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Root Nine PAT TM

PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS TEST2


Based on the SBI Clerk Pattern No. of Questions:200 Time Allowed: 120 min. o e " NAME ROLL NO.

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All questions are compulsory Best Of Luck

REASONING 1. Captain' is related to a Team' in the same way as Director' is related to (1) Supervisor (2) Employee (3) Organisation (4) Union (5) Customer 2. Find the odd one out of the following options (1) Aunt (2) Child (3) Father (4) Niece

(5) Relation

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife's mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh? (1) Brother (3) Father-in-law (2) Brother-in-law (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

4. If fork' is called plate', plate' is called 'knife', knife' is called jug', jug' is called glass', glass' is called cup' and cup' is called fork', by what do we cut fruit? (1) spoon (2) jug (3) glass (4) saucer (5) none of these 5. If a' is substituted by 26,'B' by 25 and so on up to Z' which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word XRAY'? (1) 33 (2) 40 (3) 37 (4) 73 (5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code? (1) JOENQF (3) JOEPSF (2) JMCPQD (4) HMCNQD (5) None of these

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all? (1) Seeta these (2) Geeta (3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?
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(1) Mahesh

(2) Kamal

(3) Raman

(4) Harry

(5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with T' and without repeating any letter? (1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) None (5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence: A $ B # 9 G 3D K M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y J 11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Five (5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol? (1) Two (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement? (1) # (2) 7 (3) U (4) 9 (5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) G$M (4) 2MU (2) K9Q (5) PCI (3) ?D7

16. In a certain code language' In ba pe' means he has won','le ki ba' means she has lost' and in se pe' means he always won'. Which word in that language means he'? (1) in (2) pe (4) Data not sufficient (3) se (5) None of these

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17. X is Y's brother. S is T's mother and X's aunt. How is T related to X? (1) Sister (2) Cousin (4) Cannot be determined (3) Aunt (5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO (3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO (5) None of these 19. If 1 is coded as , 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as , 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671? (1) ? + % # (2) ? + % # (3) ? + % # (4) # % + ? (5) None of these 20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE? (1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN (3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO (5) None of these Directions (21-25): Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel. (i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products. (ii) Aman who visits Go' advertises neither soap nor computers. (iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates. (iv) No girl advertises soap. (v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice 21. Who advertises watches? (1) Deepa (2) Kamal (3) Aman

(4) Priyanka (5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect? (1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer (3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap (5) Comewatch 23. Which channel does Kamal visit? (1) Go (2) Fun (3) Come these

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true? (1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches (3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun (5) None of these
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25. What will Jitu advertise? (1) Chocolates (2) Watches (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

(3) Computers or watches

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar? (1) 3 . hours (2) 2 . hours (3) 4 . hours (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language? (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these 28. Find the odd one out (1) 2 (2) 7

(3) 11

(4) 13

(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT (3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT (5) None of these 30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers. (1) 9 (2) 21 (3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. None of these'.
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Letters M Q I N E Y U G R Numeric Codes 253718469 Conditions: (i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as . (ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %. (iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as? 31. ENIMY (1) 1%28 32. GENIR (1) ?173? (3) 6%79 33. QUERI (1) 5%93 (3) ?4139 34. EINUM (1) 1%72 (3) 1374? 35. UNGRE (1) 769

(2) ?732?

(3) 17328

(4) ?7328

(5) None of these

(2) 6%39 (4) 61739

(5) None of these

(2) ?413? (4) ?419?

(5) None of these

(2) 0%42 (4) 1%43 (2) 4769

(5) None of these (4) 7691

(3) 47691

(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
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Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow. 36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink Conclusions: I. Some ink are pencils.

II. All ink are lead.

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs. Conclusions: I. Some ACs are ovens.

II. No. AC is oven.

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds. Conclusions: I. Some planes are clouds. II. Some clouds are birds.

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice. Conclusions: I.. Some sweets are spice. II. No spice is salt. 40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes. Conclusions: I. Some plastics are clothes. II. Some plastics are papers.

