterilization d. Decontamination

61. Clostridium tetani has the following characteristics, except: a. Drum-stick in appearance and normal inhabitant of intestine b. Aerobic, spore-forming rod shape bacteria c. Found in soil fomites and excretion animals and human d. Produces one of the most potent toxin 62. Incubation period of Clostridium tetani is: a. 3 to 30 days b. 3 days to 3 weeks c. 3 to 9 days d. 3 to 3 months 63. The incubation period of tetanus among infants is: a. 3 to 30 days b. 3 days to 3 weeks c. 3 to 9 days d. 3 to 3 months 64. Tetanolysis causes RBC destruction while tetanospasmin causes: a. Inhibition of impulses that stops muscle contraction

a. Two doses at the 2nd trimester

b. c. d. With one month interval At thigh region , IM, 0.5 cc Booster dose in every other pregnancy

70. Prevention of tetanus neonatorum among infants is best achieved through: a. Adequate and effective maternal and child health b. Provision of adequate medicine to tetanus infected child c. Proper wound care d. Frequent hand washing among health care providers especially during child birth 71. Wounds with patients with suspected tetanus infection is best cleaned by: a. Soap and water b. 3% hydrogen peroxide c. Iodophor d. Cydex 72. Which of the following meningitis is not true: facts about

a.

2/3 of humans are asymptomatic carrier b. It is caused by gram negative sphere bacteria c. Can be caused by other bacteria other than Neisseria meningitides d. Non-infectious after one week of treatment 73. The following strains of N. meningitides do not have vaccines? a. A b. Y c. C d. B 74. Which of the following causative agents of meningitis which is common among children? a. Hemophilus influenza b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Meningococcus d. E. coli 75. The drug of choice for this meningitis causative agent is Penicillin: a. Hemophilus influenza b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Meningococcus d. Clostridium tetani 76. Meningoccocemia is a result of the systemic profileration of the microorganism in the body characterized by except: a. Petechial rash b. Hypotension c. DIC d. Convulsion 77. Meningitis is the characterized by flexion of the hip and knee while in supine position, when neck is flexed. This is known as: a. Kernigs sign b. Brudzinskis sign c. Opisthotonus d. Nuchal rigidity 78. Chemoprophylaxis for meningitis includes which of the following pharmacological intervention for 2 days and 2 dose and is contraindicated for pregnant mothers and taking contraceptives: a. Rifampicin b. Penicillin c. Ceftriaxone d. Tetracycline 79. The drug of choice for Meningitis is:

a. b. c. d.

Rifampicin Penicillin Ceftriaxone Penicilin

80. The following management decreases tendency of increased intra-cranial pressure, except: a. Avoid valsalva maneuver b. Administer anti-diuretics c. Lessen environmental stimuli d. Elevate head part 81. Which of the following causes of encephalitis is brought by a mosquito? a. Japanese B encephalitis b. Amoebic meningoencephalitis c. Toxic encephalitis d. Spongiform encephalopathy

82. West Nile Encephalitis and St. Louis

Encephalitis are mosquito-related encephalitis and is caused by: a. Flavivuris b. Togavirus c. Bunyavirus d. Paramyxovirus 83. It is a kind of encephalitis that resulted from complication of communicable disease of viral origin due to ascending infection: a. Secondary encephalitis b. Amoebic encephalitis c. Toxic encephalitis d. Mosquito-borne encephalitis 84. La crosse virus is very potent to patients who are: a. Under 15 years old b. Elderly c. Pregnant d. Male 85. The only mosquito borne encephalitis that have vaccine made from inactivated brain of mouse, given for three doses of I cc: a. Australian X Encephalitis b. Equine Encephalitis c. Japanese B encephalitis d. St. Louise encephalitis 86. Mad cow disease is a kind of encephalitis and medically called as: a. Kuru b. Creudzfeldt Jakob Disease c. Scrapie d. Bovine spongiform encephalitis

87. Amoebic encephalitis is brought by a microorganism from waters containing organic waste and enters body through nasal passages, olfactory nerve reaching the CNS. What is this amoeba? a. N. fowleri b. Acanthamoeba c. Plasmodium ovale d. T. brucei 88. Increase ICP among infants is manifested primarily by all of the following, in exception of: a. High-pitched cry b. Bulging of fontanels c. Decrease pulse rate d. Projectile vomiting 89. The following are the diagnostic procedures for encephalitis, except: a. EEG b. Blood culture c. Nose and throat swab d. Lumbar puncture 90. Which of the following intervention can be a preventive measure against encephalitis? a. Avoid nasopharyngeal secretions from infected individuals with toxic encephalitis b. CLEAN program of DOH c. Influenza virus vaccine d. Proper food handling 91. The following are included in the CLEAN program of DOH: a. Stream seeding b. Zooprohylaxis c. Stream clearing d. IRS 92. Drug of choice for encephalitis is: a. Penicillin b. Ciprofloxacin c. Variable d. Azithromycin 93. In 1955, Jonas Salk introduced this vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis caused by Sabins vaccine? a. OPV b. IPV c. OPT d. OPM 94. Which of the following strain of Legiodebilitans causes permanent immunity? a. Brunhilde b. Lansing c. Leon d. Paquita

95. Stage of poliomyelitis where no evident involvement of CNS noted? a. Invasive b. Pre-paralytic c. Paralytic d. Poliotic 96. Pathognomonic sign of poliomyelitis includes all of the following, except: a. Hoynes sign b. Pokers sign c. Stimsons sign d. Paralysis 97. How many days will it take to have an irreversible paralysis among client with Poliomyelitis? a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 100 days 98. Which kind of paralysis that affects the cranial nerves and respiratory muscles? a. Spinal b. Bulbar c. Bulbo-spinal d. Laundrys paralysis 99. Diagnostic procedure for poliomyelitis includes all of the following, except: a. Muscle Grading Scale b. Electroencephalogram c. Lumbar puncture d. Stool exam 100. Priority nursing diagnosis for clients with poliomyelitis is: a. Impaired gas exchange b. Impaired Physical Mobility c. Self Care deficit d. Ineffective airway clearance 101. a. IPV is given for three doses and: 2 doses are given at 1 to two months interval Given at 2, 4, 6-18 months Booster dose at 10 years old

b. 3rd dose after 6 to 12 months

c. d.

102. Incubation period of Rabies virus for man is: a. 10 days to 10 years b. 3 to 8 weeks c. 3 to 10 days d. Hours to 3 days 103. Rhabdovirus is: a. Bullet shaped b. Drum-stick in appearance c. Chinese characters-like

d. 104. animal a. b. c. d. 105. rabies a. b. c. d.

