1. Which one of the following lichen is source of litmus?

a) Cladonia b) Usnea c) Cetraria d) Rocella

2. Pyrenoids are
a) Starch surrounded by protein b) Protein surrounded by starch
c) Lipid surrounded by starch d) Lipid surrounded by protein
3. The most poisonous fungi is:
a) Amanita b) Albugo c) Morchella d) Pythium
4. An explants is:
a) excised plant part used in tissue b) plant part imported outside Nepal
c) tissue taken to space for research d) None
5. The disease influenza is
a) Bacteria b) Fungal c) Algal d) Viral
6. Emasculation is:
a) removal of stigma b) removal of anther
c) removal of ovule d) removal of petals
7. Sometimes the prothalus of a fern gives rise to a fern plant without any
fertilization which is called as.
a) Apospory b) Apogamy c) Parthenocarpy d) Parthenogenesis
8. In Funaria, calyptra is derived from
a) Archegonium b) Perichaetium c) Antheridium d) rays
9. Pollination in gymnosperms is:
a) Anemophily b) Hydrophily c) Zoophily d) Chelropterophily
10. Gibberellins promotes:
a) seed dormancy b) seed germination
c) seed formation d) fruit formation
11. Lysosomes are rich in which type of enzymes?
a) Oxidase b)Hydrolytic enzymes c)Transferases d)Catalases
12. Activity of DNA polymerase is highest in which phase?
a) G
1
phase b) S phase c) G
2
phase d) M phase
13. Which of the following enzyme makes a single stranded cut in DNA during its
replication?
a) Helicase b)Ligase c)Topoisomerase-1 d)Topoisomerase-2
14. Vascular bundle of maize stem (monocot) is
a) Collateral and closed b)Bicollateral and open
c)Collateral and open d)Radial and close
15. Which type of fruit is found in poaceae?
a) Cypsela b)Capsela c)Hespiridium d)Caryopsis
16. Aleurone layer of the endosperm of maize is.
a) Lipid in nature b)Proteinaceous c)Starch sheath d)None
17. If no. of chromosomes in maize root cells is 24,then what is the number in
Antipodal cells.
a) 6 b) 12 c) 24 d) 36
18. A semipermeable membrane allows the diffusion of
a) Solutes b)Solvent c)Both solute and solvent d)None
19. Phyllode bearing plant is.
a) Opuntia b)Ruscus c)Acacia d)Asparagus
20. The concept of Ecosystem was given by
a) E odum b)Hackel c)Reiter d)A.G. Tansley
21. Larvae are motile and adults are sedentary in:
a) Protozoa b)Porifera c)Colenterata d)Arthropoda
22. Estivoautumnal malaria is caused by:
a) P.vivax b) P.malariae c) P. falciparum d) P. ovale
23. Organs of bojanus helps in.
a) reproduction b) excretion c) locomotion d) digestion
24. Genetic information in Paramecium is contained in.
a) micronucleus b) macronucleus c) both a and b d) mitrochondria
25. Pupa of Culex is which stage instar larva?
a) 2
nd
instar larva b)3
rd
instar larva c)4
th
instar larva d)5
th
instar larva
26. Reptiles are dommant during:
a) Triassic b)Jurassic c)Cretaceous d)Devonian
27. During gastrulation which of the following differentiate:
a) ectoderm and endoderm b) ectoderm only
c) endoderm only d) ectoderm, Mesoderm and Endoderm
28. Nervous system develops from:
a) ectoderm b) mesoderm c) endoderm d) meso-endoderm
29. Thermoregulating centre of human is located in:
a) optic lobe b) thymus gland c) medulla oblongate d) hypothalamus
30. In frog which of the following is common in digestive and respiratory.
a) pharynx b) larynx c) oesophagus d) trachea
31. Cavity present between ischium and pubis is known as:
a) foramen magnum b) foramen of monroe
c) obturator foramen d) nutrient foramen
32. Odontoid process of rabbit is found in.
a) Atlas vertebra b) urostyle c) 9
th
vertebra d) axis vertebra
33. Largest and smallest gland of our body are:
a) pancreas and pituitary b)thyroid and pituitary
c) thyroid and Parathyroid d)thyroid and supra-renal
34. Phagocytic cells present in brain are:
a) microglia b) kuffer cells c) dust cells d) monocytes
35. Burners glands are present in the:
a) mucosa of oesophagus b) submucosa of duodenum
c) mucosa of ileum d) submucosa of stomach
36. For origin of life, the most important condition is the presence of:
a) water b) nitrogen c) oxygen d) carbon
37. Analogous organs are:
a) different in origin but similar in function
1 2
b) common in origin and common in function
c) common in origin but different in function
d) different in origin and different in function
38. Which of the following is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens?
a) Homo erectus b) Ramapithecus c) Australopithecus d)Neanderthal man
39. Mild type of mental illness is
a) madness b) psychosis c) neurosis d) epilepsy
40. The test for typhoid is
a) Ames test b) Dick test c) Widal test d) Elisa test
41. Hydrogen gas is formed when very dilute HNO
3
reacts with
a) Zn b) Mn c) Cu d) Fe
42. Phenol polymerises with formaldehyde to form:
a) polythene b) PVC c) Bakellite d) Nylon-6, 6
43. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyze?
a) NaCl b) NH
4
Cl c) KCl d) Na
2
SO
4

