PHYSICS

1. Dimensions of gravitational constant are (a) ML2T 2 (c) M 0 L3T 2 (b) M 1 L3T 2 (d) M 1 L3T 2

2.

If two numerically equal forces P and P acting at a point produce a resultant force of magnitude P itself, then the angle between the two original forces is (a) 0 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 120 The displacement of a particle is represented by the following equation s 3t 3 7t 2 5t 8 , where s is in metre and t in second. The acceleration of the particle at t = 1s is (a) 14 m/s2 (b) 18 m/s2 2 (c) 32 m/s (d) zero

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A projectile is projected with initial velocity (6i 8 ) m/sec. If g 10ms 2 , then horizontal j range is (a) 4.8 metre (b) 9.6 metre (c) 19.2 metre (d) 14.0 metre
A balloon of mass M is descending at a constant acceleration . When a mass m is released from the balloon it starts rising with the same acceleration a. Assuming that its volume does not change, what is the value of m? 2 (a) (b) M M g g g g (c) (d) M M 2 A block of mass M is placed on a rough inclined plane having angle of inclination 45. The coefficient of friction is 0.5. What is the acceleration of the block down the inclined plane? Acceleration due to gravity is g (a) 0.20 g (b) 0.25 g (c) 0.30 g (d) 0.35 g A body contained to move in y-direction is subjected to a force given by F ( i 15 6k ) N . The work done by this force in moving the body a distance of 10m j along the y-axis is (a) 20 J (b) 150 J (c) 160 J (d) 190 J Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 5 kg are dropped gently from the top of a tower. At a point 20 cm from the ground both the bodies will have the same (a) momentum (b) kinetic energy (c) velocity (d) total energy

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A 50 kg mass is traveling at a speed of 2m/s. Another 60 kg mass is traveling at a speed of 12 m/s in the same direction, strikes the first mass. After the collision the 50 kg mass is traveling with a speed of 4m/s. The coefficient of restitution of the collision is 19 30 20 11 (a) (b) (c) (d) 11 20 30 19

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Two particles of equal masses have velocities v1 2i m/s and v2 2 m/s. The first particle j m has an acceleration a1 (3i 3 ) 2 while the acceleration of the other particle is zero. The j s centre of mass of the two particles moves in a (a) circle (b) parabola (c) straight line (d) ellipse
Three identical particles are fixed to the corners of an isosceles right-angled triangle by means of massless connecting rods. Each of the two sides has a length d, the moment of inertia of this rigid object when the axis of rotation coincides with the hypotenuse of the triangle is 1 1 3 (a) (b) (c) md 2 (d) md 2 md 2 md 2 2 4 4 Two bodies with moment of inertia I1 and I 2 ( I1 I 2 ) have equal angular momentum. If the KE of rotation is E1 and E 2 then (a) E1 E2 (b) E1 E2 (c) E1 E2 (d) none of these The speed of a homogeneous solid sphere after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h, from rest, without sliding is gh (a) (b) (6 / 5) gh (c)
(4 / 3) gh

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(d)

(10 / 7) gh

14.

What should be the minimum coefficient of static friction between the plane and the cylinder, for the cylinder not to slip on an inclined plane? 1 1 (a) (b) sin tan 3 3 2 2 (c) (d) sin tan 3 3 The kinetic energy of a satellite in its orbit around the earth is E. What should be the kinetic energy of the satellite so as to enable it to escape from the gravitational pull of the earth? (a) 4E (b) 2E (c) (d) E 2E

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The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. What is the period of another satellite in a circular orbit of radius 4R? T T (a) 4T (b) (c) (d) 8T 8 4