NUMERICAL APTITUDE QUESTIONS 41 (95.6x 910.3) 92.56256 = 9? (A) 13.14 (B) 12.96 (C) 12.43 42. (4 86%of 6500) 36 =? (A) 867.8 (B) 792.31 (C) 877.5 43. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921 (A)20.2 (B) 24.2 (C)23.1 44.576 ? x114=8208 (A)8 (B)7

(D) 13.34 (D) 799.83

(E) None of these (E) None of these

(D) 19.2

(E) None of these

(C)6

(D)9

(E) None of these

45. (1024263233)(986764 156) =? (A)9 (B)6 (C)7 (D)8


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(E) None of these

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46. ?1255x ?=6265 (A)1253 (B) 1250 47.(42)26.3 x 26 =? (A)7182 (B) 7269 48.384122=? (A)9024 (B) 9216 49.65344033=? (A)3.06 (B) 5.25 50. ?2704 x ?2209=? (A)1996 (B)2444

(C)1245

(D) 1550

(E) None of these

(C)7260

(D) 7240

(E) None of these

(C)6676

(D) 6814

(E) None of these

(C)4.82

(D) 6.12

(E) None of these

(C)2452

(D)1983

(E)None of these

51.2536+4851?=3450+313 (A)3961 (B)4532 (C)3624 52. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =? (A)7512 (B) 9746 (C)6523 53. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750 (A)73 (B)89 (C)82 54.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=? (A)1824 (B) 1902 (C)1829 55. 486+322559=? (A) 514 (B) 528 (C) 599 56. 1827 36 x ?=162.4 (A)4.4 (B)3.2 (C)2.1 57. 100836=? (A)28 (B) 32.5 (C)36 58. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 21.4+1.5=? (A)40.04 (B) 46.18 (C)44.08 59. 65%of 320+?=686 (A) 480 (B) 452 60. 83250?=7425 (A)50 (B) 45 61. ?7744=? (A)88

(D)4058

(E) None of these

(D) 8024

(E) None of these

(D)75

(E) None of these

(D) 1964 (D) 507 (D) 3.7 (D) 22.2

(E) None of these (E) None of these (E) None of these (E) None of these

(D) 43.12

(E) None of these

(C)461

(D) 475

(E) None of these

(C)40

(D) 55

(E) None of these

(B)62

(C)58

(D)78

(E)None of these

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62.35%of ?=242 (A)729 (B)652 63. 1256+4813+765=? (A)5642 (B) 5876 64. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2 (A) 81 (B) 9 (C) 27 (D) 64 (E) None of these

(C)693

(D)759

(E) None of these

(C)6788

(D) 6878

(E) None of these

65. 432+2170+35=? (A)494 (B) 475

(C)481

(D) 469

(E) None of these

66. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number? (A) 65 (B) 52 (C) 79 (D) 63 (E) None of these

67. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time? (A)Rs. 349.92 (C)Rs. 358.92 (B) Rs. 300 (D) Rs. 400

(E) None of these

68. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 cms. If the length is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle? (A)45 cms. (C)50 cms. (B)40 cms. (D)55 cms.

(E)None of these

69. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number? (A)28 (B) 48 (C)39 (D) 93 (E) None of these 70. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction? (A)5/18 (B)6/13 (C)13/6 (D)7/12 (E) None of these 71. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number? (A) 70 (B) 75 (C) 69 (D) 85 (E) None of these
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72. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be the percentage profit? (A) 25 (B) 15 (C) 13 (D) 17 (E) None of these 73. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below? 25, 34, 52,79, 115,? (A)160 (B) 140 (C)153 (D) 19 (E)None of these 74. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the following question? ?/144= 49 /? (A)95 (B) 76 (C)82 (D) 84 (E)None of these 75. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest numbers? (A)158 (B) 148 (C)168 (D) 198 (E) None of these 76. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, the dividend is: (A) 4236 (B) 4306 (C) 4336 (D) 5336 (E) None of these 77. If 1.5 x= 0.04 y, then the value of (y-x) (y+x) is: (A) 730/77 (B) 73/77 (C) 7.3/77 (D) 703/77

(E) None of these

78. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits If 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is: (A) 72 (B) 32 (C) 27 (D) 23 (E) None of these 79. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years. While C joining them now, the average becomes 22 years. How old (in years) is C now? (A) 24 (B) 27 (C) 28 (D) 30 (E) None of these 80. River is running at 2 kmph. It took a man twice as long to row up as to row down the river. The rate (in km/hr) of the man in still water is: (A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 4 (D) 6 (E) None of these
81. Which one of the following is the percentage up to which FDI in defense sector is allowed ? (1) 26% (2) 41% (3) 31% (4) 49% (5) None of these 82. Whenever RBI does some Open Market Operation Transactions, actually it wishes to regulate which of the following ? (1) Inflation only (2) Liquidity in economy (3) Borrowing powers of the banks (4) Flow of Foreign Direct Investments (5) None of these 83. The maximum amount of the Total Revenue earned by the Govt. of India comes from All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

