1. The engine cowling only allows opening if (A, B1) A.

Wind velocity less than 40 knots (74 km/h) B. Wind velocity less than 30 knots (55.5 km/h) C. Wind velocity more than 40 knots (74 km/h) 3. Maximum speed allows towing helicopter (A, B1) A. 5 Km/h B. 10 Km/h C. 15 Km/h D. Less than 20 Km/h 4. Which light below will come on when GPU light illuminates on 10 WW (A, B1) A. CAUT B. WARN C. CAUT light and one of the lights which monitoring doors and cowling come on D. All above are incorrect 6. Identification (P/N) of an aircraft part can be found in : (A, B1) A. MMA B. ICO C. PRE D. IPC 7. Inspection intervals and schedules can be found in : (A, B1) A. MMA B. ICO C. PRE D. IPC 8. Maintenance operation description part can be found in : (A, B1) A. MMA B. ICO C. PRE D. IPC 20. On ground, aircraft supplied from battery only, auxiliary hydraulic pump switched on (A, B1) A. The autopilot hydraulic unit is hydraulically supplied B. The autopilot hydraulic unit is not hydraulically supplied C. The autopilot hydraulic unit is supplied through the ancillary accumulator 21. The main alternators are driven by : (A, B1) A. Engines B. Main gear box C. Hydraulic power 24. DC power sources on EC-225 : (A, B1) A. Two TRUs B. A 28 VDC battery C. A hydraulically driven generator assembly D. All A, B, C are correct 25. The TRU 1 supplies : (A, B1) A. Secondary bus PP 3

B. Essential bus PP 2 C. Direct battery bus 26. The battery is coupled to: (A, B1) A. Secondary bus PP3 B. Essential bus PP2 (Primary bus) C. PP2 or PP3 depending on pilot selection 27. In normal operation the bus - tie contactor, coupling PP2 and PP3 is : (A, B1) A. Closed B. Open C. Depending on pilot selection 29. Emergency cutoff gang bar cuts off : (A, B1) A. Alternator 1 and 2 B. AC and DC GPUs (if exist) C. Direct battery bus D. Both A and B are correct 30. Red "BAT.T" light on the central warning panel indicates : (A, B1) A. Battery housing temperature is more than 70o C B. Temperature difference between battery housing and cells is more than 10o C C. Both A and B are correct 32. Illumination of red DC light on central warning panel indicates : (A, B1) A. Loss of one or two TRUs B. Loss of both TRUs C. Loss of both TRUs and main battery 34. In flight : CAUT; ELEC; BUS 2; TRU 2. These indicate : (A, B1) A. TRU 2 fails B. Alternator 2 fails C. Short circuit on BUS 2 35. In flight : CAUT ; ELEC; ALT 1; Green transfer lights come on. These indicate : (A, B1) A. Alternator 1 fails B. Short circuit on BUS 1 C. Short circuit on BUS 2 37. The illumination of a "FIRE DET" light on central warning panel may indicate that : (A, B1) A. Detection line break B. Loss of system power supply C. Both A and B are correct 40. Number of engine fire extinguishers : (A, B1) A. 2 for 2 engines B. 2 for each engine C. 1 for 2 engines 41. Amber lights on "1st SHOT" and "2nd SHOT" pushbuttons indicate : (A, B1) A. Fire extinguisher system fails B. The bottles are discharged C. Loss of Fire extinguisher system power supply 44. "SMOKE" and "C. FIRE" lights come on. What can be happened ? (A, B1) A. There is a fire in the cabin

B. There is a fire on the transmission deck C. There is a fire in the baggage hold compartment 45. It is possible to read the fuel content of (A, B1) A. Each fuel tank B. Only the feeder tanks C. Each group of tanks, feeder tanks and the external tanks according to your optional 46. With the booster pumps ON, if one booster pump failure causes (A, B1) A. Illumination of CAUT lights on central warning panel B. A slight drop of pressure on the pressure indicator C. Illumination of lights on instrument panel, fuel management panel 47. Fuel filter pre-clogging is indicated by lights (A, B1) A. On central warning panel only B. On fuel management panel, central warning panel and instrument panel C. On central warning panel, fuel management and pressure gauge 50. The number of basic fuel tanks : (A, B1) A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 51. The booster pumps are located in : (A, B1) A. Transverse tanks B. Longitudinal tanks C. Both feeder and transverse tanks 52. Total number of booster pumps : (A, B1) A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 56. The purpose of the auxiliary pump is (A, B1) A. Hydraulic supply of the AP and the wheel brake B. Ground assistance, assistance following a main pump failure, landing gear operation assistant C. On ground, supply of the auto pilot and rotor brake control 59. Number of hydraulic pumps used in the LH system ? (A, B1) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 61. Which lights below make "HYD" light illuminate on the central warning panel ? (A, B1) A. AUX.P; M.P B. LVL C. RH.P D. Any lights of the above 62. In flight, CAUT; HYD; RH.LVL lights come on. These may indicate:(A, B1) A. RH hydraulic system fluid level drops below 2 liters B. RH hydraulic system fluid level drops below 4 liters C. RH hydraulic system pressure drop below 70 bars