Cork-screw appearance Intense salivation of a is seen in what form? Dumb form Furious form Both dumb and furious None of the above The pathognomonic is: Hydrophobia Intense salivation Bizarre behavior Laryngospasm rabid

given dog? a. b. c. d.

to human bitten by an infected ERIG, 40 IU/kg HRIG , 20 IU/kg HyperRab 40 IU/kg Imogam 60 IU/kg

sign

of

106. Which of the following factors determines treatment of rabies, except? a. Nature of contact b. Animal species c. Vaccination or clinical status of animal d. Amount of saliva present during biting period 107. Absence of laryngospasm during the paralytic stage indicates: a. Poor prognosis b. Recovery c. Paralysis of extremities d. Aerophobia 108. Pre-exposure vaccine is not given: a. To high risk individuals such as veterinarians b. For 3 doses of 1 ml IM

112. If an animal dies after 10 days, the following are the considerations, except: a. Animal should not be cooked for food b. Keep the brain frozen c. Send animals head immediately to the laboratory for the detection of Negri bodies d. Put it in a cool dawg 113. Management for the wound includes all of the following, except: a. 70 % alcohol antisepsis b. Running water and soap cleaning c. Suture site if wound is large to prevent excessive bleeding d. Place blockage tie above the injury site 114. A wild animal if even though unprovoked bit, animal should be: a. Observed for 10 days b. Killed at once c. Send to PAWS d. Donated to Malabon Zoo 115. The following are the characteristics of Cornyebacterium diptheriae, except: a. Aerobic, non motile b. Gram positive c. Arrange like Chinese letters d. Drum stick in appearance 116. The causative agent of diphtheria manifest its infective property by: a. Invasion in the throat by adhesion and initiates inflammatory response b. Exotoxin kills leukocytes and forms congregation in the throat c. Staying latent in the lungs after non-recognition of macrophages d. Increase mucus production and impedes entry air going to lungs 117. The type of diphtheria where hoarseness of voice, DOB, and aphonia is observed: a. Nasal b. Pharyngeal

c. At 0, 7, 21 to 28 days d. to animals quarantined and

observed for 10 days 109. Post-exposure prophylaxis is given for: a. 14 doses plus 2 booster doses b. 3 doses and no booster doses c. 21 doses included of which is the 3 booster doses d. 10 doses plus 2 doses for the animal 110. as: a. b. c. d. A dog can be vaccinated as early During at birth 3 months 6 weeks One year

111. Which of the following neutralizes virus and said to be safe if

c. d.

Laryngeal Mucous membrane

118. What type of diphtheria is manifested where the client has exudative pseudomembrane on throat and vulva and considered uncommon yet very dangerous? a. Nasal b. Pharyngeal c. Laryngeal d. Mucous membrane 119. Pharyngeal type of diphtheria with 2 cultures already sent to the laboratory must have a strict isolation for: a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 2 to 4 days d. 14 days 120. Patients with diphtheria must have how many negative results should be taken to confirm absence of infection? a. Three b. Two c. One d. None, clinical sign is enough to confirm presence 121. The pathognomonic diphtheria is: a. Inspiratory whoop b. Hemoptysis c. Pseudomembrane d. Coryza sign of

124. Which of the following complications is likely to happen for clients with diphtheria? a. Meningitis b. Orchitis c. Myocarditis d. Gastro-intestinal affectations 125. Contact isolation is needed for client with what kind of diphtheria? a. Nasal b. Laryngeal c. Cutaneous d. Mucous membrane 126. Preventive measure against diphtheria is through vaccination. Which of the following considerations are not intended for diphtheria vaccine? a. 3 doses, given first at 6 weeks b. Injected IM at deltoid region c. Booster dose every two years especially for travelers d. DPT antigen is a whole cell vaccine 127. Which of the following about pertussis, is considered incorrect? a. Patients under 6 months and vaccinated do not create a whoop b. Whooping cough is characterized by repeated violent coughing followed by rapid expiration c. It produces pertussis toxin that increases mucus production d. Pertussis is characterized also by increase in thoracic and intracranial pressure 128. Presence of whooping cough, increase thoracic pressure and involuntary micturition occurs on what stage of pertussis? a. Invasive b. Spasmodic c. Catarrhal d. Convalescence 129. The diagnostic procedure pertussis is: a. Shicks test b. Maloneys test c. Bordet-gengou test d. Pandys test for

122. Equine diphtheria anti-toxin must be given for patients with diphtheria: a. After three positive result to nose and throat culture b. Even without laboratory result c. Together with penicillin or erythromycin to eliminate toxin that has already been absorbed d. If not allergic to equine; otherwise, human equine antitoxin must be given

123.

If client is experiencing diphtheria, which of the following is a must at the clients bedside? a. Pair of scissors b. Mechanical ventilator c. Tracheostomy set d. Bottle

130. The client with Pertussis taking Penicillin is considered non-infective after: a. Negative result on the laboratory test

b. Five days after continued therapy c. Increased WBC up to 20 per cent d. Absence of whooping cough 131. Possible complication Pertussis include, except: a. Abdominal hernia b. Increase ICP c. Secondary infection d. Blindness of

a. b. c. d.

Amantidine Acyclovir Zidovoudine Zanamivir

138. Zanamivir (Reenza) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are both effective to influenza virus type: a. A b. B c. Both A and B d. Type C 139. Which of the following is a preventive measure against influenza? a. Contact isolation b. Vaccination each year especially for travelers c. Chemoprophylaxis of Amantidine d. Adequate nutrition 140. The major cause of disability in the world is brought by: a. Leprosy b. Tuberculosis c. Pneumonia d. Poliomyelitis 141. The following are characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, except: a. Gram positive and rod shape b. Acid-fast and highly aerobic c. Can be killed by drying and disinfectants d. May cause delayed hypersensitivity reaction 142. The patient is considered noninfective after: a. Two to four weeks after therapy b. one week after therapy c. after negative Microscopic Examination result d. after negative chest X-ray 143. The tuberculosis-causing microorganism can be transmitted through the following means, except: a. Coughing, sneezing, singing b. Direct invasion through mucus membrane or break in the skin c. Feco-oral route d. Unpasteurized milk or dairy products 144. Granuloma or tubercles that resist digestion and removal by macrophages are called: a. Ghons complexes b. Caseous necrosis c. Consumption

132. Patient with pertussis should be seggrated for 3 weeks from the appearance of paroxysmal cough through: a. Contact isolation b. Airborne isolation c. Droplet isolation d. Transmission based precaution 133. If a child experienced convulsion after a DPT immunization, which of the following intervention would the nurse do? a. Give the next dose as scheduled b. Give DTaP on the next dose c. Give DT for the next dose d. No vaccination on the next schedule 134. It is a acute and mutative highly communicable diseases that cause 20 M deaths (1918) rendering more mortality than the World War I. a. Malaria b. Tuberculosis c. AIDS d. Influenza 135. The influenza virus is very virulent to those immunocompromised and extremes of age and has the ability to: a. Reactivate after latent infection b. Mutate and create another strain c. Infiltrate other organs; hence, multiple organ failure d. Affect gonads and may lead to sterility 136. Strain of influenza that is most severe and major cause of epidemics and endemics: a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D 137. The drug of choice for influenza, especially for type A is:

d. 145. a. b. c. d.

Cavity TB in the bones is also known as: Miliary Tuberculosis TB meningitis Potts disease Extrapulmonary TB

b. c. d.

