Question Answer 1. Prior to getting the ship underway, the navigator should make a/an: navigational check list 2.

3. In voyage planning SOA means: speed of advance 4. The SOA chosen for each track leg in voyage planning is the: PIM speed 5. In voyage planning, PIM means: points of intended movement 6. If a navigational computer is not available for constructing a track in voyage planning, the
easiest method is the: use of 7. gnomonic chart to plot a great circle route

8. The Master issues a night order in the Night Order Book. It is valid for: 24-hour period
9.

10. The Night Order Book includes the following EXCEPT: maintain ships speed at all times

11. When planning and conducting a voyage, the navigator uses many information sources
that includes the following EXCEPT = navigational charts

12. While voyage planning and navigating, a mariner must refer to both texts and tables. Text
includes the following EXCEPT: Light Lists

13. While voyage planning and navigating, a mariner must refer to both texts and tables.
Tables include the following EXCEPT: Sailing Directions

14. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Planning Guides are relatively permanent 15. Which Chapter of the Planning Guide describes recommended steamship routes? Chapter
4

16. Appendices of the Planning Guide contains the following information EXCEPT wind force
and current sets

17. Sailing Directions contain: numbered sections along a coast or through a strait 18. Charts through Notice To Mariners are updated: Weekly 19. Light Lists through Notice To Mariners are updated: weekly 20. Which is TRUE about Light Lists? furnishes complete information about navigation lights
and other navigational aids

21. Notice To Mariners is published: weekly 22. What is the maximum range at which an observer sees a light under existing visibility
conditions? luminous range

23. The maximum distance at which a light can be seen in weather conditions where the
visibility is 10 miles is known as: nominal range

24. Geographical range of a light depends upon the? height of both the light and the observer 25. When an observer sees a light and reduces his height, the light disappears; when the
observer goes to his original height, the light appears. This is called: bobbing a light

26. The charts _______ reflects the latest Notice to Mariners used to update the chart. print
date

27. A convenient way of keeping a record of updated latest correction of chart is:
Chart/Publication Correction Record Card System

28. What represents part of the spherical earth on a plane surface? nautical chart

29. The sun is the central body of the solar system. It moves in the direction of Vega at: 12
miles per second

30. In each planets orbit, the point nearest the sun is called: perihelion 31. In a moons orbit, the point nearest the sun is called: perigee 32. In a moons orbit, the point farthest from the sun is called: apogee 33. The suns diameter is about: 866,000 miles 34. The suns surface is called ______. photosphere 35. The sun continuously emits charge particles called _____. solar wind 36. Which two planets are inside the orbit of the earth? Mercury and Venus 37. The largest of the known planets is ______. Jupiter 38. A faint glow observed extending upward along the ecliptic before sunrise and after sunset
is called ______. zodiacal light

39. A vast collection cluster of stars and clouds of gas is called _____. Galaxy 40. The path of the sun appears to take among the stars due to the annual revolution of the
earth in its orbit is called ______. ecliptic

41. Everywhere between the parallels of about 23 deg 26 min North and 23 deg 26 min South,
the Sun is directly overhead during the year. This area is called the: torrid zone

42. The areas inside the polar circles are called ______. frigid zone 43. The regions between the frigid zones and the torrid zones are called ______. temperate
zones

44. Vernal Equinox is also known as ______. First Point of Aries 45. A circular band of the sky extending 8 degrees on each side of the ecliptic is called: zodiac 46. A sidereal day is shorter than a solar day by about _____. 3 mins and 56 secs 47. Cancer is the point of: summer solstice 48. Libra is the point of: autumnal equinox 49. Capricorn is the point of: winter solstice 50. In the Nautical Almanac, are tabulated GHA of both the sun and Aries, and also the
declination of ______ stars 57

51. The data for sunrise and sunset in the Nautical Almanac is given in ______. LMT 52. Meridian Passage as tabulated in the Nautical Almanac is given in _______. GMT 53. The correction table for GHA of planets is based upon the: mean rate of the sun