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(1) Income Tax (2) Customs Duty (3) Excise Duty

(4) Value Added Tax (5) Corporate Tax 84. In economics it is generally believed that the main objective of a Public Sector Financial Company like Bank is to (A) Employ more and more people (B) Maximize total profits (C) Maximize total production (D) Provide financial service to the people of the nation of its origin across the country (E) Sell the goods at subsidized cost 85. Which of the following is TRUE about the SingleEURO Payment Area a concept very much in news these days ? 1. It is a concept floated by European Union. 2. It aims to create an integrated market for payment services in EURO. 3. It is a contract to convert all US dollar payments into EURO, which is a currency almost freefrom fluctuations in its value. (1) Only 1 (2) Only 2 (3) Only (4) Only 1 and 2 (5) None of these 86. What is a Repo Rate ? (1) It is a rate of which RBI sell Govt. securities to banks (2) It is a rate at which RBI buys Govt. securities from banks (3) It is a rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market (4) It is a rate which is offered by Banks to their most valued customers or prime customers (5) None of these 87. In a Company the use of price sensitive corporate information by the Company-people to make gains or cover losses is known as (1) Insider trading (3) Foreign trading (2) Future trading (4) Stock trading (5) None of these

88. As per the directives issued by the Prime Ministers Economic Advisory Council (EAC), the percentage of the current account deficit (of the total GDP) during 2008-2009 should not be more than (1) 28% (2) 30% (3) 31% (4) 32% (5) None of these 89. The agricultural census is done at which of the following intervals ? (1) There is no fixed term (4) Once in ten years (2) Every year (3) Once in three years

(5) Once in five years

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90. Which of the following cannot be called as a Debt Instrument as referred in financial transactions? (1) Certificate of Deposits (2) Bonds (3) Stocks (4) Commercial Papers (5) Loans

91. The amount of which of the following reflects the overall budgetary position of the Govt. of India at a given time ? (1) Revenue Deficit (2) Total Amount of Income Tax collected (3) Capital Deficit (4) Fiscal Deficit (5) None of these

92. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for (1) Indias Health (2) Eradication of poverty from India (3) Indias Education (5) None of these

(4) Development of Rural India

93. Who amongst the following gave the concept of PURA (Providing Urban facilities in Rural Areas) ? (1) Rajiv Gandhi (2) Manmohan Singh (3) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (4) Sonia Gandhi (5) None of these 94. The higher rate of growth of economy certainly reduces the (1) Gender inequalities (2) Poverty (3) Population of a country (4) Flow of foreign direct investment (5) None of these 95. Bharat Nirman does not cover which of the following areas ? (1) Rural employment (2) Rural Housing (3) Rural Water supply (4) Irrigation facilities (5) It covers all the above areas 96. Which of the following committees has given its recommendations on Financial Inclusion ? (1) Rakesh Mohan Committee (2) Rangarajan Committee (3) Sinha Committee (4) Kelkar Committee (5) None of these

97. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is ? 1. Lending to the people who cannot return the loans. 2. Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks. 3. Lending to those who are not a regular customer of a bank. (1) Only 1 (2) Only 2 (3) Only 3 (4) All 1, 2 and 3 (5) None of these All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

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98. Which of the following is/are the major concepts visible in todays banking industry in India ? 1. Risk Based Management 2. Growing competition 3. IT Initiatives (1) Only 1 (2) Only 2 (3) Only 3 (4) Both 2 and 3 (5) All 1, 2 and 3

99. Which of the following services provided by a bank in India is not liable for Service Tax as per existing laws? (1) Safe Deposit Lockers (2) Merchant Banking Services (3) Credit cards