63. The illumination of the "LH.LVL" or RH.LVL light on VMS may indicate that : (A, B1) A. The fluid level in the relevant hydraulic system drops B. Plug for corresponding level probe is disconnected C. Plug for corresponding isolating solenoid valve is disconnected D. All A, B, C are correct 66. In flight, CAUT; HYD; MH.P; LH.LVL; AUX.P; AP.P; come on ; LH system pressure indicator points 0. Consequences : (A, B1) A. Loss of one cylinder of main and tail servocontrols B. Loss of AP hydraulic system C. Loss of normal landing gear extension D. All A, B, C are correct 67. Pilots and Copilots windscreen panel heating system is : (A, B1) A. Automatically controlled B. Manually controlled C. Optional system D. Both A and C are correct 68. Windscreen panel heating system is energized : (A, B1) A. Temperature < 0o C B. Temperature < 30o C C. Temperature < 5o C D. Temperature < 25o C 69. FAIL; WSCRN ; CAUT lights illuminate indicating that : (A, B1) A. Temperature low but heating system is off B. Temperature low but heating system fails C. Fault in the logic circuit D. Both A and B are correct 74. The characteristics of the nose landing gear system : A. Two wheels with tyres and tubes B. Hydraulically controlled brake C. Both A and B are incorrect 75. The characteristics of the main landing gear system : (A, B1) A. Hydraulically controlled brake B. Oscillating leg (trailing arm installation) C. Strut comprising an oleopneumatic shock absorber and a hydraulic retraction actuator D. All A, B and C are correct 77. On completion of retraction cycle of the main landing gear ? (A, B1) A. The actuator is retracted and the shock absorber is compressed B. The actuator is extended C. The shock absorber is extended 78. On completion of extension cycle of the main landing gear ? (A, B1) A. The actuator is retracted B. The shock absorber is compressed C. The actuator is extended and the shock absorber is extended

79. Flashing of red L/G light on instrument panel (without aural warning) indicates : (A, B1) A. Landing gear not extended whilst IAS < 60 Kts B. Landing gear not extended whilst radio altitude < 300 ft C. Landing gear not extended whilst IAS < 60 Kts and radio altitude < 300 ft D. Landing gear not extended whilst IAS < 60 Kts or radio altitude < 300 ft 81. Illumination of amber GRD/FLT on central warning panel indicates : (A, B1) A. Landing gear is being retracted or extended B. A Flight / Ground logic defect C. The landing gear can retract normally C. Both B and C are true 82. Parking braking pressure : (A, B1) A. Maximum 60 bar B. Is the same as LH hydraulic system pressure C. Is the same as ancillary accumulator pressure 96. On ground with rotors running, pitot control switches selected on: (A, B1) A. Pitot head heating resistors operate at half power B. Static port heating resistors operate at half power C. Pitot head and static port heating resistors operate at full power D. Both A and B are correct 98. In flight, CAUT (Instrument panel) ; PITOT (Central warning panel); LH FAIL (Subpanel) lights come on indicating that : (A, B1) A. Continuity fault in Copilot pitot head heating resistor B. Aircraft power failure (Battery power only) C. Continuity fault in Copilot static port head heating resistor 100. Pitot head heating resistors are supplied with : (A, B1) A. 28 VDC power B. 115 VAC power C. 200 VAC power 101. The maintenance mode is only accessible (A, B1) A. In flight only B. On ground only C. Either on ground or in flight 102. Maintenance using an external computer is (A, B1) A. authorrized on ground only B. Not authorrized in flight C. Authorrized either on ground or in flight 110. Correction of blade tracking is done (A, B1) A. On tabs No.8 and No.9 only B. On pitch change rods and tabs No.7 and No.8 C. On servo control input rod 112. On ground and in flight, the lower stop for the blades is : (A, B1) A. Coning stop B. A Fixed stop C. Droop restrainer ring 114. Balancing of the main rotor is obtained by adjusting : (A, B1) A. Pitch change rod length