54. The tabulated times of sunrise, sunset, moonrise and moonset are based: between
latitudes 72 degrees North and 60 degrees South

55. The tabulation data in the Nautical Almanac is for: 3 days 56. Of the 57 navigational stars tabulated in the Nautical Almanac, how many are of the first
magnitude? 19

57. Of the 57 navigational stars tabulated in the Nautical Almanac, how many are of the
second magnitude? 38

58. One of the two pointers in the Ursa Minor pointing to Polaris is: Kochab 59. One of the two stars pointing to Polaris in the Ursa Major is: Dubhe 60. Which star is at the head of the Northern Cross? Deneb 61. One of the stars pointing to the Southern Cross is the: Hadar 62. The principle of a sextant is that, when a plane surface reflects a light ray, the angle of
reflection equals the angle of - incidence

63. The movable arm of the sextant is the: index arm 64. One complete turn of the drum of the sextant moves the index arm _____ along the arc. 1
degree

65. When the faces of the sextant shade glasses and mirrors are not parallel, the error is
called: prismatic error

66. The error remaining in the sextant after the navigator has removed side error
perpendicularity error and collimation error is - index error Time of Local Apparent Noon

67. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac, it is used to determine: 68. The Sailing Directions Planning Guide contains information on all of the following EXCEPT:
Coastal features

69. The Sailing Directions are published in the Enroute format and the _____. Planning Guide 70. What publication contains information regarding the dangers to navigation in the English
Channel? Channel Pilot? Guide

71. At a place A, Longitude 175? 10.5?W, the LMT is 16h02m03s, December 3. Find the LMT
and date at place B, Longitude 32?08?W. 01h34m13s, Dec 4

72. The ZT at place A is 0800. If the longitude of A is 49?30?W, find the ZT of place B in
longitude 83?15?W. 0500

73. A ship is at DR longitude 67?25?W at 1815 ZT steaming on a westerly course when the
navigator informs the Captain that the ship is about to enter a new time zone. The Captain orders that the ship?s clocks be set to the new zone time when the next hour is struck What will be the new zone description, and what will be the zone time by ship? clock immediately on being set to new zone time. New ZD (+5); New ZT, 1800

74. A ship is in longitude 137 deg 45' E, clocks keeping ZT. Find the LMT at 1123 ship's time.
11h 34 m

75. The ZT at longitude 141?18?W is 6h18m24s What is the GMT? 15 h18 m 24s

76. A ship sailing eastward crosses the 180th meridian at 1130 ZT of June 6. What is the new
zone time and date of crossing? 11 h 30 m, June 5

77. You are on a voyage from Limon, Costa Rica, to Los Angeles. The distance from pilot to

pilot is 3150 miles. The speed of advance is 14.0 knots. You estimate 24 hours bunkering at Colon, and 12 hours for the Panama Canal transit. If you depart at 1836 hours (ZD+6), on 28 January. What is your ETA (ZD+8) at Los Angeles? 1336, 8 Feb bodies, principally the moon is called ______. lunar pertuberance

78. An irregularity in the motion of the Earth due to the disturbing effect of other celestial 79. The path followed by the sun towards Vega is called _____. Suns way 80. Asteroids lie chiefly between Mars and Jupiter and are considered _____. Minor Planets 81. If the surface of the spheroid is altered so as to be everywhere perpendicular to the
direction of gravity, the Earth is considered a/an _____. geoid

82. The visible diameter of the sun as seen from the Earth during perihelion is _____. 32.6? 83. The visible diameter of the sun as seen from the Earth during aphelion is_____. 31.5? 84. A cloudy patch of matter in the heavens within the galaxy of which the sun is a part is
called: Galactic Nebula

85. A cloudy patch of matter in the heavens outside the galaxy is called _____. Extragalactic
nebula

86. These are stars in the galaxy that tend to congregate in groups arranged in long spiral
arms. Star clouds

87. The component of space motion in the line of sight is called _____. Radial motion 88. The difference in apparent position as viewed from the Earth and the sun is known as
_____. Heliocentric parallax

