Economics Mcqs 1. The fundamental economic problem faced by all societies is: d. scarcity 2. "Capitalism" refers to: c.

private ownership of capital goods 3. There are three fundamental questions every society must answer. Which of the following is/are one of these questions? a. What goods and services are to be produced? b. How are the goods and services to be produced? c. Who will get the goods and services that are produced? d. All of the above 4. If you were working full-time now, you could earn $20,000 per year. Instead, you are working parttime while going to school. In your current part-time job, you earn $5,000 per year. At your school, the annual cost of tuition, books, and other fees is $2,000. The opportunity cost of completing your education is: c. $17,000 5. The bowed shape of the production possibilities curve illustrates: a. the law of increasing marginal cost 6. You have taken this quiz and received a grade of 3 out of a possible 10 points (F). You are allowed to take a second version of this quiz. If you score 7 or more, you can raise your score to a 7 (C). You will need to study for the second version. In making a rational decision as to whether or not to retake the test, you should d. consider both the marginal benefits and the marginal opportunity costs of retaking the quiz 7. The law of demand states that: c. as the price rises, the quantity demanded falls 8. The price elasticity of demand is the: a. percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price 9. Community Colleges desired to increase revenues. They decided to raise fees paid by students with Bachelors degrees to $50 per unit because they believed this would result in greater revenues. But in reality, total revenues fell. Therefore, the demand for Community College courses by people with Bachelors degrees must have actually been: c. relatively elastic 10. The demand for a product would be more inelastic: c. the less expensive is the product in relation to incomes

1. In the case of agriculture, b. the demand has shifted to the right less than the supply has shifted to the right 2. The agricultural price support program is an example of b. a price floor 3. If there is a price floor, there will be b. surpluses

4. If there is a price ceiling, there will be a. shortages 5. If there is a price ceiling, which of the following is NOT likely to occur? d. sellers providing goods for free that were formerly not free 6. The goal of a pure market economy is to best meet the desires of a. consumers 7. In a pure market economy, which of the following is a function of the price? I. provide information to sellers and buyers , II. provide incentives to sellers and buyers c. both I and II 8. In a market system, sellers act in ____________ interest , but this leads to behaviors in ____________ interest. b. self; societys

9. The law of diminishing (marginal) returns states that as more of a variable factor is added to a certain amount of a fixed factor, beyond some point: c. The marginal physical product falls 10. Why is the law of diminishing marginal returns true? c. limited capital
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of pure monopoly? a. one seller of the product

2. In pure monopoly, what is the relation between the price and the marginal revenue? a. the price is greater than the marginal revenue 3. In order to maximize profits, a monopoly company will produce that quantity at which the: c. marginal revenue equals marginal cost 4.This monopolist should produce: d. 4 5. Compared to the case of perfect competition, a monopolist is more likely to:

a. charge a higher price b. produce a lower quantity of the product c. make a greater amount of economic profit d. all of the above 6. Which of the following is necessary for a natural monopoly? a. economies of scale b. a high proportion of the total cost is the cost of capital goods c. the market is very small d. all of the above 7. Which of the following is true about the way by which SDG&E has been regulated by the PUC? b. The profits of SDG&E are calculated as a percent of the value of the capital goods 8. Which of the following best defines price discrimination? d. selling a certain product of given quality and cost per unit at different prices to different buyers 9. In order to practice price discrimination, which of the following is needed? a. some degree of monopoly power b. an ability to separate the market c. an ability to prevent reselling d. all of the above 10. In price discrimination, which section of the market is charged the higher price? c. the section with the most inelastic demand 1. Which of the following concepts represents the extra revenue a firm receives from the services of an additional unit of a factor of production? c. marginal revenus product

This company is a profit-maximizing firm selling in a competitive product market and hiring in a competitive labor market. It uses semi-skilled labor to produce dampers used in office building ventilation systems. Assume that the current market price per damper is $50 and that the prevailing weekly salary per semi-skilled worker is $550. This company should employ ______ workers. b. 3 3. The demand for labor is the same as the a. marginal revenue product