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3 th of the escape velocity from the surface of 4 the earth. The height it reaches is (Radius of the earth = R) 10R 9R 9R 10R (a) (b) (c) (d) 7 8 9 3
A body is projected up with a velocity equal to A block of mass 100 kg is lying on the surface of a trolley. The coefficient of friction between the surface and the block is 0.7. If the truck accelerates at 6 m s 2, the force of friction will be (a) 420 N (b) 600 N (c) 700 N (d) none of these The increase in energy of a bar of brass 0.1 m long and of cross-sectional area 1 cm2 when elongated with a load of 10 kg-wt along its length will be [Y for brass = 1011 N/m2 and g = 10 n/s2] (a) 5 10 5 J (b) 2.5 10 5 J (c) 52 10 5 J (d) 25 10 5 J A number of small drops of mercury coalesce to form a single drop. The temperature of the drop will (a) increase (b) remain same (c) decrease (d) depend on size A spherical soap bubble of radius 1 cm is formed inside another of radius 3 cm. The radius of a single soap bubble which maintains the same pressure difference as inside the smaller and outside the larger soap bubble is (a) 0.75 cm (b) 0.75 m (c) 7.5 cm (d) 7.5 m A body of uniform cross-sectional area floats in a liquid of density thrice its value. The portion of exposed height will be (a) 2/3 (b) 5/6 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/3 A water barrel stands on a table of height h. If a small hole is punched in the side of the barrel at its base, it is found that the resultant stream of water strikes the ground at a horizontal distance R from the table. What is the depth of water in the barrel? R2 R2 (a) (b) h 2h 2 R 4R 2 (c) (d) h 4h

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The average energy for molecules in one degree of freedom. 3 kT 3 (a) (b) (c) kT kT 2 2 4

(d) kT

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A circular hole is made in a steel square plate. The plate is now heated and allowed to expand. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Radius of the hole starts to decrease (b) Radius to the hole starts to increase (c) Radius of the hole will remain constant (d) Nothing can be said about change in radius of the hole because ratio of initial radius of hole to initial dimension of the plate is not known How many gm of ice at 14C are needed to cool 200 gm of water from 25C to 10C? (a) 21 gm (b) 31 gm (c) 41 gm (d) 51 gm According to Newtons law of cooling the rate of cooling of a body is proportional to the (a) fourth power of the temperature of the body (b) temperature of the surrounding (c) temperature of the body (d) difference of the temperature of the body and the surroundings When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure the fraction of the heat energy supplied which increases the internal energy of the gas is 2 3 3 5 (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 5 7 7 What will be the displacement of a particle from the mean position in SHM when its velocity is half the maximum velocity : (A = amplitude) 3 3 3 A (a) (b) (c) (d) A 2A A 2 4 2 A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and Q are at a distance of 9 m and 25 m respectively from the source. The ratio of the amplitude of waves at P and Q is 3 5 9 25 (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 3 25 9 The fundamental frequency of a string stretched with a weight of 4 kg is 256 Hz. The weight required to produce its octave is (a) 24 kg wt (b) 16 kg wt (c) 12 kg wt (d) 4 kg wt A source is approaching a stationary observer with velocity (1/10) th that of sound. Ratio of observed and real frequencies will be

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9 11 10 10 (b) (c) (d) 10 10 11 9 A ray of light strikes a transparent surface from air at an angle . If the angle between the reflected and refracted ray is a right angle, the refractive index of the other surface is given by 1 tan 2 (a) (b) (c) (d) sin tan tan
(a) A compound microscope has magnifying power as 32 and magnifying power of eye-piece is 4; then the magnifying power of the objective is (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 12 The first diffraction minimum due to a single slit diffraction is at = 30 for a light of wavelength 5000. The width of the slit is : (a) 5 10 5 cm (b) 1.0 10 4 cm (c) 2.5 10 5 cm (d) 1.25 10 4 cm The electric field near the conducting surface having a uniform charge density is / 0 and parallel to surface (a) (b) 2 / 0 and parallel to surface / 0 and perpendicular to surface (c) (d) 2 / 0 and perpendicular to surface The radii of two spheres are a and b respectively. They are at equal electric potential. The ratio of their surface density of charge is : a2 b2 b a (a) 2 (b) (c) (d) 2 a b b a Four equal capacitors, each of capacity C, are arranged as shown A B The effective capacitance between A and B is 5 3 (a) (b) C C 8 5 5 (c) (d) C C 3 In the circuit shown below, the reading of the voltmeter V is (a) 12V (b) 8V (c) 20V (d) 16V
4 2 amp 16 V + 16