89. The difference in apparent position as observed from the surface of the Earth and the
center of the Earth is ______. Geocentric Parallax

90. When the moons R.A. is 12 hours different with that of the sun, the moon is said to be at:
opposition

91. If the Earths rotation were stopped, which of the following conditions will happen? The
sun will rise from the West and sets to the East due to revolution

92. The evening twilight commences _____. before sunset 93. The period between the time prior to sunrise is called_____. morning twilight 94. What is the phase of the moon when it rises during sunrise? New moon 95. When the moon sets during sunrise, it is at _____. Opposition 96. The sun rises exactly at the time when the moon is setting. The moon is at _____.
Opposition

97. After passing the First Quarter phase, the moon becomes full moon at _____. Opposition 98. If the age of the moon is approximately 14 &1/2 days, it is said to be at: opposition 99. If the moon reaches a point wherein it is completely illuminated, it is at: Opposition 100.
This term refers to a heavenly body which has two meridian passages one above and one below the elevated pole. circumpolar

101.

The line separating the illuminated and darkened portions of the moon is called: Terminator The line connecting Vernal Equinox to Autumnal Equinox is called: Line of equinoxes

102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107.

Often expressed in time units, it is the arc between the hour circle of the apparent sun and the lower branch of the Greenwich meridian. Greenwich Apparent Time What is a parallel of declination? A small circle on the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator The angular distance measured along the hour circle to the diurnal circle of the celestial point is known as: Declination of the point The angle measured from the elevated pole along the hour circle to the diurnal circle passing by the body is called: Polar Distance

If the Greenwich Hour Angle of the sun at noon 23.6, what of February 26 is 356 is the Equation of Time? + 14m 26s 108. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE? I. Meridian Passage of the sun occurs before 1200 LMT if mean sun is ahead of apparent sun. II. Meridian Passage of the sun occurs after 1200 LMT if apparent sun is ahead of the mean sun. Neither I nor II

109.

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE? I. The body rises at the Prime Vertical when the Declination is greater than the Latitude and same names II .The body will set at the Prime vertical when the Latitude is numerically equal to declination and same names neither I and II Which of the following statements is/are TRUE? I. Night is longer than day when the suns declination is numerically equal and same name as your latitude II. Day is longer than night when the suns declination is north and you are in south Latitude. Neither I nor II

110.

111.

The value of the intercepted arc of a meridian between the elevated pole and the observers zenith is known as ____. co-Latitude 112. The intercepted arc along the observers celestial meridian between the celestial horizon and the elevated pole is equal to the: latitude of the observer

113. 114. 115.

The longitude of the GP of a celestial body will be East if _____. The Greenwich Hour Angle is more than 180 The angle at the pole between the bodys hour circle and the observers lower meridian: LMT In the Celestial Equator system of coordinates, when the bodys diurnal circle coincides with the celestial equator, the meridional zenith distance is equal to the _____. latitude of the observer In the Celestial Equator System of coordinates, when the bodys diurnal circle coincides with the celestial equator, the altitude during upper transit will be equal to the: co-Latitude In the orthographic projection of the horizon system of coordinates, when the body rises to the right of the Prime Vertical (PV), the amplitude is named: E: S In the orthographic projection of the horizon system of coordinates, when the body rises to the left of the Prime Vertical (PV), the amplitude is named _____. E: N The intercepted arc of a vertical circle between the celestial horizon and the almucantar is called the _____. Altitude of the celestial body The intercepted arc of the horizon between the principal vertical circle and the vertical circle passing through the body when rising or setting is called_____. azimuth The radius of the almucantar is equal to the ______. co-altitude

116.

117. 118.

119. 120. 121.

122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127.

zero

A body at the observers zenith will have a/an ____. Altitude of 90? The amplitude will be numerically equal to the declination only when _____ Latitude is

If the altitude of the elevated pole is 90 degrees, the ___. Latitude of the observer is at the pole Which of the following can be measured from the Horizon System of Coordinates? I. Zenith Distance II. Amplitude III. Co-altitude I, II, III All of the following arcs or angles can be measured in the Horizon system of coordinates EXCEPT ______. Declination

All of the following arcs or angles can be measured in the Horizon system of coordinates EXCEPT ______. Meridian 128. angle

129.

