DOSAGES AND SOLUTION, BASIC

PHARMACOLOGY AND DRUG

ADMINISTRATION
Lee Min Ho, a recent graduate of BS Nursing is attending a review class for
the November 2017 board exam. The topic of the lecture is
Pharmacokinetics. He likes to know more about the concept of
Pharmacokinetics so he asks the lecturer about the importance of knowing
the Pharmacokinetics of a particular drug. The lecturer will mention the
following importance of Pharmacokinetics, EXCEPT:
a. Pharmacokinetic data of the drug is useful in determining the
therapeutic doses of the drug
b. It is helpful in explaining how the serum drug concentration can
increase or decrease in some patients
c. Knowledge of the drugs pharmacokinetics is helpful when adjusting
the dosages of drugs to patients with specific conditions
d. Pharmacokinetics will explain the details of the chemical interaction
between the drug and the target cell, tissue or org
The following situations demonstrate an application
of a Nurses knowledge about the
Pharmacodynamics of a given drug, EXCEPT
a. A Nurse explains to the patient how Gliclazide (Diamicron MR)
decreases the patients blood sugar
b. The nurse explains to a diabetic patient the possible interaction that
could occur between the oral hypoglycemic agent and beta blocker the
patient is currently taking.
c. The Nurse instructs a diabetic patient to avoid rubbing the injection
site after SubQ injection of insulin
d. Through a diagram, a clinical instructor show to his students how
beta blockers can affect the level of blood glucose
Nurse Kelly will be administering different types of drugs
to her patients. She must remember the following
concepts that are true regarding the factors that affect the
rate of drug absorption:
i. High concentration of drugs administered promote a more rapid effect
ii. Drugs given as inhalation are absorbed faster than IM injections
iii. The most common mechanism in which drugs are absorbed is active
transport
iv. Fat soluble drugs are more rapidly absorbed than water soluble drugs
v. Ice compress will hasten the absorption of parenteral medicines
a. ii, iii and iv
b. ii, iii, and v
c. i, iii and v
d. i, ii, and iv
 Nurse Kelly noticed that the dose of the opioids
given P.O. is higher than that of the I.M. route.
Nurse Kelly will be correct in her interpretation by
stating that:
a. Drugs given by the I.M. route have a lower Bioavailability, hence it
has a lower dosing than the P.O. route
b. The I.M route provides an immediate systemic effect, therefore there
is need to decrease the dose of the drugs given intramuscularly
c. The dose of the P.O. route is higher because there will be a decreased
absorption of the drug if it is taken with food.
d. If the drug is given by the oral route is will be subjected to first pass
metabolism
If a highly protein bound drugs like Diazepam (98%
protein bound), Lorazepam (92% protein bound) or
Valproic Acid (92% protein bound) is given to a patient
with a liver disease, you will expect:
a. An increased amount of drugs that binds to the plasma
protein, therefore an increase in effect of the drugs
b. Plasma protein binding of the drug does not affect the drug
action, it only affects the rate of its excretion from the body