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If one junction of thermocouple is kept at 0C, and its e.m.f. is given by e = at + bt2, then the neutral temperature will be : (a) a/b (b) a/b (c) a/2b (d) a/2b A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels on a circular path of radius r that is perpendicular to a magnetic field B. The time taken by the particle to complete one revolution is

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2 m 2 qB 2 mq mq (b) (c) (d) B 2 B qB m A material produces a magnetic field which helps the applied magnetic field; then it is (a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic (c) electromagnetic (d) none of these
(a) An infinitely long cylindrical conducting wire is kept parallel to uniform magnetic field along positive z-axis. The current induced on the surface of conducting wire is (a) along the direction of magnetic field (b) zero (c) circulated in anticlockwise direction when viewed from z-axis (d) circulated in clockwise direction when viewed from z-axis In series LCR circuit, the voltages across R, L and C are VR, VL and VC respectively, then the voltage of the source is always (a) VR VL VC (c) VR VC VL (b)
(VR ) 2 (VL VC ) 2
1/ 2

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(d) (VR VL ) 2 VC2

45.

An alternating voltage is given by e of voltage is given by (a) (c)

2 e12 e2

e1 sin t e2 cos t . Then the root mean square value

(b) (d)

e1

e2

e1e2 2

2 e12 e2 2

46.

A photon of energy 4eV is incident on a metal surface whose work function is 2eV. The minimum reverse potential to be applied for stopping the emission of electrons is (a) 2 V (b) 4 V (c) 6 V (d) 8 V The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a proton. The energy of the photon is E. Let 1 be the de Broglie wavelength of the proton and 2 be the wavelength of the photon. The ratio 1 / 2 is proportional to (a) E 0 (b) E 1/ 2 (c) E 1 (d) E 2 Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy, i.e., E A E B EC . If 1 , 2 , 3 are the wavelengths of radiation corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the following relations is correct? (a) (c)
3 1 2

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(b)
0

1 3 1 2 1

2 2 2 2

(d)

2 3

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Solid targets of different elements are bombarded by highly energetic electron beams. The frequency (f) of the characteristic X-rays emitted from different targets varies with atomic number Z as (a) f (b) f Z 2 (c) f Z (d) f Z 3 / 2 Z The radioactivity of a sample is R1 at a time T1 and R2 at a time T2. If the half-life of the specimen is T, the number of atoms that have disintegrated in the time (T2 T1) is proportional to (a) R1T1 R2T2 (b) R1 R2 R1 R2 (c) (d) R1 R2 T T

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CHEMISTRY
Atomic numbers: Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30 Universal gas constant, R = 0.0821 L atm mol 1 K 1 = 8.314 J mol 1 K 1 1 Faraday = 96500 C 51. Like H2O and ROH, ethers are basic by virtue of the presence of (a) unshared pair of electrons on oxygen. (b) two alkyl groups in ether molecule. (c) divalent oxygen atom in the molecule. (d) all the above are correct. 52. N Bromoacetamide on heating with KOH gives: (a) 1 amine (b) 2 amine (c) 3 amine (d) quaternary ammonium salt 53. Number of ions of solute present in a solution containing 1 mole of Na 2SO4 is (a) 6.02 1023 (b) 2 6.02 1023 23 (c) 3 6.02 10 (d) 3.01 1023 0.16 g of methane burns in a bomb calorimeter with excess of oxygen. The heat capacity of the calorimeter is 958 J/K. What is the standard enthalpy of combustion of methane if the increase in temperature of the calorimeter is 1.5 K? (a) 14.37 J/mol (b) ( 14.37 2RT) J/mol (c) ( 14.37 2RT) J/mol (d) (14.37 2RT) J/mol If 0.1 M NH4Cl is 1% hydrolysed, then percentage hydrolysis of 0.1 M NH 4I is (a) > 1% (b) < 1% (c) 1% (d) depends on Ka The rate of a chemical reaction generally increases rapidly even for small temperature increase because of rapid increase in the: (a) collision frequency. (b) fraction of molecules with energies in excess of the activation energy. (c) activation energy. (d) average kinetic energy of molecules. Which of the following substance gives a positively charged sol? (a) Gold (b) Arsenious sulphide (c) Starch (d) Ferric hydroxide
N NBF4
+