(4) Discount earned on certain discounted bills (5) None of these 100. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as (1) Probability risk (2) Market risk (3) Inflation risk (4) Credit risk (5) None of these 101. In India Minimum Support Prices are announced by the Govt. of India every year. Which of the following commodities is not covered under this policy ? (1) Sugar (2) Wheat (3) Cotton (4) White goods (5) All are covered under the policy 102. Which of the following policies of a country brings a crucial impact on the economic growth of the nation ? 1. Fiscal policy 2. Foreign policy 3. Social policies (1) Only 1 (2) Only 2 (3) Only 1 and 2 (4) Only 2 and 3 (5) All 1, 2 and 3 103. Which of the following financial products is not much popular in India as they are launched recently only ? (1) Development Bonds (2) Insurance Policies (3) Mutual funds

(4) Sovereign Wealth Funds (5) All are very popular products in India 104. Which of the following countries is given permanent membership of the World Trade Organisation recently ? (1) Ukraine (2) India (3) Pakistan (4) Sri Lanka (5) None of these 105. When the prices of commodities, goods and services start declining consistently, the phenomenon is known as (1) Discount yield (2) Deflation (3) Negative growth (4) Market capitalization (5) None of these 106. Which of the following products launched by most of the banks help farmers in getting instant credit for various agicultural purposes ? (1) Kissan Credit Card (2) Personal Loan (3) Business Loan (4) ATM Card (5) None of these All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

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107. Which of the following policies of the financial sectors is basically designed to transferring local financial assets into foreign financial asset freely and at market determined exchange rates ? Policy of (1) Capital Account convertibility (2) Financial Deficit Management (3) Minimum Support Price (4) Restrictive Trade Practices (5) None of these

108. A customer wishes to purchase some US dollars in India. He/ She should go to (1) Public Debt Division of the RBI only (2) American Express Bank Only (3) RBI or any branch of a bank which is authorized for such business (4) Ministry of Foreign Affairs (5) None of these

109. Indias Look East Policy was launched in the year (1) 1990 (2) 1992 (3) 1995 (4) 2000 (5) None of these 110. Which of the following products of a bank is specifically designed to provide financial help to children in their higher studies in India or in a foreign nation ? (1) Personal Loan (2) Corporate Loan (3) Educational Loan (4) Mortgage Loan (5) None of these 111. A Bank/Financial Organization these days relies heavily on e-commerce for its transaction. As a part of system security, it has introduced organizations security awareness manual. This step of the organization can be classified under which one of the following categories of measures for a business ? (1) Preventive (2) Compliance (3) Corrective (4) Detective (5) None of these 112. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank ? 1. It does not accept deposits. 2. It has a limited cash disbursement capacity. 3. Lack of human interface (1) Only 1 (3) Only 3 (2) Only 2 (4) All 1, 2 and 3 (5) None of these are limitations

113. Which of the following is/are the objectives of developing Special Economic Zones (SEZs) ? 1. Generate additional economic activities. 2. Generate additional employment opportunities. All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

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3. Promotion of export of goods and services. (1) Only 1 (2) Only 2 (3) Only 3 (4) Only 1 and 2 (5) All 1, 2 and 3 114. An industry which is fighting hard to increase its market share in existing market (with new popular products) is known as (1) Market vendor (2) Market operator (3) Market leader (4) Market follower (5) Market challenger 115. Maruti views Tata Motors as prominent competitor but does not view Volvo as a competitor. This type of competition in the market is known as (1) Product competition (2) Production flow competition (3) Cost Control competition (4) Service competition (5)5None of these 116. Which of the following is not a social assistance programme launched by the Govt. of India ? (1) National Old Age Pension Scheme (2) Annapurna Scheme (3) National Family Benefit Scheme (4) Indira Awaas Yojana

(5) All are social assistance programmes 117. What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) at present ? (1) 14% (2) 18% (3) 20% (4) 24% (5) None of these 118. Mr. Akhilesh Yadav has taken over as the Chief Minister of which of the following States after a General Election? (1) Jammu & Kashmir (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Delhi (4) Chhattisgarh (5) None of these 119. The World Development Report- 2011 is released a few months earlier, by which of the following Organisations ? (1) UNESCO (2) ADB (3) IMF (4) WTO (5) World Bank 120. As per news published in newspapers, how much money Govt. of India has decided to invest in Infrastructure Sector as an initiative ? About (1) Rs. 30,000 crores (2) Rs. 40,000 crores (3) Rs. 50,000 crores (4) Rs. 60,000 crores (5) Rs. 70,000 crores

Computers
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121. A terabyte comprises (a) 1024 gigabyte (b) 1024 kilobyte (c) 1024 megabyte (d) 1024 byte

