Honorary Board Members President Jimmy Carter The Honorable William H. Frist The Honorable Joseph I.

Lieberman Board of Trustees Mel Chaskin, Chairman Eduardo Aguirre Alfred R. Berkeley, III The Honorable Frank C. Carlucci, III Red Cavaney The Honorable Anne Collins

USA Biology Olympiad 2003 Open Exam Answer Key

Dr. Mary DeLong Joann P. DiGennaro, Esquire Betty Dranow David Fishman Edward F. Greissing Misty S. Gruber, Esquire H.E. Bahia El Hariri Albert Hoser Admiral B. R. Inman, USN (Ret.) Michael H. Jordan, William M. McCormick Admiral William A. Owens, USN (Ret) James C. Paul The Honorable Thomas R. Pickering Cynthia Pickett-Stevenson Diane Sawyer Harry J. Stern Sonny Tambe Fred Weinert Gayle Wilson William Winston

President Joann P. DiGennaro

Center for Excellence in Education, 140 Park Street SE, 2nd Floor Vienna, VA 22180-4627 Phone: (703) 938-9062, Fax: (703) 938-9121, Web: www.cee.org

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Instructions: Please mark the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) by marking the box next to the letter with a checkmark or an X. Sample Question: What insect transmits dog heartworm? [ ] A. Dung beetles [ ] B. flies [ ] C. fleas [X] D. mosquitoes

Note: Each answer has a reference to the subject area, as well as reference to the answer as described in Biology, 5th Edition, by Campbell, Reece & Mitchell.
1. What enzyme does HIV use to convert RNA to DNA? [ ] A. DNA gyrase [ ] B. RNA polymerase [ ] C. Reverse transcriptase [ ] D. DNA helicase

Answer: C (cell biology, pp. 326-7) Explanation: DNA gyrase is a type II topoisomerase bound at the 3 end of the replication 5 advancing

replication fork that untangles (reduces the superhelicity) DNA in front of the fork as the helicase unwinds the dsDNA. RNA polymerase creates RNA, not cDNA (as with HIV). DNA helicase is used to unwind DNA in replication.

2.

The promoter region of a prokaryotic gene is located ______ to the gene and is the binding site for ______. [ ] A. 3'...DNA polymerase [ ] B. 3'...RNA polymerase [ ] C. 5'...DNA polymerase [ ] D. 5'...RNA polymerase

involved. The promoter region is the DNA sequence to which RNA polymerase subunits (in bacteria, the sigma-70 subunit) bind. Formally, the active sites of the RNA polymerase enzyme are therefore localized to the start site of transcription.
3. Which of the following is TRUE of prokaryotes? I. Simultaneous transcription and translation II. Presence of intron sequences III. Circular DNA [ [ [ [ ] A. ] B. ] C. ] D. I and II only I and III only II and III only I, II, and III

Answer: D (cell biology, pp. 300-1) Explanation: Gene transcription involves creation of mRNA from DNA; therefore, an RNA polymerase is

Answer: B (cell biology, pp. 286, 304-11)

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Prokaryotic DNA also does not have intronic sequences. The DNA of prokaryotes is in a circular chromosome (Statement III is true). I. Because the prokaryotic cell is not compartmentalized, transcription and translation occur simultaneously. Compartmentalization of the eukaryote requires separation of the two processes. Transcription occurs in the nucleus while translation takes place in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. II. Introns are only present in the genetic code of eukaryotes. They are sequences of DNA that are spliced from the mRNA before export of the molecules from the nucleus. III. Only prokaryotes contain prokaryotes contain circular DNA (both chromosomal and plasmid). Eukaryotes have DNA arranged in linear chromosomes.
4. Integral transmembrane proteins are proteins imbedded in the cell membrane. Which of the following amino acids would you MOST expect to find in the transmembrane region of such proteins? [ ] A. Lysine [ ] B. Serine [ ] C. Tryptophan [ ] D. Arginine

Explanation: In prokaryotes, transcription and translation occur in the same compartment (Statement I is true).

Answer: C (cell biology, pp. 69, 133) Explanation: Recall the phospholipid bilayer model of the cell membrane. The transmembrane region of the lipid

bilayer is non-polar (has long, saturated hydrocarbon chains). Therefore, lysine (charged), serine (polar), and arginine (charged) are less likely to be found within the bilayer. Tryptophan, however, is a large, flat, aromatic amino acid with extensive area for van der Waals (hydrophobic) interactions, and is more likely therefore to be found in the membrane.

5.