44. The relationship which describes the variation of vapour pressure of a liquid
with temperature is called:
a) Hesss law b) Arrhenius equation
c) Kirchhoffs equation d) Clausius Claperyrons equation
45. The half life of a substance in a first order reaction is 15 minutes. The rate
constant is:
a) 2.46 10
2
min
-1
b) 4.62 10
2
min
-1
c) 3 10
5
min
-1
d) 3 10
3
min
-1

46. M is the molecular weight of KMnO
4
. The equivalent weight of KMnO
4
when it
is converted into K
2
MnO
4
is:
a) M b) M/3 c) M/5 d) M/7
47. Number of unpaired electron in electronic configuration 1s
2
2s
2
2p
4
is:
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
48. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which a water molecule can
participate?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
49. Ammonia gas dissolves in water to give NH4OH. In the reaction water acts as:
a) acid b) base c) salt d) a conjugate base
50. Which one of the following solution of sulphuric acid will exactly neutralize 25
ml of 0.2 M sodium hydroxide solution?
a) 12.5 ml of 0.1 M solution b) 25 ml of 0.1 M solution
c) 25 ml of 0.2 M solution d) 50 ml of 0.2 solution
51. How many Cl
-
ions are there around Na
+
ion in NaCl crystal?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
52. For reaction N
2
+ 3H
2
2NH
3
, the value of K
c
would depend upon:
a) initial concentration of reactants b) pressure
c) temperature d) all of above
53. If the initial concentration is reduced to
th
in a zero order reaction, the time
taken for half the reaction to complete:
a) remains same b) becomes 4 times
c) becomes one-fourth d) double
54. For the reaction N
2
+ 3H
2
2NH
3
, AH=?
a) AE + 2RT b) AE 2RT c) AE + RT d) AE RT
55. The rate of a gaseous reaction is give by the expression K (A) (B). if the volume
of the reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to
th
of the initial volume, the
reaction relating to the original rate will be:
a) 1/10 b) 1/8 c) 8 d) 16
56. Which one is the correct of the size of iodine species?
a) I > I
+
> I
-
b) I > I
-
> I
+
c) I
+
> I
-
> I d) I
-
> I > I
+

57. Which of the following represents electronic configuration of d-block elements?
a) (n-1) s
2
nd
1-10
b) (n-1) d
1-10
ns
1-2
c) (n-1) d
1-10
ns
2
np
4
d) (n-1) p
4
ns
2

58. Daltons law of partial pressure is not applicable to:
a) O
2
+ O
3
b) CO + CO
2
c) NH
3
+ HCl d) I
2
+ O
2

59. The chemical formula for zeolite is:
a) K
2
Al
2
SiO
3,
. xH2O b) Na
2
Al
2
Si
2
O
8
. xH
2
O
c) CaAl
2
Si
2
O
8
d) Na
2
[Na
4
(PO
3
)]
60. Cyanide process is used for obtaining:
a) Cr b) Ag c) Cu d) Zn
61. Nitrolim is
a) CaCN
2
b) CaC
2
c) CaCN
2
+ C d) CaC + CaCN
2