Positive tuberculosis case Immunocompromised patient Possible with HIV

146. A tuberculosis patient have moderately advanced extent of disease progression if: a. Lesions are demonstrated without excavation and confined to small part of one or both lungs b. One or both lungs are involved with a total diameter of cavities less than 4 cm c. Lesions are more than the volume of a single lung d. Microorganisms traveled in the systemic circulation affecting only proximal organs 147. Which of the following TB category according to DOH, has a new smear negative PTB with minimal parenchymal lesions on Chest X-ray? a. Category I b. Category II c. Category III d. Category IV 148. Immediate reporting of this category to the Regional Tuberculosis Program Center is a must: a. Category I b. Category II c. Category III d. Category IV 149. Which of the following signs and symptoms may prompt a patient to seek medical attention suspecting tuberculosis? a. Chest pain b. Afternoon fever c. Cough for two weeks d. Shortness of breath 150. The standard diagnostic procedure for tuberculosis is: a. Direct sputum smear microscopy b. Chest X-ray c. Mantoux test d. Purified protein derivative 151. Induration of 8 to 10 according to DOH, means? a. Past exposure tuberculosis mm, to

152. Which of the following patient does not confirm positive test for Mantoux test? a. 5 mm induration for those positive granuloma formation after CXR b. 10 mm induration for those with DM, Renal Failure and hematological problem c. 10 mm induration for those with sudden weight loss d. 10 mm for HIV patient 153. Which of the following drug for TB is the only one in capsule form? a. Rifampicin b. Ethambutol c. Pyrazinamide d. Isoniazid 154. TB formulation of anti-TB drugs that are prepared separately: a. Single drug formulation b. Fixed dose combination c. DOTS d. MDT paucibacillary 155. Allergic reaction observed with: a. Rifampicin b. Ethambutol c. Pyrazinamide d. Isoniazid is frequently

156. Which of the following is also used as a chemoprophylaxis for TB: a. Rifampicin b. Ethambutol c. Pyrazinamide d. Isoniazid 157. a. b. c. d. Side effect of Ethambutol is: Peripheral neuritis Orange bodily secretions Optic neuritis Ototoxicity

158. The best method of prevention of TB and leprosy especially among children is: a. Taking INH for prophylaxis b. Good nutrition c. Healthy environment d. BCG immunization 159. Patients taking isoniazid primarily, must: a. Take medication with food

b. Take vitamin B6 c. Be assessed every 2 to 4 weeks for vision d. Have kidney and liver function test 160. The recommended regimen for patients under category 2 is: a. HRZES for 2 months, HRZE for 1 month (intensive phase) and five months of HRE (maintenance phase) b. 2 months of HRZE (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase) c. HRZES for 3 months (intensive phase) and five months of HRE (maintenance phase) d. 2 months of HRZE and 2 month of HR (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase)

c. d.

Melena Hemoptysis

TYPHOID FEVER 166. The causative agent of typhoid fever is: a. Salmonella enterica b. Salmonella typhosa c. Salmonella enteritidis d. Salmonella choleraesuis 167. A vector that transmits typhoid bacillus to its infective host: a. Mosquito b. Snail c. Fly d. Feces 168. The pathognomonic sign of typhoid fever is: a. Rose spots on the abdomen b. Butterfly rash c. Stimsons sign d. Forscheimer spots 169. Salmonella enterica / typhosa microorganism is virulent because which of the following mode of action? a. Pushing itself from one cell to another by adhesin and actin tail b. Attracts electrolytes and then expelled causing diarrhea c. Burrowing to the Peyers patches of the small intestine d. Penetrating the intestinal wall and travels systemically 170. The following clinical manifestations are observed during the fastidial stage, except: a. Typhoid psychosis b. Carphologia c. Subsultus tendinum d. Intestinal perforation 171. A cook of a restaurant is free from typhoid bacillus only if: a. 3 consecutive cultures are done, with one month interval and found negative b. After 48 hours of continued therapy and found negative during culture c. After a negative scotch tape result d. After 10 days of fecalysis and found negative 172. The following immunoglobulin findings indicate the early infection of typhoid fever:

161.

BCG immunization came from what mycobacterium strain? a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Mycobacterium africanum c. Mycobacterium bovis d. Mycobacterium caninum

162. Which of the following food handling measures are said to be incorrect? a. Boil food approximately reaching 60 degrees Celcius. b. Avoid tasting unusual or foods with peculiar odor. c. Sanitization is the process of disinfecting kitchen utensils. d. Wash hand before, during and after food preparation. 163. According to WHO, the following are the keys on how to maintain safety of food, except: a. Cook thoroughly b. Use safe water c. Separate raw and cook d. Use hand sanitizer 164. Diet that is frequently ordered for a client with diarrhea: a. Acid ash diet b. Alkaline ash diet c. Bland diet d. High fiber diet

165. Which of the following bleeding episodes indicates upper GI bleeding a. Hematemesis b. Hematochezia

a. b. c. d.

Increase IgG Increase IgM No Ig increase Increase in both IgG and IgM

d.

Must be refrigerated first to halt the growth of other microorganisms

173. The drug of choice for typhoid fever is: a. Chloramphenicol b. Ampicillin c. Ceftriaxone d. Penicillin 174. Chloramphenicol is contraindicated for children in the United States because it may cause: a. Liver cirrhosis b. Aplastic anemia c. Sterility d. Blindness 175. Possible complication of typhoid fever includes, except: a. Intestinal perforation b. Hemorrhage c. Extraintestinal typhoid fever d. Peritonitis 176. Shigellosis is also except: a. Asylum dysentery b. Bacillary dysentery c. Blood flux d. El tor known as,

180. The drug of choice for Shigellosis which is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimetropin: a. Ampicillin b. Tetracycline c. Cotrimoxazole d. Loperamide 181. Another term to connote cholera is, except: a. Violent dysentery b. El tor c. Washerwomans disease d. Flux 182. Possible effects of diarrhea is:

a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Hypokalemia c. Hypernatremia d. Respiratory acidosis 183. During the collapse stage of cholera, the client will be experiencing what sign of dehydration which is considered also a pathognomonic sign of cholera: a. Marked mental depression

b. Sultus tendinum
c. d. 184. a. b. c. d. Washerwomans sign Rose spots on the abdomen Drug of choice for cholera is: Ampicillin Tetracycline Cotrimoxazole Loperamide

177. The group of Shigella or dysentery bacillus that produces a Shiga toxin and is said to be the most virulent: a. Shflesneri b. Shboy-dii c. Sh-dysenteriae d. Sh-connei 178. The following are the means of transmitting Shigella or dysentery bacillus, except: a. Feco-oral transmission b. Contaminated water, milk and food c. Droplet transmission d. Transmission by fly 179. Which of the following nursing intervention in collecting stool specimen with Shigellosis? a. Must be of sufficient amount to obtain accurate result, approximately one half of a drinking cup b. 2 successive fecal sample twice a day c. Must be sent in the laboratory at once

185.

Cholera, dysentery and typhoid fever can be prevented by CDT immunization given deltoid area and gives: a. 6 months immunity b. 1 year immunity c. 3 years immunity d. 5 months immunity

186. Which of the following gastrointestinal disease is caused by protozoa? a. Violent dysentery b. Typhoid fever c. Bacillary dysentery d. Amebic dysentery 187. The infective Entamoeba histolytica is: a. Larva b. Cyst stage of

c. d.

Trophozoites Gametocytes

188. The possible complication of amebiasis which is of greatest concern and most severe is: a. Extraintestinal amebiasis b. Dehydration c. Hemorrhage d. Shock 189. is: a. b. c. d. The drug of choice for amebiasis Chloramphenicol Cotrimoxazole Metronidazole Tetracycline

a. b. c. d.