In the Horizon System of coordinates, the arc of the horizon measured from the West point of the horizon in a direction towards the Principal Vertical circle through the North celestial Pole will give an amplitude in which quadrant? Fourth Quadrant In the Horizon system of coordinates, the arc of the horizon measured from the East point of the horizon in a direction towards the Principal Vertical circle through the North Celestial Pole will give an amplitude in which quadrant? First Quadrant The navigational triangle is NOT formed when the body is: on the observers meridian

130.

131. 132.

During meridian passage, the LHA and meridian angle of the body is zero. What is its altitude? maximum altitude At meridian passage, the bearing of the body will be: either North or South What line of position can you derive foremost during meridian passage? latitude line

133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138.

You are on course 042 T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 132 You are on course 138 T. To check the latitude of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 000 You are on course 061 T. To check the longitude of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 090 You are on course 146 T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 146 What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position? fix

139. 140. 141.

You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle. The actual position of the vessel ________. is the geometric center of the triangle The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean sun is ahead of the apparent sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at what ZT will the apparent sun cross the meridian? 1212 The equation of time is 8 m 00s. The mean sun is ahead of the apparent sun. If you are 2? W of the central meridian of your time zone, when will the apparent sun cross your meridian? 1216

142.

143.

The equation of time is 8m 40s, apparent sun is ahead of the mean sun. If you are on central meridian of your time zone, what ZT will the apparent sun will cross your meridian? cannot be determined 11-51-20 ZT The LMT of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73deg 15' E. What time would you used to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the sun at LAN? 0659 On Dec 10, the LMT of LAN is 1151H. What will be the zone time of LAN if you are located in Longitude 150 deg 00' W? 1151 ZT The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70 deg 30' E. The LMT of LAN is 1210manac to determine the declination of the sun at LAN? 0728 The LMT of LAN is 1200H. What will be the zone of LAN if you are located in Longitude 120? 30?W? 1202 ZT The LMT of sunrise on the 15 standard meridian is 0552H. Your longitude is 99 E. What is your ZT of sunrise? 0615 The local mean time of sunset at Long. 73 deg 30' E. is 18h 40m 00s. What is the corresponding local zone time of sunset? 18h 46m 00s GPS means ________. Global Positioning System The GPS provides 95% accuracy within a range of ______. 100 meters The GPS provides 99.99% accuracy within a range of ______. 300 meters The DGPS provides accuracy within a range of _______. 10 meters

144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151.

152. 153. 154.

Military users use the ______ which provides extremely accurate positioning. Precise Positioning System _______ in GPS is the true distance between the satellite and the plus an offset due to frequency error of the users clock. pseudorange A GPS satellite transmits a signal thru the first carrier on ______. 1575.42 MHz A GPS satellite transmits a signal thru the second carrier on ___. 1227.60 MHz _______ is a hyperbolic system of navigation using a long range low frequency. Loran

155. 156. 157. 158.

159.

_______ is a hyperbolic system of navigation using a long range medium frequency. Loran A The accuracy of Loran position is within ______. 0.25 nautical miles A pulse feature designed to eliminate sky wave is ______. phase coding A Loran receivers major advantage is its ability to store ____. waypoints

160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166.

_______ is a radio navigation system which operates in the very low frequency. Omega Very Low Frequencies used by Omega is ______. Between 10 to 14 kHz.

In a _______ mode of Omega, the receiver measures the distance between it and two or more transmitting stations to determine lines of position. direct range In a _______ mode of Omega, the receiver measures the difference in phase between two transmitters. hyperbolic

167. 168. 169. 170. 171.

