Review Questions

Question 1:

When illuminated, the DUAL BLEED light indicates that the potential of back-pressuring the APU exists.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 2:

When a PACK TRIP OFF light illuminates, the respective PACK valve automatically ________ and the air mix valves drive to the ______-______ position.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) closes, full-cold B) opens, full-cold C) closes, full-hot

Review Questions
Question 3:

What is indicated by the illumination of the OFF SCHED DESCENT light?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) The descent schedule in the FMC is invalid. B) Aircraft descends before reaching within 0.25 psi of the altitude which has been set in the FLT ALT indicator. C) The scheduled descent mode if off.

Review Questions
Question 4:

A _________ ______ is installed near each ram air inlet to prevent slush or foreign material from entering the ram air system while the aircraft is taxiing.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) relief valve B) pitot probe C) deflector door

Review Questions
Question 5:

Two positive pressure relief valves are installed to prevent cabin-to-ambient differential pressure from exceeding 8.65 psi.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

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Question 6:

When the AUTO FAIL light illuminates, the pressure controller automatically switches to the __________ mode and the __________ light illuminates.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) STANDBY, STANDBY B) AUTO, STANDBY C) STANDBY, AUTO FAIL

Review Questions
Question 7:

All emergency exit lights automatically illuminate if:

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Aircraft electrical power to DC bus 1 fails or AC power is turned off. B) Power to generator bus 1 fails. C) Power to generator bus 2 fails.

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Question 8:

Emergency exit lights are located throughout the passenger cabin to indicate the approved emergency exit routes.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

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Question 9:

Halon type fire extinguishers are best utilized on which type of fires?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Fabric, paper or wood fires. B) Electrical, fuel or grease fires.

Review Questions
Question 10:

The illumination of the PASS OXY ON light indicates:

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Passenger oxygen system is operating and passenger masks have dropped from the Passenger Service Units. B) Oxygen is flowing to the passenger masks. C) The chemical oxygen generators are inoperative.

Review Questions
Question 11:

Flight crew oxygen is supplied from a single cylinder located in the forward cargo compartment.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

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Question 12:

Once activated, oxygen from the chemical oxygen generators will flow for approximately ____ minutes and cannot be shutoff.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) 12 B) 15 C) 20

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Question 13:

All ten flight deck windows are electrically heated.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

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Question 14:

The illumination of a green window heat ON light indicates that window heat is being applied to selected window.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

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Question 15:

When illuminated, the COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates what?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Overpressure or overtemperature in the cowl duct B) Cowl anti-ice valve partially closed C) Cowl anti-ice valve partially open

Review Questions
Question 16:

Which leading edge devices have anti-ice protection?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Leading edge slats and flaps B) Leading edge flaps only C) Leading edge slats only

Review Questions
Question 17:

The pitot-static probes are electrically heated to prevent the formation of ice.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

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Question 18:

Which part(s) of the engine is (are) anti-iced?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) The cowl lip only B) The spinner and the fan blades C) The spinner, fan blades and cowl lip

Review Questions
Question 19:

What is the normal power source for the battery charger?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Ground service bus B) Transfer bus 1 C) DC bus 2

Review Questions
Question 20:

Which AC bus does the STANDBY PWR OFF light monitor?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Transfer bus 2 B) Ground service bus C) AC standby bus

Review Questions
Question 21:

What does illumination of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light indicate?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Ground power will soon be available for use. B) The ground service bus is inoperative. C) Ground power is connected to the aircraft. Does not indicate the quality the ground power source.

Review Questions
Question 22:

With TR1 selected on the DC metering panel, the reading for DC amps is being read from TR1, while the reading for DC volts is being read from DC bus 1.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 23:

With the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO, and a loss of all AC power (while on the ground), will the standby busses automatically transfer to their alternate power source?
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Yes B) No

Review Questions
Question 24:

Does the illumination of a TRANSFER BUS OFF light indicate that the respective transfer bus is inactive?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Yes B) No

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Question 25:

The illumination of the REVERSER UNLOCKED light indicates:

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) The respective engine thrust reverser sleeves will unlock in approximately three seconds. B) The respective engine thrust reverser sleeves are unlocked. C) The respective engine thrust reverser sleeves failed in the closed and locked position.

Review Questions
Question 26:

Positioning the ignition select switch to IGN R will select the right igniter on each engine for use on respective engine.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

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Question 27:

Approximately ____% of the air entering the engine inlet is utilized for combustion, while the remaining ____% is bypassed (fan air).
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) 80, 20 B) 20, 80

Review Questions
Question 28:

As the reverser sleeves translate aft, ____ blocker doors rotate into a blocking position which forces fan air in a reverse direction.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) 10 B) 12 C) 14

Review Questions
Question 29:

An auto-restow circuit compares actual thrust reverser sleeve position to the commanded thrust reverser sleeve position.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 30:

It is recommended that the APU be operated for at least ____ full minute(s) before utilizing as a bleed source.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) 1 B) 3 C) 5

Review Questions
Question 31:

When an engine fire is detected, the respective engine fire warning switch illuminates and automatically unlocks. The FIRE WARN lights also illuminate and the _______________ ________________. Choose (click on) the correct answer:
A) fire warning bell sounds. B) thrust levers automatically move to the idle detent. C) APU fire warning horn sounds.

Review Questions
Question 32:

When an OVHT DET switch is positioned to NORMAL, this indicates that both overheat/fire detector loops (A and B) on the respective engine are active.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 33:

The nose gear wheel well does not incorporate a fire detection system.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 34:

When illuminated, the APU DET INOP light indicates that the _______________________________________.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) APU fire detector loop has failed. B) Loop A and loop B on the APU are inoperative. C) The APU loop in the wheel well is inoperative.