c. A decreased effect of the drug because less drugs will be
bound to the plasma protein
d. An increased amount of unbound drugs in the blood,
therefore more drugs are released into the systemic circulation,
increasing its effect
Nurse Abby will be giving Digoxin (Lanoxin) to a 55 year old
highly obese patient with Congestive Heart Failure. The
patient weighs 120 kg. She is aware that digoxin is poorly
distributed in fatty tissue, therefore she knows that the dosing
of the drug will be based on:
a. The weight of the patient which is 120 kg
b. The ideal body weight in relation to the patients height and age
c. Twice the usual dose because the patient is overweight
d. Actual body weight times the average adult dose, divided by 150
 A patient is taking a drug that is known to be toxic to
the liver. The patient is being discharged to home. What
teaching points related to liver toxicity of the drug that
the nurse needs to teach the patient to report to the
physician:
a. Rapid deep respirations, sweating
b. Dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth
c. Rash, white spots in the mouth or throat
d. Body malaise, change in the color of the stool
 A patient is taking an H2 receptor blocker, Cimetidine
(Tagamet) for her GERD and Erythromycin as an antibiotic.
The nurse should be aware of the possible interaction
between Cimetidine and Erythromycin, because:
a. Cimetidine potentiates the antimicrobial effect of Erythromycin by
blocking its receptor
b. Cimetidine and erythromycin are known to inhibit metabolic enzyme
activity of the liver therefore it will increase the risk for toxicity of both
drugs
c. Cimetidine will inhibit the excretion of Erythromycin
d. Cimetidine displaces Erythromycin from their protein binding sites,
therefore more unbound Erythromycin will reach its site of action,
increasing its effect
Which of the following will NOT be included in
your health teachings when dealing with the
excretion of drugs?
a. After general anaesthesia, coughing and deep breathing will
promote the excretion of the drug
b. Increasing the fluid intake will enhance the excretion of
contrast dyes
c. An acid ash diet will increase the excretion of weak acidic
drugs
d. If breastfeeding, consult the physician before taking OTC
medications
 A patient with a severe infection is given Amikacin. A few hours after
the drug is started Intravenously, the patient becomes very restless
and develops edema. Blood tests reveal abnormal electrolytes and
elevated BUN. The nurse is aware that this reaction was most likely
caused by renal toxicity associated with Amikacin other signs of
nephrotoxicity which can be determined through urinalysis are the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Decrease in urine specific gravity
b. Presence of cast and crystals in the urine
c. Presence of Albumin and RBC
d. Oliguria
The half-life (t) of a drug is the time required for 50 % of the drug
concentration to be eliminated. Metabolism and elimination affect
the half-life of the drug. A patient is given 650 mg of Aspirin that
has a half-life of 3 hours. The nurse is trying to determine the
amount of medicine in mg in the blood stream at the 4th half-life
which is