A device which converts electrical energy into sound energy and vice versa is called: transducer An instrument for indicating a horizontal difference relative to the earth depending upon the magnetic attraction of the earth is called ______ magnetic compass Any piece of metal on becoming magnetized will develop regions of concentrated magnetism called ______. poles A ship has a ______ magnetism. permanent magnetism

The magnetic flux lines enter the surface of the earth at different angles to the horizontal, at different magnetic Latitudes. This angle is called ______. angle of magnetic dip A compass which is north-seeking depends upon gyroscopic inertia, gyroscopic precession, the earths rotation, and gravity is ______. gyrocompass An automatic device for steering a vessel by means of control signals received from a gyro compass is called _____. gyropilot A rapidly rotating mass free to move about one or both axes perpendicular to the axis of rotation and to each other is called ______. gyroscope The horizontal rotation of the spin axis of a gyroscope about the vertical axis is called: gyroscopic drift

172.

173. 174. 175. 176.

The property of a gyroscope of resisting any force which tends to change its axis of rotation is called _____. gyroscopic 177. inertia

178.

The angle between the magnetic meridian and the axis of a compass card expressed in degrees east or west to indicate to indicate which direction is the compass card offset from the magnetic north is called ______. deviation The angle between the magnetic and geographic meridians at any place east or west to indicate the direction of magnetic north from the true north is called ______. variation Deviation and variation are applied to the _____. magnetic compass

179. 180. 181.

The error in a compass which indicates the direction in which the axis of the compass is offset from true north is the ____. gyro error ______ refers to any change of permanent magnet or soft iron correctors to reduce normal compass errors. compass adjustment

182.

183. 184.

Physical checks of gyro, azimuth circle and pelorus are the following EXCEPT: alignment of the compass north to the fore and aft line of the ship In making compass adjustments at sea, which international flag signal is hoisted? Oscar Quebec

185. 186.

Reasons for correcting compass are the following EXCEPT: it is more comfortable to use a corrected compass in bad weather This is a deviation error caused by the miscalculation of azimuth or by physical misalignments rather than magnetic effects of soft iron. A error

187. 188. 189. 190. 191.

______ results from both the fore-and-aft permanent magnetic field across the compass. B error _____ results from the athwartship permanent magnetic field across the compass. C error This error is due only to induction in the symmetrical arrangements of symmetrical arrangements of horizontal soft iron. D error This error is caused by induction in the unsymmetrical arrangements of horizontal soft iron. E error The horizontal direction of a celestial point from a terrestrial point expressed as the angular distance from a reference direction is called ______ azimuth When the azimuth is measured from north or south and labeled accordingly, it is called: azimuth angle When the azimuth is measured from east or west and labeled accordingly, it is called: amplitude Azimuth of the sun for compass error is best taken at: sun's low altitude The azimuth of the sun is best taken at the: center of the sun

192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198.

An azimuth determined by solution of the navigational triangle with altitude, declination and latitude, it is called _____. altitude azimuth An azimuth determined by solution of the navigational triangle with meridian angle, declination and latitude, it is called ___. time azimuth An azimuth determined by solution of the navigational triangle with meridian angle, declination and altitude, it is called ___. time and altitude azimuth When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that your receiver is locked onto? Horizontal Dilution of Precision With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the same accuracy as a military receiver when ____. selective availability is set to zero Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability? Selective Availability Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several satellites simultaneously? Continuous The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by ____. DGPS, within a coverage area A low HDOP (Horizontal Dilution of Precision) number such as 2 indicates a ____. good When using GPS, how many position lines are required for a 2D (dimensional) fix? 3 fix

199. 200. 201.

202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209.

When using GPS, how many position lines are required for a 3D (dimensional) fix that takes into account altitude? 4 Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS receiver need in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position? Four Most GPS receivers use the Doppler shift of the carrier phase to compute ____. Speed

Which of the following will not contribute to the commercial GPS receiver position error? Ship's speed

210.

Which statement concerning GPS is TRUE? It may be suspended without warning

211.

With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, _____. a warning of 212. loss of position

213.

With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, _____. an alarm if a new position has not been calculated within the last two seconds The speed of sound through ocean water is nearly always ____. faster than the speed of calibration for the fathometer The speed of sound in water is approximately ____. 4.5 times its speed in air

214. 215. 216. 217.