When the base composition of DNA from bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis was determined, 18% of the bases were found to be adenine. What is the G + C content in M. tuberculosis? [ ] A. 18% [ ] B. 32% [ ] C. 36% [ ] D. 64%

Answer: D (cell biology, pp. 278-83) Explanation: Recall Chargaffs rules, which specify that [A] = [T] and [G] = [C]. DNA is composed of two

backbones each made from phosphate and deoxyribose and each shaped like a helix. The two backbones are connected by bridges composed of the nucleotides adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine. One molecule each of phosphate, deoxyribose and a nucleotide is termed a base pair. Each adenine base pair of the prokaryotic chromosome is paired with a thymine base pair. Thus if the adenine content is 18%, so must be the thymine content must also be 18%. The remaining 64% of the DNA is composed of guanine (G) and cytosine (C) base pairs.
6. The frequency of individuals affected with an autosomally recessive inherited disorder is 1 in 4. Assuming that the population affected by this disease is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the proportion of carrier individuals in this population? [ ] A. 12.5% [ ] B. 25% [ ] C. 50% [ ] D. 100%

Answer: C Explanation: If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of both the recessive and

dominant allele with the given data is 0.50. (The disease frequency is 0.25; the disease is autosomal recessive, implying
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that individuals with disease carry both recessive alleles; hence, frequency of recessive allele = 0.50.) Since the carrier frequency is twice the product of the dominant and recessive allele frequencies, the carrier frequency is 50%.
7. The velocity of action potential conduction across a nerve axon is increased by the presence of the myelin sheath. In the peripheral nervous system, what cell myelinates the axon? [ ] A. Oligodendocyte [ ] B. Astrocyte [ ] C. Schwann cell [ ] D. Microglial cell

Answer: C (animal anatomy and physiology, pp. 961-2) Explanation: In the PNS, Schwann cells are responsible for myelination. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for

myelination in the CNS. Schwann cells act to insulate neurons of the peripheral nervous system whereas oligodendrocytes perform this function in the central nervous system. Astrocytes and microglia are supportive cells and macrophages, respectively, found in the CNS.
8. The cell bodies of afferent (sensory) nerves involved in somatic reflexes are located in the [ ] A. Dorsal root ganglion [ ] B. Ventral root ganglion [ ] C. Spinal nerve [ ] D. Grey matter of spinal cord

Answer: A (animal anatomy and physiology, pp. 963) Explanation: Sensory neurons arriving into the spinal cord (CNS) have their cell bodies in the dorsal root. The

somatic reflex occurs in response to stimulation of stretch receptors in the periphery. The signal is carried via afferent nerve roots whose cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia. Interneurons in the gray matter of the spinal cord are activated and these cell, in turn signal the efferent neurons whose cell bodies are located in the anterior horn (segment of gray matter) of the spinal cord. Anterior horn cells are also termed motor neurons and these cells stimulate muscle contraction expected in somatic reflexes.
9. Rods and cones are associated with _____ and _____ vision, respectively. [ ] A. Light/dark...color [ ] B. Color...light/dark [ ] C. Near...far [ ] D. Far...near

are mediated by action of the ciliary muscle and suspensory ligaments on the mammalian lens. Near and far vision are products of lens accommodation, changing of the lens shape (mediated by the ciliary body of the choroid layer of the eyeball). At the fovea centralis in the optic retina, there is a very high concentration of cones, responsible for high visual acuity and color perception. In focusing, maximal acuity is achieved when the incoming light rays converge on the fovea.
10. Populations that are likely to be living at a density near the limit imposed by their resources, are characterized as [ ] A. r-selected [ ] B. p-selected [ ] C. Q-selected [ ] D. K-selected

Answer: A (animal anatomy and physiology, pp.997-8) Explanation: The rods and cones are sensory cells which detect light and color, respectively. Near and far vision

Answer: D (ecology, pp. 1096-7)

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Explanation: K-selected populations are those whose high density favors selection based on efficient utilization of

scarce resources. r-selected populations are those that exist at low densities with selection favoring organisms with high rates of reproduction.

11.