a. 325 mg
b. 20 mg
c. 162mg
d. 40 mg
Nurse Michelle is aware that some drugs act at different receptors;
Drugs that affect various receptors are non-selective drugs, like some
bronchodilators. She will be administering a bronchodilator to a COPD
patient through nebulization. The patient states that she does not
want to receive the drug because she experiences palpitations after
taking the drug. Which among these set of drugs is effective as
bronchodilators but address the patients concern about palpitations?
a. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
b. Budesonide phosphate (Pulmicort turbuhaler)
c. Albuterol (Ventolin)
d. Isoproterenol (Medihaler-Iso)
Nurse Michelle is administering Betanechol to a postoperative patient with
urinary retention. She understands that as a cholinergic agonist, it will stimulate
the cholinergic receptors located in the bladder, and urination occurs by
strengthening bladder contractions. Because she also expects to observe other
parasympathetic physiologic reactions of the patient, which of the following
information should be included in her health teaching?

a. Advise the patient to take ice chips to prevent dry mouth

b. Increase fluid intake and high fiber diet to prevent
constipation
c. Report if theres an episode of shortness of breath
d. Observe safety precautions especially in daylight
Nurse Michelle is studying different classes of anti-
hypertensive, and notes their respective mechanism of
action. Which of the following sets of drugs produce an
effect of enzyme inhibition to exert their therapeutic
action of decreasing the blood pressure?
a. Losartan, Valsartan, Telmisartan
b. Metoprolol, Atenolol, Propranolol
c. Captopril, Perindopril, Enalapril
d. Methyldopa, Clonidine
 Nurse Marilyn is taking care of end stage cancer patient. She will
be administering Morphine Sulfate and Tramadol for pain. She is
aware that it can result to additive interaction, causing greater
pain control. She is aware of the other potential advantage of this
type of interaction which includes:
a. Increased absorption and distribution both drugs to the
receptor sites
b. One drug can potentiate the action of the other drug,
resulting in an effect that is greater than the sum of the
individual effects of each drug
c. Lower doses of each drug can be administered, which can
decrease the probability of adverse reactions
d. The full effect of the drugs antagonist will not be observed
The nurse teaches the client that a synergistic
interaction is likely if which of the following
medications are taken together?
a. Alcohol and diazepam (Valium)
b. Tetracycline and magnesium hydroxide (Maalox)
c. Furosemide (Lasix) and Digoxin (Lanoxin)
d. Morphine and Naloxone (Narcan)
Nurse Den is monitoring a COPD patient under
Theophylline therapy. After reading the pharmacologic
data of the drug he administered, he notes that the drug
has a low therapeutic index, which means that the drug
has:
a. A more potent effect
b. Less risk of toxic effects
c. Increased risk for potential danger
d. A more prolonged action
 A patient with edema was prescribed Spironolactone
(Aldactone) experienced dizziness and urinary
frequency after taking the drug for 4 days asks the nurse
whether these reactions are expected. The nurse should
understand that these adverse drug reactions are:
a. Normal and the desired therapeutic response to the drug
b. Secondary effects of the drug dose
c. Indications that the patient is hypersensitive to the drug dose
d. Signs of early toxic effect
 A 62 year old patient taking Theophylline/Guiafenesin
(Pleufort) for a week arrives at an Outpatient clinic with
complaints of insomnia, palpitation, and tremors. The nurse
notes that the patient has a history of smoking and kidney
disease. The nurse realizes that these complaints are:
a. Expected, because these are secondary effects of the drug
b. Hypersusceptibility reactions
c. Not expected because Guiafenessin interacts with
Theophylline to minimize the adverse rections
d. Symptoms of hypersensitivity reaction
The nurse would document the following adverse
drug reactions as an iatrogenic reaction, EXCEPT
a. Induced nephritis with methicillin
b. Dry mouth occurring with the use of Loratadine (Claritin)
c. Occurrence of asthma with Propranolol (Inderal) use
d. Induced deafness due to gentamicin
A 60 y/o patient with CHF stated that she was allergic to
the diuretic furosemide (Lasix). On further questioning, the
nurse discovered that the patient was allergic to the drug
because it made her urinate frequently. What would be the
best action of the nurse?

a. Administer epinephrine 0.3ml subQ

b. Notify the physician and discontinue the drug
c. Further question the patient about the nature of the allergy
d. Notify the prescriber and monitor the patient
 Nurse Liz was ordered to administer Amikacin to a
pregnant patient. She hesitates because she knows that
Amikacin is a teratogen that adversely affects the
development of the fetus. What fetal problems can be
related to drug exposure in utero?

a. Skeletal and limb abnormalities

b. Deafness
c. Nervous system disruption
d. Low-set ears
A hospitalized client with terminal cancer has been
receiving Morphine Sulfate 5 mg IV q 4 h for the past 3
weeks for pain relief. She now states that the pain is still
present, even after the medication is given. The nurse
recognizes that this client: (

a. has developed a physical dependency to the medication

b. is seeking attention for herself because of poor self-image
c. resents the fact that the nurse is healthy
d. has developed tolerance to the narcotic
A 22 year old construction worker arrives at the Emergency
room with a deep lacerated wound at the anterior arm.
Suturing was done and the doctor prescribed Cloxacillin
500mg, 1 cap Q.I.D for 7 days and Mefenamic Acid 500mg, 1
cap TID as Home medications. Which assessment finding
indicates that the antibiotic has been effective?