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In the above process product A is (a) Fluorobenzene (c) 1,4-difluorobenzene

(b) Benzene (d) 1,3-difluorobenzene

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CH 3 CHO

SeO 2 Oxidation

X . The product X of the reaction is:

(b) OHCCHO (d) (CH3)2CO

(a) CO2 + H2O (c) (COOH)2 60.

Certain primary amino compound on treatment with [X] gave alkyl chloride, N 2 and H2O. [X] can be (a) CS2 (b) COCl2 (c) NOCl (d) HNO2 The lowering of vapour pressure of 0.1 M aqueous solution of urea, KCl, Ba(NO 3)2 and Na3PO4 will be in the ratio (a) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (d) 1 : 2 : 3 : 2 Amongst the following hydroxides, the one which has the lowest value of K sp at ordinary temperatures (about 25C) is (a) Mg(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) Ba(OH)2 (d) Be(OH)2 The electrode potential E of a 0.1 M solution of M + ions (E = 2.36 V) is (a) 0.059 V (b) 2.301 V (c) 1 V (d) 2.36 V A radio isotope has a half life of 10 days. If today there is 125 g of it left, what was its weight 40 days earlier? (a) 600 g (b) 1000 g (c) 1250 g (d) 2000 g What kind of ions have in general, the strongest interactions with water molecules in aqueous solution? (a) ions with higher charge and larger diameter. (b) ions with lower charge and smaller diameter. (c) ions with higher charge and smaller diameter. (d) ions with lower charge and large diameter. The basic metal impurities in mercury are removed by passing through (a) dil. HNO3 (b) conc. HNO3 (c) conc. H2SO4 (d) conc. HCl The correct order of basic strength among the following compounds is (a) Li2O < Na2O < K2O < Rb2O (b) Rb2O > Na2O = K2O > Li2O (c) Li2O > Na2O > K2O > Rb2O (d) Na2O > Li2O > K2O > Rb2O Which of the following is non ionisable? (a) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (c) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

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Identify the wrong statement. (a) butanone 2 and butanal are functional isomers. (b) 2 chloropentane and 1 chloro pentane are position isomers. (c) n butane and 2 methyl propane are chain isomers. (d) 1 propene exhibits geometrical isomerism.
CH 2 CH CH 3 | Cl will give the major product as:

70.

Dehydrohalogenation of
C CC H HH 3

C CC H HH 2 2

(a)
C H C2 H C2 H

(b)
C2 H C2 H C2 H

(c) 71.

(d)

Me 2 C

CMe 2
O

O3

H 2O / H

B.

Product (B) is: (a) Me C CMe2 2 (c) MeCH CHMe 72. (b) Me3 CCOMe (d) Me 2 C O

An alkene, C6H12 on ozonolysis gives acetone and propanal. It has the structure CH3 CHCH 2 CH 3 (a) CH3CH=CH CH (b) CH 3CH 2 CH CH3 CH3 H3C C=CHCH2CH3 (c) (d) CH2=CH CH2 CH H3C CH3 Which of the following is used in rocket propellants? (a) H2(l) (b) O2(l) (c) N2H4(l) (d) All H and E for the reaction, Fe2O3(s) + 3H2(g) 2Fe(s)+ 3H2O(l) at constant temperature are related as (a) H = E (b) H = E + RT (c) H = E + 3RT (d) H = E 3RT The constituents of water gas are (a) water vapours (c) CO and H2

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(b) CO2 and H2 (d) CO and H2O(g)

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The solubility of carbonates decreases down the magnesium group due to a decrease in the (a) lattice energies of solids. (b) hydration energies of cations. (c) inter ionic attraction. (d) entropy of solution formation.