B. Blade tab angle C. Weight in shot pack in blade sleeves D. Both a and b are correct 115. In the event of total loss of the electrical generating system, rotor RPM can be read by : (A, B1) A. Screens B. Impossible C. Compilot triple indicator D. Pilot triple indicator, which is still supplied power from emergency battery 118. The MGB consist of (A, B1) A. Three modules B. Four modules C. Five modules 119. Which component below is not driven by LH accessory gearbox ? (A, B1) A. Tail rotor drive shaft B. LH hydraulic pump C. LH alternator D. Oil cooler fan 120. Which statement below is incorrect? (A, B1) A. Freewheels enable the movement to be transmitted only in the engine - to - main rotor direction B. When both engines are operating, freewheels are engaged C. When one engine is shut down, the corresponding freewheel is disengaged D. In autorotation both freewheels are engaged 121. The fitting between MGB and structure is : (A, B1) A. Flexible B. Rigid C. No connection between MGB and structure 122. The rotor mast is attached to the structure by : (A, B1) A. A flexible mounting plate B. Three suspension bars C. MGB casing D. No attachment 123. The MGB main oil pump fails when oil level drops lower than ? (A, B1) A. 22 liters B. 16 liters C. 8 liters D. 4 liters 124. The stand by oil pump takes over automatically in the event of : (A, B1) A. Main pump mechanical failure B. Main system leakage which leads to a pressure drop C. Oil level drop lower 8 liters D. All A, B and C are correct 126. In flight, CAUT ; XMSN ; M.P lights come on indicating that : (A, B1)

A. Main system fails B. Oil-to-air heat exchanger is out of service C. Both a and b are correct 127. In flight, CAUT ; XMSN ; S/B.P lights come on indicating that : (A, B1) A. Main pump failure B. Stand - by pump mechanical failure C. Stand - by pump pressure drops below 2.6 bars D. Stand - by pump pressure is less than 1.0 bar 128. In flight, CAUT; XMSN; M.P and S/B.P lights illuminate indicating that : (A, B1) A. Main system fails and Stand - by pump pressure drops below 1.0 bar B. Main system fails and Stand - by pump pressure is less than 2.2 bars C. The MGB is no longer lubricated 129. Whenever the CHIP light appears on VMS, the pilot can use the chip destruction switch to destroy the chip, after this the CHIP light goes out : (A, B1) A. True B. False C. To depend on the origin of the failure D. To depend on what kind of metal chip 130. The dynamic braking used to : (A, B1) A. Stop the rotor rapidly after shutting down the engines B. Immobilize the rotor during parking and for starting in high winds C. Both a and b are correct 133. Starting is inhibited by an electronic system if : (A, B1) A. Static braking authorizing lever is in 150 bars position B. Light RB.ARM is on C. Braking lever is in the dynamic braking position D. Starting doesnt depend on which position of the braking lever 138. Overheating of the IGB is indicating by (A, B1) A. An amber warning light B. A temperature indicator C. A temperature indicator and an amber warning light 139. The intermediate bearing is lubricated by (A, B1) A. Oil B. Grease C. Life lubricating 140. Tail rotor blades made of ? (A, B1) A. Composite B. Light alloy C. Combined composite/ light alloy material 141. The function of the tail rotor hub assembly ? (A, B1) A. To control the movements of the aircraft round the roll axis B. To counter the reaction torque of the main rotor C. To control the movements of the aircraft round the yaw axis D. Both B and C are correct