Praziquantel Hetrazan Chloroquine Penicilin drug choice for

196. Alternative Paragonomiasis a. BITIN b. Rifampicin c. Chloroquine d. Tetracycline

197. The most important means of preventing Paragonomiasis is: a. Sanitary disposal of excreta b. Food sanitation c. Avoid bathing in infected water d. Anti-mollusk campaign 198. Paralytic Shellfish (PSP)is commonly known as: a. Red Tide b. Green algae Poisoning c. Sting Ray Poisoning d. Paragonomiasis 199. about a. b. c. Poisoning

PARAGONOMIASIS 190. The main and primary intermediate host of Paragonomiasis a. Antemelania asperata b. Varona litterata c. Paragonimus westermani d. Paragonimus siamenses 191. The following are the possible modes of transmission of Paragonomiasis a. Ingestion of raw or insufficiently cooked crabs b. Contamination of food and utensils c. Drinking contaminated water d. Sexual contact 192. Paragonomiasis is endemic in the following areas, except: a. Mindoro, Camarines region b. Sorsogon, Samar and Leyte c. Albay, Cebu and Basilan d. Guimaras, Pangasinan and Zambales 193. Patients with Paragonomiasis are misdiagnosed because it has this disease manifestation: a. PTB b. Diptheria c. Pneumonia d. Pertussis 194. Diagnostic examination for Paragonomiasis are the following, except: a. Sputum examination b. CSF analysis c. Immunology d. Fecalysis 195. Drug of Paragonomiasis is: choice for

Which of the following facts PSPs causative agent is not true? Caused by Dinoflagellates Common term is plankton Less than 30 kinds of 2000 varieties ca cause poisoning d. Increases because of continuous high temperature and/or summer

200. is the a. b. c. d.

Which of the following mollusks cause of PSP, except: Tahong Talaba Halaan Pamaypay

201. Which of the following facts about shellfish with poison is not true: a. It contains a toxin known as Pyromidium b. The toxin affects the CNS primarily c. It can be neutralize by vinegar or any acidic solution d. It can tolerate extreme heat and temperature 202. of PSP a. b. c. d. Classical clinical manifestations are the following, in exception to: Paralysis Ataxia Dysphagia Urticaria

203. Which of the following victims would probably have the highest rate of survival after ingesting a poisonous shellfish? a. Those who have eaten pamaypay, the least poisonous shellfish b. Those who have survived the first 12 hours after ingestion c. Those who have drank immediately sea water to counterpart shellfishs poison d. Those who urged and successfully vomited 204. A person who have eaten and manifested signs and symptoms of PSP must first: a. Drink decaffeinated coffee b. Take the shellfish and let it be examined by the laboratory technicians to know antibiotic of choice. c. Induce vomiting. d. Take metronidazole, as ordered. 205. During the early stage of poisoning, let the client do which of the following first aid measures to neutralize toxin, except? a. Drinking pure coconut milk b. Drinking milk c. Drinking sodium bicarbonate solution

among five to fourteen year group d. 2-5 years old are the reservoirs; while 6 to 14 are easily infected 209. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infection in the Philippines are, except: a. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Trichuris trichuria c. Hookworms (Ancylostoma duodonale and Necator americanus) d. Oxyuris vermicularis 210. a. b. c. d. 211. a. b. c. d. Causative agent of pinworm: Oxyuris vermicularis Ascaris lumbricoides Strogyloides stercoralis Trichuris trichuria Another term for pinworm: Enterobiasis Strongyloidiasis Trichuriasis Ancylostosomiasis pinworms are

d. Drinking vinegar
206. The most common reason of botulism among infants is: a. Eating fecal material of the child b. Eating commercially prepared food such as Cerelac c. Introduction of honey to baby d. Inadequately boiled drinking milk 207. about a. b. c. Which of the following facts botulism is not true: Manifest within 12 to 36 hours First 24 hours critical Initial signs and symptoms includes dry mouth, sore throat, weakness, vomiting diarrhea d. Infants are rigid and muscle contraction is evident.

212. Primarily, transmitted through: a. Droplet b. Soil c. Fomites d. Airborne

213. The pathognomonic Pinworm infection is: a. Aplastic anemia b. Nocturnal ani c. Eczema d. Hemorrhoids

sign

of

214. Ascariasis lumbricoides is also known as: a. Pinworm b. Tapeworm c. Roundworm d. Threadworm 215. It has a strong affinity to this part of the body where the eggs matures for 3 weeks: a. Liver b. Lungs c. Kidneys d. GI tract 216. a. b. c. d. Threadworms are also known as: Enterobiasis Strongyloidiasis Trichuriasis Ancylostosomiasis

208. Which of the following facts about STH is not true? a. third most prevalent infection worldwide b. ranked top 10 among the Worlds Top Ten Infectious Diseases Killer c. Deworming is the number one cost effective priority intervention

217. Threadworms are different from other roundworms because it has the following capacity, except: a. Reproduce even without host

c. d.

Detoxifying their toxins Chemically altering component

their

b. Eggs hatch into larvae in the

c. d. 218. by: a. b. c. d. 219. as: a. b. c. d. intestine Have an increase viability form known as the rhabdozoite Eggs are the infective stage Whipworm infection is caused Oxyuris vermicularis Ascaris lumbricoides Strogyloides stercoralis Trichuris trichuria Ancylostomiasis is also known Pinworm Hookworm Roundworm Tapeworm

225. The most effective measure against worm infections is: a. Avoid walking bare footed b. Promoting hygiene c. Vaccination d. Isolation HEPATITIS

226.

Considered AIDS twin, it is the 2 leading cause of cancer, second to tobacco: a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D
nd

220. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodanale infection can result: a. Eczema b. Ear infection c. Anemia d. Vitamin B 12 deficiency 221. Tapeworm or flatworms are found in fish, beef and pork. Tapeworm infection from pork is caused by: a. Diphyllobothrium latum b. Taenia saginata c. Taenia solium d. Taenia baraziliense 222. Pinworms are embedded in the animal meat through what form? a. Cysticerci b. Proglottids c. Rhabdozoites d. Sporozoites 223. The most efficient and costeffective method done to determine worm infection is: a. Stool Exam b. Scotch tape method c. Direct fecal smear d. Sigmoidoscopy

227. Also known hepatitis: a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D 228. a. b. c. d. 229. a. b. c. d.

as

post-infusion

Another term for hepatitis B is: Homologous serum jaundice Epidemic hepatitis Catarrhal jaundice Post-transfusion hepatitis Most common type of hepatitis: Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis D E

230. Transmission of hepatitis includes which of the following? a. Feco-oral route b. Blood, sexual contact c. Semen d. Transfusion 231. Post infection hepatitis B: a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis D d. Hepatitis F

of a fulminant

224.

Mebendazole and its drug family kills worms by: a. Paralyzing the worms b. Inhibiting the glucose intake of the worms

232. Which of the following intervention is appropriate for the Hepatitis A: a. Blood screening for blood donation. b. Use of disposable equipment especially syringe and needles. c. Avoid oro-anal sexual intercourse

d.