122. The access time refers to (a) Time required to locate and retrieve stored data (b) Time required to locate the lost data (c) Time required to delete specific data on a certain memory location (d) None of the above 123. Select the smallest memory size. (a) Terabyte (b) Gigabyte (c) Kilobyte

(d) Megabyte

124. The type of RAM that works by staying on the row containing the requested bit and moves faster through the columns reading each bit as it goes is (a) DDR SDRAM (b) SDRAM (c) FPM DRAM (d) RDRAM 125. The ROM chip which can be rewritten several times and requires the action of ultraviolet radiations to erase its contents is (a) Flash memory (b) PROM (c) EEPROM (d) EPROM 126. The type of memory that uses in-circuit wiring to erase the content by applying electric field is (a) PROM (b) Flash memory (c) EAROM (d) EEPROM 127. Dynamic memory is also called as (a) Internal processor memory (b) Primary memory (c) External storage memory (d) Non-volatile memory 128. The memory which is utmost accessible to the processor is (a) Cache memory (b) RAM (c) Hard disk (d) Flash memory 129. The storage device that has high cost per bit of storage is (a) SDRAM (b) Cache memory (c) Read only Memory (d) Hard disk

130. The dual-port version of DRAM formerly used in graphics adaptors is (a) FPM DRAM (b) EDO DRAM (c) VRAM (d) DDR SDRAM 131. The secondary storage device that follows the sequential mode of access is (a) Optical Disk (b) Magnetic Disk (c) Magnetic Tape All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

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(d) None of these

132. FPI stands for (a) Faults per inch (b) Frames per inch (c) Figure per inch (d) Film per inch

133. The most common type of floppy size is (a) 3-inch (b) 5-inch (c) 4-inch (d) None of these

134. A spiral shape track formatting is present in (a) Floppy Disk Cartridge (b) Optical Disk (c) Hard Disk (d) Half-inch Tape

135. A floppy can be write protected by (a) Breaking the slider (b) Positioning the slider to cover the hole (c) Positioning the slider away from the hole (d) A floppy cannot be write protected 136. Rotational delay time is also known as (a) Seek time (b) Shift time (c) Latency (d) Access time

137. The average drives have an access time of (a) 14-29 ms (b) 9-14 ms (c) 60-70 ms (d) None of these

138. In which kind of disk does the read/write head physically touches the surface? (a) Hard Disk (b) Compact Disk (c) Floppy Disk (d) None of these

139. RAID stands for (a) Reproduce Array of Intelligent Disks (b) Reproduce Array of Inexpensive Disks (c) Redundant Array of Inexpensive Drives (d) Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks 140. CD-ROM is a kind of (a) Optical disk these (b) Magneto-Optical disk (c) Magnetic disk (d) None of

141. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a: A. megabyte. B. byte. C. kilobyte. D. gigabyte.

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142. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes. A. kilobyte B. bit C. gigabyte D. megabyte

143. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes. A. gigabyte B. kilobyte C. megabyte D. terabyte

144. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch. A. Hardware B. A device C. A peripheral D. An application

145. The components that process data are located in the: A. input devices. B. output devices. C. system unit. D. storage component.

146. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a: A. scanner. B. mouse. C. keyboard. D. printer.

147. Which of the following is an example of an input device? A. scanner B. speaker C. CD D. printer

148. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT: A. hard disk drives. B. printers. C. floppy disk drives. D. CD drives.

149. The ____________, also called the brain of the computer, is responsible for processing data. A. motherboard (CPU) B. memory C. RAM D. central processing unit

150. The CPU and memory are located on the: A. expansion board. B. motherboard. C. storage device D. output device.

151. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of: A. application software. B. system software. software. C. operating system software. D. platform

152. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks. A. An instruction B. Software C. Memory D. A processor

153. System software is the set of programs that enables your computers hardware devices All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

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and ____________ software to work together. A. management B. processing C. utility D. application

154. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different: A. platforms. B. applications. C. programs. D. storage devices.

155. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different operating systems. A. languages B. methods C. CPUs D. storage devices 156. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a: A. network. B. mainframe C. supercomputer D. client. 157. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses. A. supercomputers B. clients C. laptops D. mainframes

158. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly. A. Servers B. Supercomputers C. Laptops D. Mainframes 159. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection. A. network B. wireless C. slow D. broadband 160. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the: A. digital divide. B. Internet divide. C. Web divide. D. broadband divide.