4. The demand for labor slopes down and to the right because of c. the law of diminishing marginal returns

5. The demand for labor will be more elastic if:

c. labor is a large percent of the total cost of production 6. Skills that can be transferred to other employers are called: a. general skills

7. Which skills are most likely to be paid for by the employer? b. Specific skills

8. If worker A earns more in wages than worker B, it could be because: a. The product made by worker A sells for a higher price than that made by worker B b. Worker A uses more capital per worker than worker B c. Worker A has more natural ability than worker B d. All of the above 9. Skills that embodied in a person are called a. Human capital

10. Treating an individual as typical of a group is the definition of b. statistical discrimination 1. The largest source of tax revenue for the federal government is: a. the personal income tax 2. When my income was $100,000, I paid $10,000 in taxes. When my income became $200,000, I paid $40,000 in taxes. My marginal tax rate is: c. 30% 3. The tax is question #2 is: a. progressive 4. Which of the following taxes is regressive? c. the sales tax

5. Assume that there are two goods, A and B. In 1996, Americans produced 10 units of A at a price of $10 and 20 units of B at a price of $20. In 2002, Americans produced 20 units of A at a price of $20 and 30 units of B at a price of $30. The Nominal GDP for 2002 is: e. $1300 6. Using the numbers in question 5, the Real GDP for 2002 is: c. $800

7. Which of the following statements is/are true? b. Productivity is the United States grew very slowly between 1973 and 1996 8. Immediately after a trough, we would expect to have a/an c. recovery 9. Last week, Martha spent one day cleaning a house. For this, she was paid $50. The rest of the week, she spent looking for a job. Martha would be classified as a. employed 10. John lost his accounting job when Montgomery Wards closed its stores in San Diego. He looked for a similar job for ten months before finding an accounting job at Sears. During the month John was unemployed, he was d. structurally unemployed 1. Assume that there are only two goods: A and B In the base year, Quantity Price A 10 $1 B 10 $4 In the current year, Quantity Price A 20 $ 5 B 25 $20 The Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the current year is: d. 500

2. Which of the following groups is most hurt by unexpected inflation? d. people with large retirement savings held in savings accounts 3. If the nominal interest rate is 5% and the inflation rate is 2%, the real interest rate is: b. 3%

4. For which of the following reasons might inflation cause Real GDP to grow slower than it otherwise would? d. Inflation decreases savings in financial form 5. Disposable Income is equal to: d. National Income Minus Taxes Plus Transfers 6. Assume that Potential Real GDP equals $10,000. National Income is therefore $10,000. Of this, consumers will pay $2,000 in taxes, save $1,000, and spend $7,000 on consumer goods. Business

Investment spending is $2000. In order to avoid recessions and inflation (to have equilibrium), the government should have a: c. budget surplus of $1000

7. According to Keynes, when the Great Depression started, the government should have: c. had a large increase in government spending 8. If the government lowers taxes by $10 billion, the Real GDP will rise by a. more than $10 billion 9. Which of the following is an automatic stabilizer? a. unemployment benefits 10. Crowding out means that c. a government budget deficit raises interest rates and causes investment spending to fall 1. Which of the following IS a function of money? a. medium of exchange b. store of value c. unit of accounting d. all of the above 2. Which of the following is a component of M-1? c. checkable deposits

3. Which of the following is a NOT component of M-2? c. stocks

4. Which of the following is true about the Federal Reserve System (Fed)? a. it is a system of 12 central banks 5. An IOU of the Federal Reserve Bank of San Francisco to Bank of America is called: c. reserves

6. Which of the following is the most liquid? a. a savings account 7. The monetary base is composed of: c. currency and reserves

8. If the monetary base is increased by $1,000 and the reserve requirement is 10% (1/10), by how much will the money supply be increased? d. $10,000 9. If the Federal Reserve wishes to increase the money supply, it should: c. buy Treasury securities in the open market 10. An increase in the money supply will cause interest rates to b. fall