a. Voiding 500 cc over 2 hours

b. Client stating that pain is relieved
c. Decreased swelling and redness of the wound
d. Absence of fever and pus on the wound
Clients may have tendency to develop superinfections and
resistance to antibiotics. A woman has had repeated bouts of
bronchitis throughout the year and has been taking a broad
spectrum antibiotic. She calls the clinic with complaints of
fever, diarrhoea and white spots in the mouth and throat.
Which of the following should be done in order to prevent
this?
a. Health teachings and discharge instruction should be done
b. The offending organism and the antibiotic of choice should
be identified through C/S
c. Frequent mouth care, small and frequent meals, and
administering antifungal therapy as ordered
d. Culture specimens should be collected before starting the
antibiotic
 The Planning phase of the nursing process in drug
administration includes all of the following
actions, EXCEPT:
a. Selecting the equipment to be used for medication
administration
b. Documenting the drugs administered
c. Determining the appropriate schedule for administration of a
drug
d. Knowing the therapeutic intent of the prescribed medication
 The ten rights of giving the medication are: (1) the right
Patient, (2) the right Drug, (3) the right dose, (4) the right time,
(5) the right Route, (6) the right assessment (7) the right
documentation, (8) the clients right to Education, (9) the right
evaluation and (10) the clients right to refuse. Nurses are
aware that remembering the 10 rights of drug administration
will help

a. Save time
b. Increase drug awareness
c. Ensure patients compliance with the drug regimen
d. Prevent drug errors
Nurse Gemma is preparing to give hydrocortisone
to a COPD patient. As a nurse, she knows that she
can improve the accuracy of patients
identification by 2 patient identifiers, EXCEPT:
a. Identifying the client by his/her wrist tag and call his/her by
name
b. Calling the client by his/her case and bed number
c. Identifying the client by his/her wrist tag and verify with the
patients watchers
d. Calling the patient by his/her name and bed number
Patient Maria, 26 years old was given Temazepam (Restoril) 15
mg at 11:00 pm because she had trouble going to sleep. She is
a Call Center agent. After giving the drug, she asks for further
information about her medication. Which of the following will
LEAST communicate her needs and attention?
a. Allow her to participate in watching an informative video
about the medication
b. Have an informal conversation about the medication and its
effects
c. Provide a drug literature for reference
d. Instruct her about the purpose, indications and special
instructions using a medication teaching plan
Nurse Darwin is assigned at the Medical Ward of Sto. Nino
District Hospital and is handling 60 patients. It is 10:00 am and
he is preparing the 1 pm oral medications of his patients when
he discovered that he unintentionally omits an ordered 8 am
medication that is given TID. The most appropriate action of
Darwin would be:
a. Give the 1 pm dose and just write Not Available under the 8
am dose
b. Give the 8 am dose at 10 am, then give the 1 pm dose on time
c. Give both 8 am and 1 pm dose at the same time
d. Report the Omission, and consult the physician for an
appropriate action
 The nurse is giving medications to a newly admitted
patient who is to receive nothing by mouth (NPO status)
and find an order written as follows: Digoxin, 250 mcg
stat Which action is appropriate?
a. Give the medication immediately (stat) by mouth because
the patient has no intravenous (IV) access at this time.
b. Clarify the order with the prescribing physician before
giving the drug.
c. Ask the charge nurse what route the physician meant to use.
d. Start an IV line, then give the medication IV so that it will
work faster because the patients status is NPO at this time.
A recently admitted patient with Urinary Tract Infection complains of
headache. Upon assessment, the V/S of the patient is as follows:
BP120/80 mmHg, HR: 80 bpm, RR: 20 cpm, Temperature: 38.5 C. The
attending physician has an order: Paracetamol 500 mg/tablet P.O. q 4
hr, p.r.n. for temperature > 38.5C. The patient states that she usually
takes Mefenamic acid for her headache. As a pharmacological
management to the complaint, the nurse would:

a. Instruct the patient to take Mefenamic Acid after meals

b. Give Paracetamol PO as ordered, because Paracetamol also
has an analgesic effect
c. Ignore the complaint, because the patient is recently
admitted and still needs further laboratory workups.
d. Obtain a new order from the physician
 Mixing incompatible I.V. drugs can cause undesired
physical or chemical reactions or can interfere with the
pharmacologic action of one or both drugs. How can
nurses prevent drug incompatibilities during
intravenous administration?
a. Increasing the volume of diluent in an infusion
b. Always flushing with Plain NSS after IV administration
c. Observing the occurrence of precipitation, cloudiness and
change of color of the solution after administration
d. Referring to the package insert
 Upon admission, a patient with chronic pain states that she
does not want to receive any placebo during the course of her
confinement. You note that the patient has developed
dependence to narcotics. When giving placebos, nurses must
remember the following, except:
a. Before giving placebos, the nurse must secure a doctors
order and defer placebo when another treatment is indicated
b. A patient should never be given a placebo as a substitute for
an analgesic medication
c. The patients request not to receive placebo should be
respected
d. Administering placebo can be a useful tool to assess the
persons level of pain.
Patient Angelica is about to be discharged with home
medications. Nurse Giselle is instructing the mother of 12 year
old Angelica on how to administer medications at home. The
doctor prescribes Co-trimoxazole 200mg/5ml susp. 10 ml 2x a
day for 1 week. Which of the following instructions is correct?
a. You may give Angelica 1 tbsp of the medication twice a day for 7 days
after meals to avoid stomach discomfort
b. If Angelica can tolerate tablets, It is more accurate to give Angelica 400mg
of Cotrimoxazole tablet twice a day, since theres no need to measure the
medication.
c. Measure about 1 tsp of the medication and give it 2x a day for 1 week with
meals to avoid stomach discomfort.
d. Give Angelica 2 tsp of the medication in the morning and in the afternoon.
 Nurse Rosette is taking care of Mr. Enriquez who was diagnosed with
congestive heart failure. To reduce his preload, he has been put on oral
fluid restriction of <1200 ml/day. At the end of the shift, Mr. Enriquez
asked the nurse if he can drink another glass of water. Nurse Rosette
asked Mr. Enriquez how much oral fluids he take in the whole day and
Mr. Enriquez tells the nurse he already drink 5 glasses of oral fluid,
Nurse Rosettes best response will be:

a. Since you are thirsty, you can drink about half a glass
b. Yes, you can still drink about half a cup before you can reach your
fluid limit
c. Im afraid you have exceeded the maximum amount of fluid you can
drink today
d. I cannot allow you to take another glass of water because you will
exceed your limit
The doctor prescribed Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 300mg IV
once a day. The medication label reads Ceftriaxone 1g
and reconstitute with 10 ml bacteriostatic water. A
nurse will prepare to draw how ml to administer the
dose?
a. 3.0 ml
b. 3 ml
c. 0.3 ml
d. 30 ml
Your patient needs 250mg of Ampicillin IM. The label
says to add 1.3 ml sterile diluent to yield 500mg/1.5 ml.
How many milliliters of reconstituted solution should
you give the patient?