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE Cloze Test People have many (1) about homoeopathy and this is causing a lot of (2). There has to be an (3) debate about homoeopathy to help people in taking a better decision Homoeopathy (4) on the principle which states that a disease can be (5) by those substances which actually cause the disease itself. Based on this principle homoeopathic doctors (6) medicine that, if consumed in excess, can prove dangerous to a patient. Since the ingredients of the medicine are very potent they are (7) to a large extent. Sometimes the dilution extends to the point where the (8) of original ingredients in the medicine cannot be discovered by any available scientific (9). Homoeopathy is not considered as a (10) system because of this reason.

1. 1. misconceptions 2. perception 3. faults 2. 1. preparation 2. agitate 3. 1. known 4. 1. depends 5. 1. spread 6. 1. direct 2. informed 2. lured 2. cured 3. confusion 3. inspire 3. denies 3. intimidated

4. mirage 4. turbulent 4. brief

5. mockery 5. perplex 5. hidden

4. flaunt 5. drifted 4. stocked 5. focused

2. recommends 3. condemn 4. prescribe 5. advocated 2. diluted 2. absence 3. diminished 4. qualified 5. boiling 3. intense 4. quantify 5. demand

7. 1. adulterated 8. 1. presence 9. 1. transactions 10. 1. methodical

2. fashion 2. logical

3. procedures 4. operation 5. strategies 3. scientific 4. artistic 5. precise

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Phrase Replacement 11. Their desperate pleas to the doctors on duty has no effect. 1. has no effective 2. Had no effect 3. Have no effective 4. Having no effect

5. No correction required 12. There are ample opportunities for all and one needs once big surnames to succeed in life. 1. Won needs any 2. One need none 3. One needs no 4. None need no

5. No correction required 13. There is a need for sustainable development of cities by carefully managing the environmental and social impact. 1. By care managing 2. By careful manage 3. By Carefully manages management careful 5. No correction required 4. By

14. The woman threw her four children into the river before committing suicide 1. Throw four hers 2. Threw her four 3. Thrown four her 4. Throwing hers four

5. No correction required 15. Participants will be choose through a competitive evaluation process. 1. Chooses through 2. Chose through 5. No correction required
Arrangement A. But this pride does not always translate into proper custodianship and preservation. B. In this country, many institutions do not follow clear C. India is a country that is justifiably proud of its illustrious past D. Up-to-date, and verifiable standards for document preservation E. In spite of the plethora of capable administrators and skilled archivists F. Most Indians would cringe at how sources of Indian history are treated in government institutions All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

3. Choose thorough

4. Chosen through

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16. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? 1.B 2.F 3.C 4.E 5.D

17. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? 1.F 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.E

18. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? 1.C 2.B 3.E 4.D 5.F

19. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? 1.E 2.F 3.A 4.C 5.B

20. Which of the following would be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement? 1.A 2.D 3.E 4.F 5.C

Reading Comprehension Agni V, India's most powerful long-range ballistic missile, has lived up to the hopes of its creators at the Defence Research & Development Organisation. In its maiden flight, the missile demonstrated that it could accurately lob a dummy warhead weighing slightly over one tonne to a distance of over 5,000 km. India already has nuclear-capable missiles that can reach all of Pakistan and Agni V is clearly intended to provide a similar deterrent capability with respect to China. More test flights will be necessary before the missile is inducted into the country's strategic arsenal. V.K. Saraswat, Scientific Adviser to the Defence Minister, has called the missile a game-changer that can perform different roles, from carrying multiple warheads to providing anti-satellite capability and even launching tiny satellites into orbit. Like its progenitor, Agni III, this missile has a two-metre diameter (as compared to the one-metre diameter of Agni I and II). Agni III and V are therefore the first Indian missiles that can potentially be equipped with several warheads each (known as Multiple Independently Targeted Re-entry Vehicles or MIRV). MIRVs, however, pose their own technological challenges, especially the need to considerably shrink the size and weight of nuclear warheads. Despite China's earlier start, its ballistic missiles are still thought to be equipped with single warheads, not MIRVs. This suggests that developing an operational MIRV capability is not easy and will take time for both countries. Which is just as well because mutual security as the superpowers discovered during the Cold War does not lie in going down that path. Both China and Pakistan possess formidable nuclear-armed missiles of their own. The former is in the process of replacing its liquid-fuelled ballistic missiles with more modern solid propellant All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