When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate _____ two depth reading When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to _____. receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one nearer the surface at night When using a recording depth finder in the open ocean, what phenomena is most likely to produce a continuous trace that may not be from the actual ocean bottom? Echoes from a deep scattering layer What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water? Add the draft of the vessel In modern fathometers the sonic sound waves are produced electrically by means of a/an____. transducer All echo-sounders can measure the _____. actual depth of water below keel

218.

219. 220. 221.

222. 223. 224. 225.

An electronic depth finder operates on the principle that ____. sound waves travel at a constant speed through water The recording fathometer produces a graphic record of the ____. depth underneath the keel against a time base Which factor has the greatest effect on the amount of gain required to obtain a fathometer reading? Type of bottom If a sound signal is emitted from the oscillator of a fathometer, and two seconds elapse before the returning signal is picked up what depth of water is indicated? 24 fathoms The state of the atmosphere with respect to temperature, humidity, precipitation, visibility, cloudiness, and other factors is called ______. weather The average long term meteorological condition of a place or region is called _____. climate A relatively thin shell of air, water vapor, and suspended particulates surrounding the earth is called _____. atmosphere As altitude increases, air pressure decreases due to decreased weight of air above. More than of the air is concentrated within a layer called _____. troposphere The top of the troposphere is marked by a transition layer called: tropopause On top of the tropopause is the layer ______. stratosphere

226. 227. 228. 229. 230. 231.

232. 233. 234. 235. 236. 237. 238. 239.

The standard sea level pressure of the atmosphere is _____ 1013.25 millibars of mercury The standard sea level pressure of the atmosphere is _____. 29.92 inches Temperature decreases with height called _____. standard lapse rate

As radiant energy from the sun arrives at the earth, how many percent is reflected back by the earth and the atmosphere? 29% As radiant energy from the sun arrives at the earth, how many percent is absorbed by the atmosphere? 19% As radiant energy from the sun arrives at the earth, how many percent is absorbed by the earth? 52% ______ diverts the air from a direct path between high and low pressure areas. Coriolis force Which of the following is TRUE? I. Coriolis force tends to divert air toward the right in the Northern Hemisphere II. Coriolis Force tends to divert air toward the left in the Southern Hemisphere III. Coriolis Force tends to divert air toward the left in the Northern Hemisphere, to the right in the Southern Hemisphere I & II

240. 241.

At some distance above the earths surface, the wind tends to blow along lines connecting points of equal pressure called: isobars If the isobars are straight, the wind blowing is called _____. geostropic wind If the isobars are curve, the wind blowing is called _____. gradient wind A change in pressure with horizontal distance is called ____. pressure gradient

242. 243. 244. 245. 246. 247. 248.

A belt of low pressure at the earths surface near the equator is called _____. doldrums Winds that blow from the belts of high pressure towards the equatorial belts of low pressure are the ______. trade winds Because of the earth rotation, the moving air is deflected toward the ______. west Atmospheric pressure is measured by a _____. barometer

Along the poleward side of each trade wind belt and approximately with the belt of high pressure in each hemisphere is a region with weak pressure gradients and correspondingly with light, variable winds. These winds are called the ______. horse latitudes On the poleward side of the high pressure belt in both hemisphere, the atmospheric pressure again diminishes. The wind in motion moves towards the poles and diverted by the earths rotation toward the east. This wind system is called _______. prevailing westerlies In the Southern Hemisphere, the westerlies blow throughout the year steadily approaching that of the trade winds. These are called the ______. roaring forties Because of the low temperatures near the geographical poles of the earth, the surface pressure tends to remain higher than in surrounding regions since cold air is denser than warm air. Consequently, winds blow outward from the poles called: northeasterlies in the Arctic

249.

250. 251.

252.