a. 0.65 ml
b. .75 ml
c. 1 ml
d. 0.75 ml
 A doctor orders 10 mg of diazepam (Valium) P.O.
every 6 hours PRN for an anxious patient. The
solution comes labeled 5mg/5ml. How many
milliliters should the patient receive in a single
dose?
a. 10 ml
b. 2 ml
c. 0.5 ml
d. 5 ml
Nurse Roselle is assigned at the oncology ward of Emilio Perez
Medical Center. A 60 y/o diabetic patient with prostate cancer
complains of severe hypogastric pain. The physician orders for
morphine sulfate, 1/2 grain IM STAT to the cancer patient.
Nurse Roselle notes that the pharmacy supplied a 2 ml
medication ampule that contains morphine sulfate, 10mg/ml.
Nurse Roselle should prepare how many ml of the medication
and how should she administer the prescribed dose?
a. Administer 6 ml of the medication intramuscularly using aseptic
technique
b. Administer 3 ml of the medication intravenously for an immediate response
c. Return the ampule to the pharmacy and ask for a replacement ampule that
contains 1 grain of morphine and clarify the order to the prescribing physician
d. Administer 3 ml of the medication intramuscularly
 Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 3 mg I.M. q6h p.r.n
was ordered for pain in a postoperative patient.
You need to administer the prefilled syringe
containing 4mg per ml to the patient. How will you
administer the medication?
a. Administer all the contents of the prefilled syringe
b. Administer 0.75 ml of the medication and discard the remaining
medication in the syringe
c. Discard 0.25 ml first, then give the remaining medication to the
patient
d. Inject 0.75 ml intravenously, carefully observing aseptic technique
 The doctor ordered Regular insulin 6 units SubQ at 6am and 12 noon plus regular insulin by
sliding scale based on the blood glucose obtained at 5:45am and 11:45am. The Sliding scale
insulin dosage is as follows:
Blood glucose<60 mg/dL = give 25 ml of Dextrose 50% IV bolus, repeat CBG 30 minutes after
Blood glucose>100-150 mg/dL = no insulin
Blood glucose>151-200 mg/dL = 2 units regular insulin
Blood glucose>201-250 mg/dL = 4 units regular insulin
Blood glucose>251-300 mg/dL = 6 units regular insulin
Blood glucose>301-350 mg/dL = 8 units regular insulin
Blood glucose>350 mg/dL = Refer to Medical Resident on Duty
If the blood glucose level at 5:45am is 325 mg/dL, how many ml of insulin will you administer at
6am? The available insulin in the vial has a concentration of 100 units/ml

a. 0.06 ml
b. 0.14 ml
c. 0.12 ml
d. 0.08 ml
Dr. Santiago ordered 60mg Furosemide T.I.V. STAT to a
patient with Hypertensive emergency. Your pharmacy
dispenses 10mg/ml Furosemide in 2 ml ampules. How
many ampules of the medication do you need to
prepare?

a. 2 ampules
b. 3 ampules
c. 6 ampules
d. 5 ampules
 A nurse must administer 5g of magnesium sulfate
deep IM on each buttocks, and 4g slow I.V. push to
a patient with preeclamsia. The label on the 20 ml
vial reads 250 mg/ml. How many vial/s of the
medication will you prepare?

a. 2 vials
b. 4 vials
c. 3 vials
d. 6 vials
 The doctor orders a single dose of paracetamol at
10mg/kg/dose oral suspension for a child with a
fever. The childs weight is 2 kg. Whats the dose in
milligrams?

a. 15 mg
b. 20 mg
c. 10 mg
d. 30 mg
Amikacin IV ordered to a patient with infection.
The drug reference indicates that a safe single
dose is 15 mg/kg/day. If the client weighs 55
pounds, how much of the medication should the
patient receive per day?
a. 525 mg/day
b. 375 mg/day
c. 125 mg/day
d. 475 mg/day
The doctor ordered Cefuroxime Na (Furoxy)
100mg q 12 hours to a 2.5 kg 1 week old Baby girl
with neonatal sepsis. The recommended dose of
Cefuroxime is 50-100 mg/kg/day in 2 or 3 divided
doses in the 1st week of life. Is this a safe dose?

a. Too low.
b. Too high
c. Within the safe dosage range.
d. Not enough details are given to guarantee the safe dose.
49. Pethidine is the International Nonproprietary Name of
Meperidine (Demerol). The recommended dose of Meperidine
(Demerol) is 6 mg/kg/24 hours for pain. It is given in divided
doses every 4-6 hours. How many milliliters of Demerol
injection should be administered to a 44 lb child as a single
dose every 6 hours. The 2 ml ampule of Demerol contains 50
mg/ml

a. 0.8 ml
b. 0.6 ml
c. 1.2 ml
d. 0.4 ml
 A 6 lb baby boy with neonatal sepsis is ordered to
receive gentamicin at 2.5 mg/kg/dose through IV
every 12 hours. The stock of gentamicin in the 2
ml ampule is 40 mg/2ml. How many ml of the
solution should the nurse administer each dose?