Review Questions
Question 35:

Both loop A and loop B on each engine are capable of detecting an overheat or fire condition.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 36:

Which areas on the aircraft have fire detection and extinguishing capability?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Engines, APU, and lavatories. B) Engines, APU, main gear wheel well. C) Engines, APU, main gear wheel well, and lavatories.

Review Questions
Question 37:

When an engine fire is detected, the respective engine fire warning switch illuminates and automatically unlocks. The FIRE WARN lights also illuminate and the _______________ ________________. Choose (click on) the correct answer:
A) fire warning bell sounds. B) thrust levers automatically move to the idle detent. C) APU fire warning horn sounds.

Review Questions
Question 38:

When an OVHT DET switch is positioned to NORMAL, this indicates that both overheat/fire detector loops (A and B) on the respective engine are active.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 39:

The nose gear wheel well does not incorporate a fire detection system.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 40:

When illuminated, the APU DET INOP light indicates that the _______________________________________.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) APU fire detector loop has failed. B) Loop A and loop B on the APU are inoperative. C) The APU loop in the wheel well is inoperative.

Review Questions
Question 41:

Both loop A and loop B on each engine are capable of detecting an overheat or fire condition.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 42:

Which areas on the aircraft have fire detection and extinguishing capability?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Engines, APU, and lavatories. B) Engines, APU, main gear wheel well. C) Engines, APU, main gear wheel well, and lavatories.

Review Questions
Question 43:

Both A and B hydraulic systems simultaneously supply pressure to the primary flight controls; ailerons, elevator, (elevator feel) and rudder.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 44:

The purpose of the balance tabs is to reduce the amount of force required to position the ailerons and elevator.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 45:

The purpose of the aileron transfer mechanism is to bypass a jammed roll control system (aileron or flight spoilers).

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 46:

The rudder can only be operated when hydraulic power is available, i.e. manual reversion is not available for the rudder.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 47:

___ system hydraulics powers the inboard flight spoilers, while ___ system hydraulics powers the outboard flight spoilers.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) A, B B) B, A

Review Questions
Question 48:

In the event of B system hydraulic failure, an alternate method of extending and retracting the TE flaps is provided via the ________________________________.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) A FLIGHT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD B) ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch C) STAB TRIM override switch

Review Questions
Question 49:

An alternate source of power for autoslats is provided via the ___________________________.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) speed brake handle B) power transfer unit (PTU)

Review Questions
Question 50:

The vent scoops create positive pressure during flight and are the overboard vents for the vent system.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 51:

In the No. 1 and No. 2 tank, a bypass valve allows fuel to be drawn out of the tank by an engine driven fuel pump.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 52:

The fuel temperature sensor is located in the ______ tank.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) surge B) center C) No. 1

Review Questions
Question 53:

A center tank fuel scavenge system is installed to drain unusable fuel from the _______ tank into the _____ tank.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) No. 1, center B) center, No. 1

Review Questions
Question 54:

With one center pump ON and one center pump OFF, the illumination of one LOW PRESSURE light will automatically illuminate the MASTER CAUTION and FUEL annunciator.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 55:

Both LOW PRESSURE lights in the No. 1 fuel tank must be illuminated in order for the MASTER CAUTION and FUEL annunciator lights to automatically illuminate.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 56:

The A hydraulic system engine-driven pump delivers approximately ____ gallons/min at ______ psi.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) 22; 3000 B) 6; 2700 C) 3; 3000

Review Questions
Question 57:

The No. 1 thrust reverser is powered by A system hydraulics.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 58:

The power source for the A hydraulic system electric pump is ____________________. The power source for the B hydraulic system electric pump is ____________________.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Generator bus 1. Generator bus 2. B) Generator bus 2. Generator bus 1.

Review Questions
Question 59:

The heat exchanger for the A hydraulic system is located in the ______ fuel tank.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) No. 1 B) No. 2 C) Center

Review Questions
Question 60:

If a fluid leak develops in the A system engine-driven pump or its related lines, a standpipe prevents complete fluid loss. Approximately 25% of the fluid will remain in the reservoir.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 61:

The standby hydraulic system provides power to which three hydraulic components?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Thrust reversers, leading edge devices, and standby rudder B) Thrust reversers, landing gear, and PTU C) Leading edge devices, standby rudder, and PTU

Review Questions
Question 62:

What is indicated when the green landing gear indicator lights are illuminated?

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) Respective landing gear is down and locked. B) Respective landing gear is not down and locked. C) Respective landing gear is in transit.

Review Questions
Question 63:

The normal accumulator precharge pressure is 1,000 psi.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 64:

The nose wheel steering wheel (tiller) is capable of turning the nose wheel up ___ left or right of center.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) 98 B) 78

Review Questions
Question 65:

Upon retraction, main gear wheel rotation is stopped by ___ system hydraulics and nose gear wheel rotation is stopped by wheel contact with _____________.
Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) A, snubbers B) B, snubbers C) standby, the fuselage

Review Questions
Question 66:

After selecting RTO, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate while the braking system performs a self-test. One to two seconds later, the light will extinguish if the self-test was successful. Choose (click on) the correct answer:
A) True B) False

Review Questions
Question 67:

Once wheel speed is greater than ___ knots, the autobrake system is fully-armed.

Choose (click on) the correct answer: A) 90 B) 60 C) 30