PAPER 2010 (COMPULSORY) Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20) (i) The best and comprehensive definition of economic development was presented by: (a) Higgins (b) Maddison (c) Friedman (d) None of these (ii) Fishery is the sub sector of: (a) Agriculture (b) Manufacturing (c) Mining (d) Both (b) and (c) (iii) Pakistan was the leading exporter before the separation of East Pakistan: (a) Cotton (b) Tea (c) Rice (d) None of these (iv) Pakistan devalued its currency in 1972 by: (a) 131% (b) 121% (c) 100% (d) None of these (v) Eighth Five Year Plan duration was: (a) 1983 1988 (b) 1993 1998 (c) 1978 1983 (d) 1988 1993 (vi) Export Bonus Scheme (EBS) was introduced in: (a) 1969 (b) 1979 (c) 1959 (d) 1949

(vii) Primary deficit (primary balance) is the difference between total revenue and: (a) Non-interest total expenditure (b) Interest expenditure (c) development expenditure (d) All of these (viii) Cooperative movement was started in sub-continent in: (a) 1904 (b) 1914 (c) 1934 (d) None of these (ix) The Ryotwari system was introduced by the British rules in the provinces of: (a) Sindh, Madras and Mumbai (b) Sindh, Punjab and Mumbai (c) Sindh, Madras and NWFP (d) Both (a) and (b) (x) Pakistan Agricultural Storage and Service Corporation (PASSCO) was established in: (a) 1973 (b) 1963 (c) 1953 (d) 1983 (xi) Who developed Physical Quality Life Index (PQLI) in his famous book named by Measuring the Condition of the Worlds Poor: PQLI in 1987? (a) Morris D. Morris (b) Higgins (c) Keynes (d) None of these (xii) The Human Development Index (HDI) ranks all countries on the scale of: (a) 0 to 1 (b) 1 to 100 (c) -1 to +1 (d) None of these (xiii) The United Nations designated The Fourth World as: (a) Less developed countries (b) Poor countries (c) Least developed countries (d) All of these (xiv) According to North-South Divide, the rich countries are called: (a) South countries (b) North countries (c) Industrialized countries (d) Advance countries (xv) The loan which is given at a nominal rate of interest ranging from 1% to 3% is called: (a) Hard loan (b) Conditional loan (c) Soft loan

(d) All of these (xvi) The accumulation of a stock of debt so large as to threaten the countrys ability to repay its past loan: (a) Debt equity swap (b) Debt trap (c) Debt overhang (d) None of these (xvii) Rabi season which begins in: (a) April-June (b) October-December (c) January-February (d) None of these (xviii) Government of Pakistan announced privatization policy in: (a) 1981 (b) 1995 (c) 1991 (d) None of these (xix) The floating debt (short-term) consists of: (a) Treasury Bills (b) Market Treasury Bills (c) MTBs for Replenishment (d) All of these (xx) The currency of IMF is called: (a) SDRs (b) ODRs (c) Lira (d) None of these
PAPER 2009COMPULSORY Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20) (i) Ceteris paribus is a Latin term meaning: (a) one by one (b) equal under the law. (c) other things being equal. (d) in accordance with the law. (ii) The slope of a curve is: (a) constant in the case of a straight line (b) positive in the case of a direct relationship (c) negative in the case of an inverse relationship (d) equal to the change in vertical movement divided by the change in horizontal movement. (iii) If the quantity of X increases whenever the price of X decreases, one can conclude that: (a) the relationship between the price and the quantity of X is direct (b) the relationship between the price and the quantity of X is inverse (c) the relationship between the price and the quantity of X is linear (d) the relationship between the price and the quantity of X is nonlinear (iv) A simultaneous decrease in demand and supply will always result in: (a) a decrease in the equilibrium price (b) an increase in the equilibrium price