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Which of the following is the strongest acid? (a) H2Te (b) H2Se (c) H2S (d) H2O Methyl isopropyl ether can exhibit (a) metamerism (c) both (a) and (b) (b) functional isomerism (d) none

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The volume of water to be added to 200 ml of seminormal HCl solution to make it decinormal is (a) 400 ml (b) 600 ml (c) 800 ml (d) 1000 ml If the half cell reaction : A + e (a) A is readily oxidised (c) A is readily reduced A has a large negative potential, it follows that (b) A is readily reduced (d) A is readily oxidised

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Acetamide is treated with the following reagents. Which one of these would give methylamine? (a) PCl5 (b) NaOH + Br2 (c) Soda lime (d) Hot conc. H2SO4 In a closed packed array of N spheres, the octahedral holes are N (a) (b) 2N 2 (c) 4N (d) N

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The helical structure of protein is stabilised by (a) H-bonding (b) Vander waals forces (c) Ionic bond (d) Covalent bonding Which has maximum polarising power in cation? (a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ (c) Al3+ (d) O2 Boyles law is applicable in (a) Isobaric process (c) Isothermal process In the following reaction, H 2 O 2 Ag 2 O 2Ag H 2 O O 2 the species acting as oxidising agent is (a) H2O2 (c) H2O

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(b) Isochoric process (d) Adiabatic process

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(b) Ag2O (d) Ag

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Which is deliquescent? (a) MgCl2 (c) CaCl2

(b) NaOH (d) All

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Froth floatation process is used for the concentration of the ores of (a) Fe (b) Al (c) Cr (d) Cu [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2 have similarity in (a) Hybridisation of Ni atom / ion (b) Magnetic moment (c) Shape (d) None of these Which of the following orbitals does not make sense? (a) 3d (b) 3f (c) 5p (d) 7s A 0.6% solution of urea (molecular weight = 60) would be isotonic with (a) 0.1 M glucose (b) 0.1 M KCl (c) 0.6% glucose solution (d) 0.6% KCl solution Which of the following is not a redox reaction? (a) CaCO3 CaO + CO2 (c) Na + H2O NaOH + H2 (b) O2 + 2H2 (d) MnCl3 2H2O MnCl2 + H2

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In the formation of sulphur trioxide by contact process, 2SO 2 + O2 2SO3, the rate of reaction was measured as d[O 2 ] = 2.5 10 4 mol L 1 s 1 dt The rate of reaction expressed in terms of SO3 will be (a) 5.0 10 4 mol L 1 s 1 (b) 1.25 10 4 mol L 1 s 1 4 1 1 (c) 2.5 10 mol L s (d) 5.00 10 4 mol L 1 s 1 How many different octahedral complexes (excluding optical isomers) of Co 3+ are possible using only ethylenediamine and/or Cl ion as ligands? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2 Solvay process is used for the manufacture of (a) Na2CO3.10H2O (c) NaOH

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(b) K2CO3 (d) Na2O2

96.

Sodium is not ordinarily observed in the +2 oxidation state because of its (a) high first ionization potential. (b) high second ionization potential. (c) high ionic radius. (d) high electronegativity. Transition elements belong to (a) s block elements (b) p block elements

97.

(c) d block elements 98.

(d) f block elements

How many isomers are possible for the alkyl group C4H9 ? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 Which hydrocarbon is formed when aluminium carbide (Al4C3) or beryllium carbide (Be2C) is reacted with water or dil. HCl? (a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Acetylene (d) Ethylene

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100. Which of the following is correct for the synthesis of methyl t butyl ether? (a) (CH3)3CBr + NaOCH3. (b) (CH3)3CONa + CH3Br (c) both (a) and (b). (d) none of the above.