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ones. From bases in Qinghai and Yunnan provinces, these missiles can reach all of India. In addition, in 2004, China launched the first of its second-generation Type 094 Jin-class nuclearpowered submarines that will carry JL-2 solid-propellant ballistic missiles. Islamabad too has a number of long-range missiles in its armoury. An assessment carried out by an Indian strategic studies group found that Pakistan had a credible deterrent structure organised around the solid-propellant Shaheen-1 and -2 missiles. However, responsible possession of nuclear-armed missiles for the purposes of deterrence also requires working assiduously to remove sources of friction that can erupt into open conflict. It is also important that India and China start talking to each other on nuclear matters. 21. Which of the following is true of Agni V? A. It is equipped with several MIRVs B. It has the capability to reach all parts of China C. It is India's most powerful long-range ballistic missile 1. Only A 2. Only C 3. Only A and B 4. Only B and C 5. All of the above

22. Why did the Scientific Adviser to the Defence Minister call Agni V a game changer ? 1. Because it can not be relied upon because of its multifunction. 2. Its design is based on a game very popular among kids 3. Its a name given to this missile by the Defence ministry 4. Because it can perform many different roles 5. None of these 23. According to the passage, what kind of technological challenge Agni III and V pose? A. Their size and weight are unusually large. B. Older technology has been used in them. C. Their effect remains limited to a narrow range. 1. Only A 2. Only C 3. Only A and 4. Only A and B 5. None of these

24. Qinghai and Yunnan provinces exist in All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

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1. India 2. China 3. Pakista 4. U.S.A

5. Not mentioned in the passage 25. According to the passage Shaheen -1 and -2 are1. liquid-fuelled ballistic missile 2. Nuclear warheads 4. Rocket launchers 5. None of these Similar Meaning 26. Deterrent 1. Obstacle 2. Something that retaliates Encouragement 5. Catalyst 3. Permission without reluctance 4. 3. Solid propellant ballistic missiles

27. Progenitor 1. Ancestor 28. Formidable 1. That is to be feared 2. Feeble powerful Opposite Meaning 29. Assiduously 1. Truly 2. Industriously Fundamentally 30. Maiden 1. First 2. Introductory 3. Last 4. Untied 5. Fatal 3. Lazily 4. Dramatically 5. 3. Pleasant 4. Most desirable 5. Most 2. Priority 3. Founder 4. Earlier model 5. Creator

Error Detection: 31. The world has witnessed (1)/ a great amount of (2) / economic and politics turmoil (3)/ over the past year (4)/ No Error (5) All Rights Reserved with R&D Deptt., Root Nine Education www.root9edu.com

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32. Debris got scattered over an area (1)/ of over one kilometer (2) / and parts of the aircraft fell on (3)/ some houses in the village (4)/ No Error (5) 33. He would complain if there was (1)/ a lot of sugar in his coffee; (2) / and he would complain if there (3)/ was enough sugar in it (4)/ No Error (5) 34. His dreams of multiply (1)/ his money were (2) / soon shattered when (3)/ he lost all his investments (4)/ No Error (5) 35. Whenever there is a revaluation of original scores (1)/ the students are issued a separate marks (2) / card and they end up having (3)/ two marks cards for set of exams (4)/ No Error (5) Fill in the blanks 36. The police ----------410 gm of heroin from Salim's rented-----------. 1. Seized, accommodation 3. Collected, adaptation 5. Offered, deposit 37. The----------- broke out when she---------- a matchstick to make tea for the guests 1. Flame, highlighted 3. Trial, darkened 2. Ignition, dim 4. Fire, lit 5. Heat, burnt 2. Charged, modification 4. Squeezed, settlement

38. The temple serves to -------------us of the divinity which pervades all moments of our -----------1. Emphasize, individuality 3. Remind, existence 2. Rejuvenate, reality 4. Describe, survival 5. Suggest, Journey

39. After exhausting -----------means of attracting students, corporate colleges have now added a new --------------to their strategies. 1. Many, horizontal 2. Various, dimension 5. Plenty of, range 3. Abundant, capacity 4. Several, importance

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40. Sages forget that they should be -----------lights to others through their own ---------------------conduct 1. Torch, faulty 3. Lime, suspicious 2. Search, responsible 4. Divine, prone 5. Beacon, upright

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