(c) a decrease in the equilibrium quantity (d) an increase in the equilibrium quantity (v) The marginal utility of a good refers to the: (a) total utility of the good prior to consumption of the last unit (b) extra utility associated with consuming another unit of the good (c) utility associated with consuming an alternative good (d) consumer surplus associated with the consumption of an alternative good (vi) When a firm is experiencing economies of scale: (a) the MP curve slopes upward (b) the LRAC curve slopes downward (c) diminishing returns to labor have been suspended (d) the MC curve slopes downward (vii) Actual GDP may exceed potential GDP for a short period of time when: (a) the unemployment rate is high (b) plants run extra shifts that ordinarily are not scheduled. (c) plants are shut down to remove old equipment and install new equipment (d) any or all of the above occur. (viii) An example of frictional unemployment is: (a) workers at General Motors plants laid off because of slow car sales. (b) steel workers laid off by plant closings. (c) a teenager who has quit work at McDonalds waiting to take a job next week at the car wash (d) Inner-city welfare mothers taking classes to earn high-school equivalency degrees. (ix) If inflation is expected to be 5 percent in the coming year and the nominal interest rate is 8 percent, then the real interest rate is: (a) 3 percent (b) 3 percent (c) 8 percent (d) 13 percent (x) Which of the following is included in GDP as currently measured? (a) food stamps (b) used car sales (c) additions to inventories (d) purchases of Ford stock PAPER 2007COMPULSORY QUESTION 8. Write only correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the question. (1) A market is in equilibrium, when: (a) AC = P (b) MC = MR (c) AC = AR (d) TC = TR (e) None of these (2) Consumers surplus occurs, when: (a) Personal valuation exceeds the market valuation (b) Market valuation exceeds the personal valuation (c) Market valuation equals the personal valuation (d) Market valuation equals the market price (e) None of these (3) Livestock is: (a) An independent Sector (b) Sub-sector of Agriculture (c) Should be a part of Agriculture (d) Would become a part of Agriculture

(4) Unemployment Rate is a percentage relation with reference to: (a) Total Population (b) Civilian Labour Force (c) Employed Persons (d) Unemployed Persons (e) None of these (5) Devaluation of rupee would result into: (a) Expensive exports (b) Expensive Imports (c) Expensive Labour (d) Overvalued Rupee (e) None of these (6) Indirect Taxes are: (a) Direct Taxes - Subsidies (b) Subsidies (c) Sales Taxes (d) Income Taxes (e) None of these (7) Negative taxation refers to: (a) Tax Rebate (b) Subsidies (c) Tax Evasion (d) Tax Avoidance (e) None of these (8) Most commonly referred indicator of Inflation is: (a) Wholesale Price Index (b) Retail Price Index (c) Sensitivity Price Index (d) Consumer Price Index (e) None of these (9) If saving Rate is 12.0%, ICOR Value is 3% and Population Rate is 2.0%, then the Growth Rate would be: (a) 2.0% (b) 3.6% (c) 4.0% (d) 6.0% (e) None of these NOTE: Data in the following questions refer to Pakistan Economic Survey: Fiscal Year 2005-06 (10) National Income Accounts of Pakistan have registered GDP & GNP (at market prices) as: (a) GDP = GNP (b) GDP < GNP (c) GDP > GNP (d) GDP = NNP (e) None of these (11) Pakistans Economic Growth was: (a) 7.5% (b) 8.6% (c) 6.6% (d) 5.1% (e) None of these (12) Weight of Agriculture Sector in GDP Structure is: (a) 47.7% (b) 21.6%

(c) 24.0% (d) 38.9% (e) None of these (13) Unemployment Rate is: (a) 6.5% (b) 7.7% (c) 7.8% (d) 8.3% (e) None of these (14) Tax/GDP Ratio is: (a) 9.2% (b) 10.4% (c) 11.0% (d) 13.2% (e) None of these (15) Overall Fiscal Deficit with reference to GDP is: (a) 2.4% (b) 3.3% (c) 4.2% (d) 5.0% (e) None of these (16) Domestic Savings with reference to GDP is: (a) 14.4% (b) 15.7% (c) 18.1% (d) 22.0% (e) None of these (17) Health Expenditure with reference to GDP is: (a) 0.5% (b) 0.6% (c) 0.7% (d) 0.8% (e) None of these (18) Education expenditure with reference to GDP is: (a) 1.6% (b) 1.7% (c) 1.9% (d) 2.1% (e) None of these (19) As % of GDP, External Debt Liabilities declined in March 2006 to (a) 30.9% (b) 32.6% (c) 28.3% (d) 20.0% (e) None of these (20) The number of SOEs privatized upto April 2006 are: (a) 140 (b) 151 (c) 160 (d) 184 (e) None of these