In many types of cancer, the function of the p53 gene is lost. Wild-type p53 is MOST likely to be a [ ] A. proto-oncogene [ ] B. tumor suppressor [ ] C. positive regulator of cell cycle progression [ ] D. gene required for DNA replication

in many cases by induction of apoptosis in damaged cells. When mutated, one check-point is eliminated in prevention of tumors. Proto-oncogenes are cellular genes that, when mutated, predispose to malignant transformation. In light of the information in the question stem, it is most likely that p53 blocks cell cycle progression as a tumor suppressor gene. Proto-oncogenes, which include positive regulators of cell cycle progression and DNA replication, when overexpressed cause dysregulation of the cell cycle and uncontrolled replication. Together mutations in tumor suppressors and protooncogenes lead to cancer progression. In certain families with one allele of p53 congenitally knocked-out (the LiFraumeni syndrome), there is a very increased risk of different cancers. Also, p53 is mutated in about 50% of all human cancers.
12. What glycolytic product is shuttled to the mitochondria in aerobic respiration? [ ] A. Acetyl-CoA [ ] B. Fumarate [ ] C. Succinyl-CoA [ ] D. Pyruvate

Answer: B (cell biology, pp. 358-9) Explanation: p53 is a tumor suppressor gene. Wild-type tumor suppressor genes prevent uncontrolled cell growth,

Answer: D (cell biology, p. 156) Explanation: Pyruvate is the end product of glycolysis which is shuttled into the mitochondria. Once inside the
organelle, it is converted to acetyl-CoA which enters the Krebs cycle. Fumerate and succinyl-CoA are both intermediates in the Krebs cycle.

13.

During human development, which process leads to the formation of three germ layers? [ ] A. gastrulation [ ] B. neurelation [ ] C. morulation [ ] D. cephalization

Answer: A (animal anatomy and physiology, pp. 940-50) Explanation: Gastrulation in human development refers to invagination of the ectoderm at the primitive streak.

The invaginated cells form the mesoderm which is the third cell layer (with the endoderm and ectoderm). Neurulation occurs with invagination of ectodermal cells of the neural plate to form the neural tube. The morula is an early stage of development at which point the embryo is a solid ball of cells. Cephalization refers to concentration of sensory and neural tissues in the head of an organism.

14.

Telomerase is responsible for _____ the size of telomeres, and its function is often ____ in carcinogenesis. [ ] A. maintaining ... decreased

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Answer: B (cell biology, p. 291) Explanation: Telomerase is the RNA-dependent enzyme that appends repeating GGATCC sequences to the ends

of replicating chromosomes. In the absence of telomerase, repeating rounds of replication would lead to progressively shorter chromosomes. The result would be cell senescence due to dysfunctional chromosome structure. In cancer, increased cell divisions would require an increased expression of telomerase.
15. Which of the following is NOT a mode of natural selection? [ ] A. stabilizing selection [ ] B. sexual selection [ ] C. directional selection [ ] D. diversifying selection

Answer: B Explanation: Sexual selection is a supplementary theory to natural selection. It differs because it is used to explain
traits that may cause some decrease in survival, for example the infamous peacocks tail, which is compensated for by an increase in reproductive opportunities. Darwin used this theory to explain how traits could arise that were useless or even harmful to a species, devoting much of his book Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex to this problem. Sexual selection has expanded to cover any trait that is differentially selected for in males and females even when there is no decline in survival value (ie. sexual dimorphism in size).
16. Protostomes have _____ and _____ types of cleavage. [ ] A. spiral ... determinate [ ] B. spiral ... indeterminate [ ] C. radial ... determinate [ ] D. radial ... indeterminate

Answer: A (biosystematics, p. 593) Explanation: Spiral cleavage is defined as cleavage diagonal to the vertical axis of an embryo. Radial cleavage is

defined as cleavage parallel or perpindicular to the axis. Determinate cleavage relates to determination of cell fate at an early stage in embryonic development. Indeterminate stage does not accomplish this. Protostomes cleavage is spiral and determinate versus deuterostome cleavage which is radial and indeterminate.

17.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all chordates? [ ] A. notochord [ ] B. vertebrae [ ] C. pharyngeal slits [ ] D. postanal tail

Answer: B (biosystematics, p. 631) Explanation: Chordates are characterized by notochords, pharyngeal slits, postanal tails, and dorsal hollow nerve
cords. The presence of vertebrae separates the phylum chordata into vertebrates and invertebrates.
18. In cardiac muscle, calcium ions can move freely between adjacent cells through which of the following structures? [ ] A. tight junctions [ ] B. gap junctions [ ] C. calcium pumps [ ] D. plasmodesmata

Answer: B (animal anatomy and physiology, p. 126)