142. Tail gear box oil temperature is monitored by : (A, B1) A. An oil temperature indicator in the cockpit B. TGB.T, XMSN, CAUT lights in the cockpit C. A red warning light on central warning panel 10 WW D. A and B are correct 145. Two first tail drive shafts are made of : (A, B1) A. Steel B. Composite C. Only light alloy D. Steel or light alloy 146. The function of the intermediate bearing is : (A, B1) A. The function of the intermediate bearing is B. To reinforce the rear horizontal drive shaft C. To take over cumulative longitudinal displacements of the rear horizontal transmission D. To align the rear horizontal transmission at a fixed point 147. IGB.T indication apppears on VMS if : (A, B1) A. Intermediate gear box oil temperature drops below - 450 C B. Intermediate gear box oil temperature is higher than 110 0 C C. Pilot or compilot sets the switch to the IGB/TGB temperature test position D. All above are correct 149. Flight control rigging (A, B1) A. Requires leveling of the helicopter B. Does not require leveling of the helicopter C. None of the above 154. The role of the mixing unit is : (A, B1) A. To change the control movements from fore- &- aft and lateral to the movements of three servo controls located 120o apart B. To enable the cyclic control and the collective control to operate the output linkage independently C. To compensate the main rotor reaction torque variations 157. In the event of a tail rotor control cable failure, (A, B1) A. The tail rotor blades will lost control B. The tail rotor blades automatically return to a preset incidence setting C. Both A and B are incorrect 158. The role of the 14 Hz rod : (A, B1) A. Is to dampen the MGB during taxiing to prevent 12Hz vibration B. Is to dampen the forward servocontrol during taxiing to prevent 12Hz vibration C. Is to eliminate spurious input signals during taxiing to the forward servo unit and prevent amplification of the vibrations 161. Role of the collective pitch governor or anticipator is : (A, B1) A. To prevent engines from overpower B. To eliminate the governor static droop C. To reduce engine response time on variation of collective pitch D. Both b and c are correct 168. NG indicator pointer reads zero. This means : (A, B1)

A. Engine NG equals 100% B. NG speeds of both engines coincide C. Engine NG corresponds to the maximum take off power computed D. Engine NG equals 0 180. Offsetting of the bleed valve is controlled (A, B1) A. Automatically B. Thanks to a switch located on collective levers C. Automatically or by manual thanks to a selector button located on subpanel (Strip) 260. The flag BLEED appears on the VMS in the cockpit indicating that A. The bleed valve is in open position B. The bleed valve is in closed position C. The bleed valve is in back-up position C. Any abnormal operation of the bleed valve 264. How to check torque meter system: o A. Turn torque sensor 180 to check actual torque. B. Turn torque sensor 180 to check simulated torque. C. Just calibrate torque PCB only. 265. Where can find information about torque calibration A. MMA. B. Engine logbook. C. MGB logcard. 266. Accumulator in RH system fulfils A. Limiting pressure fluctuations in the event of sudden flow variation. B. Allowing the pilot bring the helicopter to an altitude compatible with flight on single system (LH system) in case of failure of RH system. C. Assisting the LH system when heavy consumer in service. D. All of them are incorrect 267. Hydraulic pump provides: A. Constant pressure B. Varying flow rate C. Varying pressure. D. A, B are correct 268. When RH pressure below 110 bars A. RH.P message goes on B. A gong is generated (in certain condition (Po, To, MTOW.) C. Warning light goes on D. A, B are correct 269. When RH isolated valve is activated: A. LH one is not affected B. Closure of LH electro valve is inhibited. C. Tail servo is no longer controlled 270. There is no bypass valve on high pressure line: A. In order to prevent servos from jamming B. Hydraulic fluid is clean, so no need this one. C. Incorrect, this are bypass valve on pressure line.
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271. Hydraulic mechanical pump draws from A. Bottom of the LH reservoir B. Bottom of the RH reservoir C. 3 liters of LH reservoir 272. LH main pressure below 110 bars, Aux. P goes on: A. Electric pump failure B. Aux pump is operating correctly C. Electric pump controlling button in off position. D. A, C are correct 273. With main rotor stopping, Aux. P light goes out A. Aux pump controlling switch in off position B. Auxiliary pressure 140 bar C. Failure of Auxiliary pump 275. What happen when the flexible diaphragm of the coupling shaft is broken? A. There is no flexible diaphragm on coupling shaft. B. The remaining section will be free inside coupling tube C. The shaft remains centered on the two end sides by retaining ring 276. Standby lubrication system of MGB is cooled by: A. Oil to air heat exchanger B. Oil cooler type 1 & 2 C. There is no cooler for this system 276. Standby lubrication system is cooled: A. Automatically B. Manually C. No cooler for this system 277. How to recognize MGB lubricated or not: A. MGB.P message on VMS B. MGB.P light on 10WW C. Cannot recognize 278. Which statement hereinafter is correct: A. P 0,4 bars at the end of the diffuser, MGB is no longer lubricated. B. P 3,7 bars at pressure switch, the cooling function is lost. MGB can be lubricated at min nominal power rating. C. No one above is correct. D. A,B are correct 279. Where are Main & SB pressure switches located? A. Bottom of MGB B. Flare housing C. Nearby MGB filter 280. Emergency lubrication system is operated by

A. Pressure air P2.4 from LH engine B. Impeller pump driven by MGB C. Electric pump D. A, C are corrected