Because of the low temperatures near the geographical poles of the earth, the surface pressure tends to remain higher than in surrounding regions since cold air is denser than warm air. Consequently, winds blow outward from the poles called: southeasterlies in the Antarctic Any or all forms of water particles whether liquid or solid that fall from the atmosphere and reach the ground is _____. precipitation In weather analysis, the approach of a storm is through observation of wind, waves, swell and the ______. atmospheric pressure _______ is a measure of the atmospheres vapor content. humidity

253. 254. 255. 256. 257. 258. 259. 260. 261.

The ratio of the pressure of water vapor present in the atmosphere to the saturation vapor pressure at the same temperature is called ______. relative humidity ______ is the vector sum of the true wind and the reciprocal of the vessels course and speed vector. apparent wind ______ consist of innumerable tiny droplets of water, or ice crystals formed by condensation of water vapor around microscopic particles in the air. clouds High clouds have a mean lower level above ______. 20,000 ft Middle clouds have a mean level ______. between 6,500 ft and 20,000 ft Low clouds have a mean level of less than ______. 6,500 ft Cirrus and cirrostratus belong to the ______ high clouds Altocumulus and altostratus belong to the _____. middle clouds Cumulus and cumulonimbus belong to the _____. low clouds

262. 263. 264. 265. 266. 267.

Following a ship routing system, an initial route recommendation is issued to a ship: 48 to 72 hours prior to sailing ______ is an underway adjustment in track and is intended to avoid or limit the effect of adverse weather conditions. diversion ______ is a recommendation for slowing or increasing the ships speed as much as practicable intended to avoid or limit the effect of adverse weather conditions. adjustment of SOA ______ is a transmission sent to the ship advising the master of expected adverse conditions, duration and geographic extent. weather advisory ______ is a maritime radio warning system consisting of a series of coast stations transmitting radio teletype safety messages NAVTEX NAVTEX operates in a medium frequency of _____. 518 kHz

268. 269. 270.

271. 272. 273.

Which instrument is the most useful in forecasting fog? sling psychomotor

Frost smoke will occur when ___________. extremely cold air from shore passes over warmer water Fog forms when the air temperature is at or below______. the dew point

274. 275. 276.

Fog is most commonly associated with a an: water front at night

Which of the following will act to dissipate fog? Downslope motion of an air mass along a coast Ascending and descending air masses with different temperature is part of an important heat transmitting process in our atmosphere called ________. convection The process in which an air mass changes in temperature and/or moisture called_____. modification On the approach of a warm front, barometric pressure usually ______. falls

277. 278.

279. 280. 281.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the weather preceding an approaching warm front? steadily falling barometric pressure Which of the following is typical of warm front weather conditions? steady precipitation In the northern hemisphere, winds veering sharply to the west or northwest with increasing velocity are indications that a ______. cold front has passed Squall lines with an almost unbroken line of threatening black clouds and sharp changes in wind direction, generally a/an __________. fast-moving cold front A cold front moving in from the northwest can produce _____. Thunderstorms, hail, and then rapid clearing As a cold front passes an observer, pressure _______. rises and winds become variable After a cold front passes the barometric pressure usually ____. rises, often quite rapidly, with clearing skies The steepness of a cold front depends on _____. its velocity An occluded front is usually caused by a ______. cold front overtaking a warm front

282. 283. 284. 285. 286. 287. 288.

What type of cloud formation would you expect to see to the west of an approaching tropical wave? cumulus cloud lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest direction A tropical wave is usually preceded by _________. good weather

289. 290. 291. 292. 293. 294.

A tropical wave is located 200 miles due west of your position, which is north of the equator. Where will the wave be located 24 hours later? farther away to the west What kind of pressure system travel in tropical waves? low pressure

Low pressure disturbances, which travel along the inter-tropical convergence zone, are called__________. tropical waves What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a tropical wave? heavy rain and cloudiness This is a complex mirage characterized by marked distortion on objects, magnified and at times, even multiplied generally in the vertical and even appeared towering. fata morgana It is the atmosphere in the vicinity of a low pressure area. cyclone

295.

296. 297.

This is the outward force from the center of high or low pressure. cyclostrophic force

The extreme horizontal distance at which prominent objects can be seen and identified by the unaided eye. visibility