62. AgCl dissolves in a solution of NH
3
but not in water because:
a) NH
3
is a solvent than H
2
O b) Ag+ form a complex ion with NH
3

c) NH
3
is a stronger base than H
2
O d) the dipole moment of water is higher than
NH
3

63. In lassaignes test for nitrogen in the blue colour is due to formation of:
a) ferric ferro cyanide b) ferro ferric cyanide
c) sodium ferro cyanide d) potassium ferro cyanide
64. Homolytic fission of C-C bond in ethane gives an intermediate in which carbon
is
a) sp
3
hybridized b) sp
2
c) sp d) sp
2
d
65. Which reactions are most common in alkenes?
a) electrophilic substitution reaction b) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
c) electrophilic addition reaction d) Nucleophilic addition reaction
66. C
2
H
5
Cl + KCN X
hydrolysis
Y. Compounds X and Y are.
a) C
2
H
6
and C
2
H
5
CN b) C
2
H
5
CN and C
2
H
6

c) C
2
H
5
CN and C
2
H
5
CH
2
d) C
2
H
5
CN and C
2
H
5
COOH
67. Ethanol when reacted with PCl
5
gives A, POCl
3
and HCl. A react with silver
nitrite to form B and AgCl. A and B respectively are:
a) C
2
H
5
Cl and C
2
H
5
OC
2
H
5
b) C
2
H
6
and C
2
H
5
OC
2
H
5

c) C
2
H
5
Cl and C
2
H
5
NO
2
d) C
2
H
6
and C
2
H
5
NO
2

68. On reaction with hot concentrated H
2
SO
4
, which one of the following compound
loses a molecule of water:
3 4
a) CH
3
COCH
3
b) CH
3
COOH c) CH
3
OCH
3
d) CH
3
CH
2
OH
69. Glucose gives silver mirror with Tollens reagent it show the presence of:
a) an acidic group b) an alcoholic group
c) a ketonic group d) an aldehyde group
70. Gammexane is:
a) DDT b) Benzene hexachloride
c) chlorbenzene d) none
71. Two charge spheres A and B are charged with the charges of 1 C and 16 C
respectively and separated by a distance of 1 m. The electric field at a point on
the line joining the centers of the two spheres will be zero at a distance from
sphere A.
a) 20 cm b) 33 cm c) 55 cm d) 80 cm
72. A wire of resistance 1 O is stretched to double its length. The resistance will
become
a) b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
73. A constant pd is applied across the ends of a wire. Which one of the following
operation will reduce the rate of heat generation to half?
a) both length and diameter are halved
b) both and diameter are doubled
c) diameter is doubled and length is halved
d) diameter is halved and length is doubled
74. Two parallel conductors A and B of equal lengths carry current I and 10 I
respectively in the same direction, then
a) A and B will repel each other with same force
b) A and B will attract other will same force
c) A will attract B, but B will repel A
d) A and B will attract
75. The potential difference V and current I flowing through an instrument in an
AC circuit are given by V = 5cos et V & I = 2 sin et A. the power dissipated in
the instrument is:
a) zero b) 10 W c) 5 W d) 215 W
76. A bar magnet is cut into two equal halves by a plane parallel to the magnetic
axis of the following physical quantities, the one which remains unchanged is:
a) pole strength b) magnetic moment
c) intensity of magnetization d) moment of inertia
77. In photo electric effect the photocurrent:
a) increases with increases of frequency of incident photo
b) decreases with increases of frequency of incident photo
c) decrease with increases of intensity of incident light
d) increase with increase of intensity of incident light
78. A proton when accelerated through a pd of V volts has wavelength associated
with it. An o-particle in order to have the same wavelength must be
accelerated through a potential difference (in V) of:
a) V b) 2V c) 4V d) V/8
79. For a transistor the value of | is 100, the value of o is:
a) 0.01 b) 0.1 c) 0.99 d) 1
80. A rectifier is a device which converts:
a) ac into dc b) dc into ac
c) high voltage to low voltage d) none
81. The equation of state for real gas is |
.
|

\
|
+
2
V
a
P (V-b) = RT. The dimensions of a
are:
a) ML
5
T
-2
b) ML
3
T
-1
c) M
0
L
6
T
0
d) ML
7
T
-2