No sharing of personal items which may cause break in the skin. (e.g. razor)

233. Jaundice, a pathognomonic sign of hepatitis, appears on what stage of illiness: a. Pre-icteric b. Icteric c. Latent d. Post-icteric 234. Diet of patients with a fulminant hepatitis includes all the following except: a. small, frequent feedings b. high CHO c. increase CHON d. high in vitamins, especially Vitamin B Complex 235. Which of the following is not nursing management intended to clients with hepatitis? a. Relieve pruritus warm, moist compress or emollient lotion b. Health teaching avoid alcohol c. Isolation precaution d. Administer medications as ordered (Corticosteroids, Liver protector Essentiale) 236. Eruptions in the skin that present in the mucus membrane: a. Exanthem b. Enanthem c. Papule d. Lesions 237. Which of the following management is not included for the care of patients with integumentary problems? a. Use calamine lotion b. Administer anti-histamine c. Trim nails and wear mittens among children d. Wear constrictive clothing to alleviate itching MEASLES 238. Measles is also known except: a. Three-day measles b. Rubeola c. Little Red Disease d. Morbili 239. The pathognomic sign measles is: a. Forscheimer spots b. Kopliks spots c. Stimsons sign d. Postherpetic Neuraglia

240. The following are the clinical manifestations of Measles, except a. Conjuctivitis with photophobia b. Bright red spot with a blue-white spot at the center at the buccal mucosa c. Low grade fever d. Deep red macula-papular eruptions 241. The appearance of rashes of measles is characterized by all of the following, except: a. Begins at the hairline and behind the ears b. Appears at the trunk first (unifocal) c. Desquamation occurs after rashes d. Cephalocaudal appearance of rashes is observed 242. A complication of Measles wherein a defective virus enters the brain and causes seizure, paralysis and coma: a. Bovine Spongiform Encephalitis b. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis c. Herpes Zoster d. African Sleeping Sickness 243. Measles vaccine is given with the following considerations, except: a. Introduced once at nine months b. O.5 cc is introduced at deltoid muscle, ID c. AMV can be given as early as 6 months d. Report experience of fever and mild rashes for 3 to 4 days 244. Possible complication of measles include, except: a. Pneumonia b. Otitis media c. Encephalitis d. Renal failure 245. Measles can be prevented by a vaccine known as MMR and is given during the:

as,

of

a. b. c. d.

9th months 15th month 12th month 14th month

GERMAN MEASLES 246. German measles is also known as, except:

a. b. c. d.

Rubella Rubeola Roseola Rothein

a. b. c. d.

Maculae Papulae Vesicle Pustule

247. Characteristics of German measles rash include all of the following, except: a. Pink-red maculopapular rash b. Rashes are slightly bigger than measles c. Rashes appears on face going to the trunk to the extremities d. Rash disappearance is characterized by fine flaking 248. Avoidance of German measles is a must for pregnant mothers specifically for the first trimester because of its possible effect to the baby. This is observed because: a. The virus produces inflammatory response that is not conducive for the zygote. b. The virus can readily pass through the placenta and produce its effects to the fetus c. It causes abortion d. It dilates the cervix that causes propulsion of the fetus. 249. The following are the possible complication of German measles, except: a. Congenital anomaly b. Otitis media c. Bronchopneumonia d. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis CHICKEN POX 250. The causative agent of chicken pox is: a. Herpes simplex b. Human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus) c. Paramyxovirus d. Morbili virus 251. The possible sequelae of chicken pox when reactivated during the later years if life is: a. Pneumonia b. Peripheral Neuropathy c. Cataract d. Shingles 252. The appearance of rashes among clients with chicken pox start from the trunk and is initially characterized by what kind of lesion?

253. Penicillin is administered to patients with chicken pox is given because: a. Penicillin inhibits the growth of microorganisms of chicken pox. b. Penicillin alleviates signs and symptoms of chicken pox. c. Penicillin prevents other infection accompanied possible by chicken pox. d. Penicillin prevents prolonged exposure to virus. 254. Aspirin is not given for patient with Chicken pox to prevent: a. Creutzfeld-Jakob Syndrome b. Reyes syndrome c. Herpes Zoster d. Postherpetic neuralgia

255.

Which of the following assessment procedures will diagnose chicken pox? a. Varicella Zoster Ig is more than 10 b. Physical assessment c. Fecalysis

d. CSF analysis on the 2nd day

256. The burning pain experienced along the cluster of skin vesicles, along courses of peripheral sensory nerves experienced by those with shingles is called: a. Postherpetic neuralgia b. Herpetic Blisters c. Dermatologic pain d. Shingles pain 257. Involvement of the facial nerve in herpes zoster with facial paralysis, hearing loss, loss of taste in half of the tongue and skin lesions around the ear and ear canal is known as: a. Ramsay-hunt syndrome b. Cushings sydrome c. Psychotic syndrome d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 258. The first disease where microorganism is discovered through the ages and in the bible: a. Leprosy b. Cholera c. Typhus d. Bubonic plague

259. Multidrug therapy was first introduced in the Philippines through a pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in: a. 1985 b. 1987 c. 1989 d. 1991 260. MDT was implemented nationwide after the successful pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in: a. 1985 b. 1987 c. 1989 d. 1991

266. Paucubacillary is a non-infectious type of leprosy that is treated for how many months? a. 6 to 9 months b. 24 to 30 months c. 12 to 24 months d. 8 to 16 months

267.

Which of the following manifestations is not considered a late sign of leprosy: a. Anhydrosis b. Lagopthalmos c. Madarosis d. Gynecomastia

261.

Leprosy is still a health problem among 4 provinces in the Philippines, except: a. Ilocos region b. Basilan c. Sulu d. Aparri

268. Diagnosis of leprosy is currently based on: a. Positive slit skin smear b. Clinical signs and symptoms c. ELISA d. Antibody test 269. The use of two or more drugs for the treatment of leprosy and considered as a public health program: a. MDT b. DOTS c. IMCI d. MBS 270. A person is considered noninfectious after undergoing how many weeks of MDT? a. Three weeks b. One week c. After the complete treatment of the Paucibacillay or Multibacillary treatment d. Four weeks 271. How many blister pack should be completed for a patient with Multibacillary leprosy? a. 6 blisters packs for a maximum period of nine months b. 12 blister packs to be taken within a maximum period of 18 months c. 6 blister packs for a maximum period of 18 months d. 12 blister packs to be taken within nine months 272. All but one is an early sign of leprosy: a. Madarosis b. Change in skin color c. Nasal obstruction or bleeding d. Ulcers that doesnt heal

262. Which of the following leprosy type indicates skin lesions that are sharply demarcated and bilaterally symmetrical? a. Lepromatous b. Tuberculoid c. Indeterminate d. Borderline

263.

In this type of leprosy, nodules, papules and macules are diffuse, infiltrations are bilaterally symmetrical, numerous and extensive, and crusting of the nasal mucosa, obstructed breathing and epistaxis occurs. a. Lepromatous b. Tuberculoid c. Indeterminate d. Borderline

264. Leprosy type with hypopigmented macule with ill defined borders: a. Lepromatous b. Tuberculoid c. Indeterminate d. Borderline

265.
lesions a. b. c. d.

A patient with more than 5 is categorized as: Single lesion paucibacillary Paucibacillary Multibacillary Tuberculoid

273. Leprosy can be through: a. Blood b. Semen c. Sex d. Prolonged skin contact

transmitted

d.