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Explanation: Gap junctions allow the free passage of ions between connected cells, and are the important structure
visible histologically in cardiac myocytes that allow syncytial action potential transmission. Gap junctions are found in the intercalated disks of cardiac myocytes. Ions flow through these polypeptides structures, carrying electric signals between adjacent cells. Tight junctions, however, are impermeable, and often found between epithelial cells of hose tissues with barrier functions. Calicum pumps are found within the sarcolemma of the myocytes, regulating cytosolic concentration of the ion, and plasmodesmata are structures found within plant cells, forming connections between the cytosol of adjacent cells.
19. Unlike most polypeptide hormones, steroid hormones are unique in that they [ ] A. Activate gene transcription [ ] B. Diffuse across cell membranes [ ] C. Can bind proteins [ ] D. Can be used as therapeutic drugs

Answer: B (animal anatomy and physiology, p. 897-8) Explanation: Most polypeptide hormones bind cell membrane receptors, activating cell-signaling cascades to regulate
gene transcription. Steroid hormones, however, cross cell membranes activating receptors within the nucleus to activate gene expression.
20. In superoxide dismutase 1, an enzyme implicated in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease), a copper ion is bound to the active site and is important for enzyme activity. In this enzyme, copper most likely functions as a(n) [ ] A. coenzyme [ ] B. cofactor [ ] C. allosteric activator [ ] D. allosteric inhibitor

Answer: B Explanation: The copper ion is non-covalently bound to the active site of superoxide dismutase 1. The mode of

catalytic rate enhancement by the copper ion is most likely therefore to be its participation in the reaction as a cofactor; the other answers (allostery and coenzyme) are incorrect by definition. (For reference, a coenzyme generally represents a larger organic molecule or biological macromolecule involved in catalysis.)

21.

The order of normal blood flow through the human heart is [ ] A. right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, left ventricle, left atrium, body [ ] B. right ventricle, right atrium, body, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs [ ] C. right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body [ ] D. right atrium, right ventricle, body, left atrium, left ventricle, lungs

Answer: C (animal anatomy and physiology, p. 814-7) Explanation: Blood returns to the right atrium from the body via the superior and inferior vena cavae as well as

the coronary sinus. Flow continues through the right ventricle then to the pulmonary arteries. Blood is oxygenated in the lung capillaries, returns to the left atrium via the pulmonary veins and enters the left ventricle where it is pumped to the body.

22.

Allopatric speciation refers to species formed after which type of separation: [ ] A. niche [ ] B. temporal [ ] C. behavioral [ ] D. geographic

Answer: D (genetics and evolution, p. 451)

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Explanation: Allopatric speciation refers to divergence occurring due to geographic separation of an animal

population. Sympatric speciation occurs when factors such as non-random mating and chromosomal changes result in divergence.

23.

Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids? [ ] A. Amine and sulfhydryl [ ] B. Sulfhydryl and carboxyl [ ] C. Carboxyl and amine [ ] D. Alcohol and aldehyde

during protein synthesis, forming the polypeptide backbone.

24.

Answer: C (cell biology, p. 68-9) Explanation: Each amino acid contains a carboxyl and an amine group. Amine and carboxyl groups react

Movement of ions across the membrane from higher to lower concentrations through a channel protein is an example of [ ] A. Simple diffusion [ ] B. Facilitated diffusion [ ] C. Active transport [ ] D. Osmosis

concentration gradient. Osmosis is the movement of water, not ions.

Answer: B (cell biology, pp. 132-43) Explanation: Simple diffusion does not involve a carrier protein. Active transport moves ions against a

Movement of ions across cell membranes with the concentration gradient occurs through protein channels in the membrane by facilitated diffusion. Simple diffusion occurs in the absence of such channel and applies only to movement of small molecules such as water. Active transport requires energy and described the mechanisms by which ions are transported against the concentration gradient. Osmosis describes passive movement of water across membranes to create iso-osmotic solutions.
25. Which group of plants has vascular tissue but does not produce seeds? I. Mosses II. Ferns III. Gymnosperms [ [ [ [ ] A. ] B. ] C. ] D. I II III II & III

Answer: B (biosystematics, p. 557-8) Explanation: Mosses are avascular gametophytes while gymnosperms are vascular seed plants. Of the plan groups
listed, only ferns are avascular and do not produce seeds.
26. Which of the following is true for transport in xylem? [ ] A. The primary force involved is osmotic pressure [ ] B. Xylem is the primary site for transport of sucrose [ ] C. Movement through xylem depends mainly on transpiration [ ] D. All of the above

Answer: C (plant biology, 703-5)

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Explanation: Xylem is the plant sap that is the primary means of water transport to the leaves. Movement up through the stem and leaves depends mainly on transpiration, not osmosis. As water exits leaves via the stomata, the negative pressure created pulls xylem upward.
27. Predation is considered a _________ interaction, while Mutualism is considered a ___________ interaction. [ ] A. +/+, +/+ [ ] B. +/0, -/[ ] C. -/-, +/+ [ ] D. +/-, +/+

Answer: D (ecology, p. 1111) Explanation: The notation used in this question shows the benefit of each of two species is an ecologic relation. A

+/- relationship harms one species such as in a predation. Mutualism benefits both species in a relationship. This is described by +/+.