82. A car covers 1/3 part of total distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and second 1/3
part with a speed of 30 km/hr and the last 1/3 part with a speed of 60 km/hr. the
average speed of the car is:
a) 30 km/hr b) 37 km/hr c) 45 km/hr d) 55 km/hr
83. A ball of mass 1kg moving with a velocity 3 m/s X-axis collides with another ball
of mass 4 kg moving with a velocity 1 m/s along Y-axis. If the collision be
inelastic and tow balls coalesce, find the resulting velocity of the balls.
a) 1 m/s b) 2 m/s c) 3 m/s d) 5 m/s
84. The force of gravitational attraction on a body is:
a) minimum at equator
b) minimum at the poles
c) minimum midway between poles an equator
d) same at all points on earths surface
85. For a seconds pendulum, the numerical value of the ratio of maximum velocity
to maximum acceleration is:
a) 1 b) less than 1
c) more than 1 d) may be less or more or equal
86. If the radius of earth contracts to half of its present value, the length of the day
will be:
a) 6 hr b) 12 hr c) 24 hr d) 48 hr
87. If the temperature of the sun is doubled, the rate of energy received on earth will
be increased by a factor of:
a) E b) 4E c) 8E d) 16 E
88. What must be the minimum distance of reflecting boundary from the source of
sound to hear the distinct echo? (speed of sound = 330 m/s)
a) 8.25 m b) 16.5 m c) 31 m d) 62 m
89. A tuning fork of frequency 90 Hz is sounded and moved towards an observer
with a velocity 1/10 the velocity of sound. The note heard by observer will be of
frequency.
a) 100 Hz b) 99 Hz c) 80 Hz d) 90 Hz
90. To a bird an air, a fish in water appears to be at 30 cm from the surface. If
a

w
=
4/3 then true depth of the fish is:
5 6







Model Entrance Exam
for
Ministry of Education
(MOE)
Date: 2067-03-12 (Saturday) Time: 7 : 00 am
Venue: Orbit MBBS Building Duration: 2 hours

Instructions:
a) 30 cm b) 45 cm c) 40 cm d) none of above
91. If refracting index of material of prism with angle A is = cot A/2, then angle of
minimum deviation will be:
a) 180 - A b) 180 - 2A c) 180 - 3A d) 180 - 4A
92. The fringe width in a youngs double slit experiment can be increased if we
decrease:
a) width of slits b) separation of slits
c) wavelength of light d) distance between slit and screen
93. What is the temperature when centigrade thermometer reading coincides with
that of Fahrenheit?
a) -40C b) 313C c) 0C d) 100C
94. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of 10 m/s in air. If it is allowed to fall
in vacuum:
a) terminal velocity will be more than 10 m/s
b) terminal velocity will be less than 10 m/s
c) terminal velocity will be 10 m/s
d) there will be no terminal velocity
95. The size of nucleus is:
a) 10
-15
m b) 10
-10
m c) 10
-6
m d) 10
-2
m
96. The latent heat of vaporization of water is 2240 J. If the work done in the
process of vaporization of 1 g is 168 J, then increase in internal energy is:
a) 2408 J b) 2240 J c) 2072 J d) 1904 J
97. A proton enters a magnetic field with a velocity of 2.5 10
7
m/s making angle
30 with the magnetic field. What is the force on the proton? Given that B = 2.5
T.
a) 1.25 10
-12
N b) 2.5 10
-12
N c) 5.0 10
-12
N

d) 7.5 10
-12
N
98. In open organ pipe, first overtone produced is of such a frequency that length of
the pipe is equal to:
a) /4 b) /2 c) /3 d)
99. The length of the tube of a microscope is 10 cm. The focal lengths of the
objective and eye lenses are 0.5 cm and 1.0 cm. The magnifying power of the
microscope is about:
a) 5 b) 23 c) 166 d) 500
100. The electrical conductivity of p-type semiconductor is determined by the number
of:
a) free electrons in the conduction band b) electrons in the valence band
c) holes d) impurity atoms alone



***Best of Luck***
7
There are 100 multiple choice questions, each having
four choices of which only one choice is correct. 0.25
marks will be deducted form obtained marks in each
mistake.
Cross () the most probable one.