Trichomoniasis

to

skin

274. A negative slit skin smear requires a single dose of the following drugs except: a. Ofloxacin b. Rifampicin c. Clofazimine d. Minocycline 275. The drug that has a side effect of skin discoloration is: a. Clofazimine b. Rifampicin c. Dapsone d. Streptomycin 276. Clofazimine is given how many times for a patient with Paucibacillary leprosy: a. Once a month then daily b. Once a month only c. Daily d. None 277. Rifampicin in both Multibacillary and Paucibacillary treatment is given once a day with how many mg is recommended for a child with leprosy? a. 600 mg b. 450 mg c. 100 mg d. 50 mg 278. Should the patient fail to complete the regimen prescribed for MB, the patient should continue treatment until how many blister packs are consumed? a. 6 b. 12 c. 18 d. 24 279. Which of the following management can prevent leprosy? a. BCG immunization b. Leprosy vaccine c. Slit skin smear d. Chemoprophylaxis of rifampicin 280. The disease that is the most common concern in the Philippines is: a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Chlamydia

281. The leading mode of transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines is: a. Sharing needles for injecting drug use b. Sexual contact c. Vertical transmission d. Blood transfusion 282. means a. b. c. d. What is the most effective of preventing STI? Use of condom Contact tracing Drug compliance Routine screening of sexual workers

GONORRHEA 283. The pathognomonic sign of gonorrhea is: a. Nocturnal ani b. Gleet c. Dyspareunia d. Chancre 284. Another term to connote gonorrhea is, except: a. Strain b. Morning drop c. GC d. Bad blood 285. The most common reportable sexually transmitted disease is: a. Trichomoniasis b. Chylamydia c. Syphilis d. Gonorrhea 286. Neisseria gonorrhea and Treponema pallidum is contracted only during sexual intercourse because: a. These microorganisms need physical contact to transfer from one another. b. These microorganisms love heat and grow fast when body temperature is high. c. These microorganisms are active only during sexual intercourse. d. These microorganisms possess the ability to penetrate only during sexual contact. 287. Neisseria gonorrhea have the ability to be transferred from the infective male going to the partner through: a. Adhesion of the microorganism to the sperm during expulsion b. Enterotoxin production that is transmitted by the sperm c. Penile contact to the mucosa of the vagina transmits the microorganism

d. Oral withdrawal

and

anal

sex

even

without

288. The female who contracted the microorganism may have sterility because: a. Microorganism attacks the ovaries and kills egg cells b. Endotoxin paralyze cilia in the fallopian tube c. The microorganism clogs in the cervical opening preventing sperm to enter d. Uterus keeps on contracting expulsing sperm away due to toxins produced by the microorganism 289. The drug of choice in the treatment of gonorrhea is: a. Penicillin b. Azithromycin c. Tetracycline d. Metronidazole 290. Which of the following is true about gonorrhea? a. Females are asymptomatic carriers making transmission of disease very easy and undiagnosed b. Males do not manifest any signs and symptoms for the first 10 days c. Females produces a vaginal discharge that is cheesy in appearance d. Infection of the eyes among infants is not possible unlike tetanus neonatorum 291. Which of the following are the possible complications of gonorrhea, except? a. PID b. Arthritis c. Kidney damage d. Liver cirrhosis 292. a. b. c. d. 293. a. b. c. d. 294. a. b. c. d. Syphilis is also known as: Lues Trich Gleet Jack The incubation period of syphilis is: 10 to 90 days 2 to 10 days 2 to 21 days 4 to 20 days The pathognomonic sign of syphilis is: Chancre Gumma Gleet Painful urination

a. b. c. d.

Primary Secondary Latent Tertiary

296. Syphilis microorganism is sensitive with antibiotics, specifically a single injection of: a. Tetracycline b. Benzathine Penicillin c. Vancomycin d. Metronifazole 297. The stage when a syphilis-infected individual remains infectious but not to other people: a. Primary b. Secondary c. Latent d. Tertiary 298. The only sexually transmitted disease that may cause insanity is: a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Trichomoniasis d. Nonspecific vaginitis 299. The disease that manifests and same microbial invasion mechanism like that of Chylamydia and can only be differentiated through culture test is: a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Trichomoniasis d. Herpes simplex 300. Cases of chylamdia is difficult to trace and diagnose because: a. Microorganism is resistant to staining b. Females who are infected are usually asymptomatic c. Males do not report it because of cultural factors d. Microorganism looks like that of Treponema pallidum 301. One of the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy brought by a sexually transmitted disease is: a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Chylamydia d. Herpes simplex 302. The incubation period of Trichomonas vaginalis is a. 10-20 days b. 14-21 days c. 10-30 days d. 4-20 days

295. The presence of rashes, where the blood vessels are severely damaged, is an indicator that the stage of syphilis is now at what stage?

303. The distinguishing characteristic of vaginal discharge of those with is Trichomoniasis is: a. White-greenish discharge with fish like odor b. Cheesy like discharge c. Whitish with red spots discharge d. Vinegar smelling greenish discharge 304. The medicine of choice for female who are infected with Trichomonas vaginalis is? a. Metronidazole b. Tetracycline c. Penicillin d. Erythromycin 305. The possible trichomoniasis is: a. PID b. Cervical cancer c. Sterility d. Blindness complication of

311. Herpes simplex type that causes minor rash, itching, muscular pain and burning sensation is: a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Latent type d. Type 3 312. among a. b. c. d. The leading sexually transmitted disease industrialized countries is: Herpes simplex Syphilis Gonorrhea Candidiasis

313. The first name for the end stage of HIV infection and coined on 1981 is: a. Gay-related immunodeficiency syndrome b. Hypo-immunity syndrome c. Acquired immune deficiency disease d. Venereal disease 314. The year when Philippines had its first case of AIDS: a. 1983 b. 1984 c. 1985 d. 1986 315. The second to largest region where AIDS is prevalent: a. Africa b. South East Asia c. Latin America d. Europe 316. a. b. virus c. d. The causative agent of AIDS is: Retrovirus HTLV-3 Human lentivirus immuno-deficiency Human immunocompetent virus G6 PD virus

306. A kind of candidiasis manifested in the nails is known as: a. Onychomycosis b. Moniliasis c. Thrush d. Diaper rash 307. Which of the following may likely contribute to the development of Candidiasis, except? a. Cancer b. Diabetes c. Broad spectrum antibiotics d. Hereditary factors 308. Which of the following medication is effective against oral thrush? a. Nystatin solution taken 4 to 6 times a day, swished and swallowed b. Imidazole suppository five times a day for 2 weeks c. Myconazole retained for five minutes in the mouth then discarded d. Amphotericin B via IV 309. Nursing management for Candidiasis includes: a. Provide a diet high in alkaline b. Provide care for itching c. Increase fluid intake d. Weigh the client everyday 310. Herpes simplex type that is transmitted through kissing, sharing kitchen utensils and/or sharing towels: a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Latent type d. Type 3

317. The period where no manifestations are observed for patient infected with HIV and laboratory results shows no remarkable immune system defect? a. Sero-conversion period b. Cell-mediated period c. Fastigium period d. Early asymptomatic period 318. How many times would a laboratory technician to withdraw blood sample from a patient to satisfy ELISA and Western Blot diagnostic procedure? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