28.

Which of the following organisms is INCORRECTLY paired with its trophic level? [ ] A. Human - tertiary consumer [ ] B. Beetle - secondary consumer [ ] C. Grass - primary producer [ ] D. Cyanobacteria - primary producer

Answer: B Explanation: The vast majority of beetles are herbivorous and thus primary consumers. It has been proposed that
their huge diversity (they are the most specious order of animals) arose as an adaptive radiation coinciding with the spread and radiation of angiosperm plants.

29.

Which of the following is an example of habituation? [ ] A. Chickadees learning new songs when they shift to living in large winter flocks from small family groups. [ ] B. Stalking and attacking litter mates by lion cubs. [ ] C. Hydra initially contract when gently touched, but soon stop responding. [ ] D. Yearly migration of golden plovers from Arctic breeding grounds to southeastern South America.

by the organism is learned to be background noise. The animal learns it conveys no useful information, and the organism fails to respond to further stimulation of the same nature.
30.

Answer: C (ethology, p. 1061) Explanation: Habituation is a type of learning. During this process a stimulus which initially produces a response

Suppose gene "C" is the gene for color. Its dominant allele has the effect of allowing the production of fur color while its recessive allele interrupts color production. At another locus, there exists another gene that influences color, at which black (B) is dominant to brown (b). What is the relationship between these genes called? [ ] A. Epistatic [ ] B. Peralogous [ ] C. Dominant [ ] D. Antagonistic

Answer: A (genetics and evolution, p. 250) Explanation: Epistatic interactions involve interactions between two or more different loci, in which alleles at one

loci control the phenotypic manifestation of alleles at the other loci. In this case, if you cannot produce color (the first locus in the question stem above), it does not matter what is encoded at the second locus (black or brown). The first loci is epistatic to the second loci.
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During migrations, some birds use which of the following as reference frameworks? I. The sun II. Constellations III. Earth's magnetic field [ ] A. I only [ ] B. I and II only [ ] C. I and III only [ ] D. I, II, and III

magnetic field to guide migration.

32.

Answer: D (ethology, p. 1066) Explanation: Depending on the species of bird, the animals may use any combination of the sun, stars, and earths

Generally, there are more species per square kilometer in which of the following types of ecosystem? [ ] A. Temperate grassland [ ] B. Arctic tundra [ ] C. Boreal forest [ ] D. Coral reef

Answer: D Explanation: Arctic tundra and boreal forests (Taiga, coniferous forests) have fewer species and are less nutrient

rich than ecosystems in warmer climates. While temperate grasslands do have fairly high species diversity, there are on average more species per square kilometer in coral reef ecosystems.
33. RUBP is used and PGA is formed in: [ ] A. glycolysis [ ] B. the Kreb's cycle [ ] C. light reaction of photosynthesis [ ] D. dark reaction (Calvin cycle) of photosynthesis

Answer: D Explanation: In the first step of the dark reaction carbon dioxide is combined with ribulose bisphosphate(RuBP)
to form 3-phosphoglycerate (PGA).
34. Which is TRUE of the dark reaction (Calvin cycle) of photosynthesis? [ ] A. It uses oxygen [ ] B. It uses carbon dioxide [ ] C. It produces sucrose [ ] D. Both b and c are correct

Answer: B Explanation: Oxygen is produced during the light reaction of photosynthesis when water is split to replace electrons
in the reaction center of photosystem II. The dark reaction or carbon-fixing reactions occur when carbon dioxide is combined with RuBP. The sugar directly produced by the dark reaction is the three-carbon glyceraldehydes 3phosphate.
35. In the fern life cycle, the dominant generation is the: [ ] A. haploid gametophyte [ ] B. diploid gametophyte [ ] C. haploid sporophyte [ ] D. diploid sporophyte

Answer: D
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Explanation: Plants and algae have a life cycle known as alternation of generations, which has both diploid and

haploid multicellular stages. The dominant generation is considered to be the stage that occupies the greater part of the life-cycle or that consists of the larger and more noticeable structure. Gametophyte stages are haploid while sporophyte stages are diploid. In ferns the frond is the diploid sporophyte.

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