319. The golden standard for confirming a positive individual infected with HIV: a. ELISA b. Western Blot c. Immunosorbent test d. Fluorescent Antibody test 320. A patient infected with HIV is said to be on its late stage when his/her CD4 cells are: a. Below 200 cells/mm3 b. Below 300 cells/mm3 c. Below 400 cells/mm3 d. Below 100 cells/mm3 321. The transmission of HIV of a mother to her baby is known as: a. Vertical transmission b. Horizontal transmission c. Definitive transmission d. Diagonal transmission 322. Transmission of HIV is possible through, except: a. Sexual contact b. Kissing c. Blood transfusion d. Use of contaminated syringe 323. Opportunistic infection present during the early symptomatic stage includes all of the following, except: a. Toxoplasmosis b. Herpes Simplex c. Candidiasis d. Pneumocystic carinii Pneumonia 324. The leading cause of patients with AIDS is: a. Herpes Simplex b. Candidiasis c. Tuberculosis d. AIDS-related Dementia death among

327. Blood spills should be cleaned promptly with a disinfectant solution of: a. Household bleach b. Alcohol c. Iodine d. Hydrogen peroxide

up

328. Patients with AIDS are said to immunocompromised. Which of the following intervention is the nurse would likely best perform to prevent further infection: a. Administration of antibiotics, as ordered b. Hand washing c. Monitor for oral infection and meningitis d. Always check laboratory records of WBC and CD4 cells 329. a. b. c. d. Drug of choice for HIV is: Indinavir Zidovoudine Ritonavir Acyclovir

330. Client refused to answer some of the questions asked by the nurse during the assessment phase. What will the nurse do? a. Respect clients inability to discuss problem b. Encourage verbalizations until information is extracted c. Let the patient sign a refusal slip d. Report patient to DOH at once 331. According to the goals of Reproductive health, all are true, except, a. Every pregnancy should be intended b. Every birth should be healthy c. Every women should be given condom to protect herself from STD and pregnancy d. Every sex should be free of coercion and infection 332. The four Cs of STD management includes all of the following, except: a. Condom b. Contact-tracing c. Counseling d. Cooperation 333. Which of the management is included in the proposed strategy by the DOH to prevent mosquito-causing diseases such as dengue and malaria? a. Insecticide treated mosquito net b. Breeding of larva-eating fish c. Stream clearing d. Use of OFF lotion to the skin 334. A mosquito net is said to be effective against mosquito, if the

325. An enzyme of an HIV that causes transformation of RNA to DNA is known as: a. Protease b. Reverse transcriptase c. Integrase d. Nuclease 326. The following are the consideration in taking good care of clients with HIV except: a. Gloves should be worn when handling blood specimen, soiled linen or any body fluids. b. Thermometer is washed with warm soapy water and soaks it with 40% alcohol for 10 minutes. c. Avoid contact to open wound or lesions. d. Universal precaution and body substance isolation is a must.

following characteristics is observed, except: a. It is treated with pyethroid or pyethrinoids.

b. It must have 156 holes/ square

inch. It must be tuck under the bed or mat. d. With a seal by the DOH, as inspected. c. 335. Stream seeding involves the following considerations, except: a. Janitor fish is an effective fish that eats larva. b. 2-4 fish per square meter should be placed for immediate result c. 200 400 fish per hectare for delayed impact are bred. d. Bio-ponds will be created by the Local Government Unit. 336. N-diethyl-D-toluamide is an effective chemical against mosquito because it provide protections for how many hours? a. 24 hours b. 4-12 hours c. 12 to 24 hours d. 2-3 hours only 337. The mosquito instead of biting distal humans , bits an animal proximal to it. This technique is also known as: a. Chemoprophylaxis b. Zooprophylaxis c. Faunoprophylaxis d. Malaria-dengue animal technique 338. A soap that is recommended by DOH that will propel mosquitoes away: a. Safeguard b. Lifebuoy c. Likas Papaya d. Lanzones soap 339. A local plant that is proven to repel mosquito away: a. Talahib b. Tanglad c. Tsaang gubat d. Talong DENGUE HEMORRHAGIC FEVER 340. Another term for dengue hemorrhagic fever is: a. Brickback fever b. Brokenbone syndrome c. Breakbone fever d. Brokeback fever

341. The first dengue case in the Philippines was reported last: a. 1953 b. 1958 c. 1984 d. 1985 342. Dengue cases usually peaks in months of: a. July to November b. February to April c. September to December d. January to December 343. Among the viral strain of Dengue, the most common is, dengue virus type: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 344. The following are the vectors that can carry the dengue virus, except: a. Culex fatigans b. Aedes Aegypti c. Aedes albopictus d. Aedes poecilus 345. Characteristics of mosquito causing dengue includes all of the following, except: a. Low flying mosquito b. Bites at the lower extremities c. Bites before sunrise and sunset d. Breeds on a flowing water 346. formed a. b. c. d. The virus attacks what blood element: Thrombocytes Megakaryocytes Eryhtrocytes Leukocytes

347. Which of the following manifestations of the client, that according to WHO, may lead to definitive diagnosis of Dengue Hemorrhagic fever, except: a. Fever lasting 2-7 days b. Thrombocytopenia c. Positive tourniquet test plus petechiae, ecchymoses, purpura d. Abdominal pain plus joint fever 348. In what stage is Hermans sign clinically manifested by the client? a. Febrile stage b. Hemorrhagic stage c. Circulatory failure stage d. Hypovolemic Shock

349. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of bleeding among clients with Dengue, except? a. Hemoptysis b. Melena c. Hematochezia d. Hematemesis 350. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that the client is in the late stage of dengue infection? a. Vomiting of blood b. Hermans sign c. Hypotension, rapid weak pulse, narrow pulse pressure d. Abdominal pain with bone pain 351. A positive Rumpel Leads test indicates that: a. Decrease blood supply is observed in the arm with tourniquet b. 20 or more petechiae are present per 1 inch square c. The client manifests general flushing of the skin d. Melena is observed in the stool 352. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse consistently monitors to those patients with Dengue? a. Troponin b. Platelet count c. Liver Enzymes d. Viral count 353. Which of the following management are not included to patients with Dengue? a. Administer Vitamin K. b. Complete bed rest c. Provide warmth to patients, if possible comforters. d. Do not give aspirin in cases of fever. 354. Majority of patients with dengue are candidate for transfusion if their platelet level is: a. Below 150 b. Below 100 c. Below 50 d. Below 25 355. To prevent hypovolemic shock for patients with dengue, the nurse understands that this management is aimed to prevent such case: a. Give ORS 75 ml/kg in 4 to 6 hours for children

b. Give ORESOL up to 2 to 3 L for children c. Give one to three cups oral rehydration solution, in every bout d. ORESOL will only be given to patients with those who are experiencing vomiting and diarrhea 356. In cases that the client is experiencing melena, what would be the most appropriate nursing response? a. Provide ice chips b. Ice bag over the abdomen c. Low fat, low fiber diet d. Assume dorsal recumbent position 357. Which of the following diet can be given to patient with Dengue? a. DAT b. Noodle soup c. Pineapple and watermelon d. NPO 358. Which of the following nursing intervention is best aimed against the prevention of dengue cases? a. Insecticide use b. Health education c. Hand washing d. Contact tracing 359. a. b. c. d. Another term for malaria is: Brokeback fever Ague Bilharziasis Weils disease

360. The Plasmodium species that is most common in the Philippines and accounts for 70% of all malarial cases: a. P. falciparum b. P. vivax c. P. malariae d. P. ovale 361. Which of the following species of plasmodium doesnt exist in the Philippines? a. P. falciparum b. P. vivax c. P. malariae d. P. ovale 362. The following are the characteristics of malaria-causing mosquito, except: a. Only female mosquito bites b. Breeds on partly shaded water c. Bites at night

d. Clean stagnant water is a good breeding site 363. Which of the following vectors is the most common mosquito transmitting the Plasmodium species in the country? a. Anopheles litoralis b. Anopheles flavistoris c. Anopheles balabacensis d. Anopheles mangyanus 364. Plasmodium as an amoeba undergoes cycle. Which of the following is considered the definitive host of malaria? a. Humans b. Streams c. Mosquito d. Fly 365. What is the protozoan form that is present in the salivary glands of the mosquito? a. Sporozoites b. Merozoites c. Thropozoites d. Gametocytes 366. The protozoan stage present in the RBC, multiplies and causes lysis: a. Sporozoites b. Merozoites c. Thropozoites d. Gametocytes 367. The initial and primary site of merozoite multiplication is found in the: a. Lungs b. Kidneys c. Liver d. Gall bladder 368. The protozoa Plasmodium causes organ failure due to: a. Production of toxins that causes cell death b. Clogging of rigid RBCs infected by the plasmodia c. Formation of merozoites that inhibits cellular metabolism d. Sequestration of water from the cell causing cellular lysis or dehydration 369. Amazingly, patients with malaria have a cycle of cold, hot and diaphoretic stage. Fever is evident in a particular period of time and not all through the disease process because: a. During febrile stage toxins are present.

b. During febrile stage, the microorganisms simultaneously reproduce. c. During febrile stage, iron is sequestered by the liver. d. During febrile stage, the gametocytes are produced. 370. A diagnostic procedure that is a must in every case of Malaria in a certain community: a. Malarial Blood Smear b. Quantitative Buffy Coat c. ELISA d. Nocturnal Blood Examination 371. The drug of choice against malaria is: a. Chloroquine b. N-diethyl-D-toluamide c. Pyethrinoids d. Biltricide 372. Blood Schizonticides are given with the following dose: a. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day b. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 10 mg/kg single dose on the third day c. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day d. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day 373. Which of the following health teachings will be included if the patient is taking chloroquine? a. Advise patient that the urine may turn rust brown in color. b. It should be given before meals. c. Can be given even before C and S is completed or confirmed. d. Frequent ambulation is required when taking the medication. 374. use to a. b. c. d. Which of the following term is connote Filariasis? Elephantiasis Schistosomiasis Ascariasis Trichenelliasis

375. Causative agent of Filariasis that accounts for 90% of all the cases: a. Wuchureria bancrofti

b. c. d.

Brugia malayi Brugia timori Oncomelania quadrasi

a.

376. The following regions in the Philippines, where Filariasis is said to be endemic are, except: a. Region V b. Region IX c. Region X d. Region XI 377. The immediate source or vector of Filariasis is: a. Aedes Aegypti b. Anopheles flavistoris c. Aedes poecilus d. Anopheles mangyanus 378. Lymphadenitis, Lymphangitis, epidydimitis is evidently seen in what clinical stage of Filariasis? a. Asymptomatic stage b. Acute stage c. Chronic stage d. Immune stage 379. The enlargement and thickening of the skin of the lower extremities and/or upper extremities, scrotum or breast is known as: a. Lymphedema b. Lymphadenitis c. Elephantiasis d. Funiculitis 380. A clinical diagnostic procedure for Filariasis that can be done at daytime: a. NBE b. ICT c. MBS d. ELISA 381. Drug of choice for filarisis is: a. Hetrazan b. Biltricide c. Chloroquine d. Praziquantel

b. c. d.

Ligation and stripping of the lymphatics of pedicle of affected kidneys Lymphoveous anastamosis Inversion and resection of tunica vaginalis Fistulectomy

384. Nocturnal form of filariasiscausing microorganism is active during: a. 10 PM to 2 AM b. 8 PM to 12 PM c. 12 PM to 5 AM d. 7 PM to 10 AM 385. The medical term similar to schistosomiasis is : a. Brokeback fever b. Ague c. Bilharziasis d. Weils disease 386. The causative agent of the Schistosomiasis that have the strong affinity with the urinary system is: a. S. haematobium b. S. mansoni c. S. japonicum d. S. schistosomium 387. The intermediate host of schistosoma species is: a. Oncomelania quadrasi b. Aedes poecilus c. Humans d. Cattle 388. a. b. c. d. 389. The infective stage of Schistosoma is: Oncomelania Cercariae Trophozoite Gametocytes The drug of choice for schistosomiasis: a. Hetrazan b. Doxycycline c. Chloroquine d. Praziquantel Alternative drug for S. mansoni is: a. Hetrazan b. Biltricide c. Metrifonate d. Oxamniquine

390. 382. Medication given to client that kills the microfilirae may be given with this drug to prevent side effects: a. Corticosteroids / antihistamine b. Penicillin c. Metronidazole d. Amoxicillin 383. Hydrocele among infected individuals with filariasis is surgically intervened through:

391. After exposure to water, the susceptible individual must: a. Drink the medication that has been prescribed as prophylaxis

b. Apply 70% alcohol to

exposed area of the body

c. d.

Treat water with iodine, standing 48 to 72 hours before use Use rubber boots

b. Immune phase c. Septicemic phase d. Hemorrhagic phase 396. The following are the test for leptospirosis and with its respective day of specimen collection. Which of the following is incorrectly paired: a. Blood after 7 to 10 days b. Urine 7 days after

392. Leptospirosis is also known as, except: a. Weils disease, mud fever b. Trench fever, flood fever c. Spiroketal jaundice, Japanese seven days fever d. Swineherds disease, infectious jaundice 393. Which of the following characteristics does not refer to Leptospira species: a. Species is divided into 19 serogroups and 200 serovar b. Icterohemorrhagiae subspecies causes Weils disease and is most virulent c. It is a slender spirochete with hooked ends d. Attacks and have a strong affinity to liver and gall bladder 394. Which of the following are the correct consecutive steps in the disease progression of leptospirosis? a. Anicteric - septicemic and immune; icteric jaundice and hemorrhagic b. Icteric septicemic and immune; anicteric jaundice and hemorrhagic c. Anicteric - jaundice and hemorrhagic; icteric septicemic and immune d. Anicteric septicemic and jaundice; icteric hemorrhagic and immune 395. The clinical phase where jaundice is an evident clinical manifestation of Leptospirosis: a. Leptospiremic phase

c. CSF during the 10th day d. Feces 3rd day

397. Which of the following is the primary carrier of Leptospira species? a. Snails b. Rats c. Dog d. Bats 398. Which of the following preventive measures is the most effective against leptospirosis? a. Use of rubber boots b. Eradication of rats c. Use of chemoprophylactic drugs d. Water treatment 399. Which of the following measure is the most effective method of preventing communicable diseases? a. Information dissemination b. Education provision c. Communication d. Hand washing 400. The following statement refers to the objective of EPI? a. Reduce the morbidity among infants and children

b. To reduce the morbidity among

c. d. children Reduce the mortality among the children Reduce the maternal mortality