a. 0.31 ml
b. 0.68 ml
c. 0.34 ml
d. 0.25 ml
An 8 month old infant was given Ampicillin for
acute upper respiratory infection. The average
adult dose of ampicillin is 500mg. What is the
dose for the child?
a. 250 mg
b. 50 mg
c. 30 mg
d. 100 mg
 The physician prescribes Amoxicillin for a 9 year
old child. The child has a BSA of 1.02 m2, the
average adult dose is 500 mg. Which of the
following preparations of oral amoxicillin will you
consider for the child?
a. 500 mg/capsule
b. 250 mg/capsule
c. 295 mg/capsule
d. 125 mg/5 ml suspension
 Nurse Karissa is assigned at the surgery ward and
participates in the endorsement round. It includes the
IV infusion and medications. One patient, Mr. Sytamco is
ordered to receive 1000 ml of D5W to infuse for 8 hours
starting at 8 am. At what rate should the IV fluid be
flowing hourly?
a. 100 ml per hour
b. 125 ml per hour
c. 150 ml per hour
d. 190 ml per hour
 Another patient of Nurse Karissa, Mr. Bautista, was
placed on NPO and was ordered to receive 120 ml/hr of
0.9% NaCl solution for 8 hours. He is losing gastric fluid
which must be replaced every hour. The Infusion was
hooked at 7:00 am. He has lost a total of 150 ml of
gastric fluid, from 7 am to 3pm. How much fluid does
the patient received?
a. 1440 ml of D5 NSS
b. 960 ml of Plain NSS
c. 1110 ml of Plain NSS
d. 1000 ml of D5 NSS
 A 45 y/o male patient in a military hospital is
dehydrated and requires 1 Liter of Plain LR to
infuse at 167 ml/hr. If the solution was hung at
1400 H, what time will the infusion be completed?

a. 6 pm
b. 8 am
c. 8 pm
d. 12 pm
A 3 y/o child with loose bowel movement was
admitted because of AGE with moderate signs of
dehydration. Dr. Flores ordered to infuse
D50.3NaCl 320 mL every 8 hours. If the nurse
hangs a 500 mL bag at 10:00 AM, when will this
bag need to be changed?
a. 8:35 p.m.
b. 8:25 a.m.
c. 10:30 p.m.
d. 12:25 p.m.
A physician orders 1000ml of D5W to infuse over
12 hours. The drop factor of the tubing is 15
drops/ml. The nurse sets the drip rate at how
many gtts/min?
a. 42 gtts/min
b. 26 gtts/min
c. 21 gtts/min
d. 31 gtts/min
 To prevent hemolysis, the needle gauge in blood transfusion should be
g16 to g18. The nurse who is about to begin a blood transfusion knows
that blood cells start to deteriorate after a certain period of time. It is
important to check the extraction and expiration date to know the age
of blood cells before the transfusion. Your patient is to receive 250 ml of
Packed RBC over 4 hours. If the drop factor of the blood filter set is 10
gtts/ml, how many drops per minute should the nurse set the drip rate?

a. 12-13 gtts/minute
b. 10-11 gtts/minute
c. 11-12 gtts/minute
d. 9- 10 gtts/minute
 Plain NSS, Plain LR and D5W are isotonic
intravenous solutions. The doctor ordered 1,200
ml of Plain Lactated Ringers Solution to a patient
with Acute Gastroenteritis to be infused over 8
hours. The drop factor of the tubing is 20 gtts/ml.
The nurse regulates the drip rate at:
a. 31 gtts/min
b. 27 gtts/min
c. 40 gtts/min
d. 50 gtts/min
Cefazolin, also known as cefazoline or cephazolin, is a first-
generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Cefazolin is mainly used to
treat bacterial infections of the skin. It can also be used to treat
moderately severe bacterial infections involving the lung, bone,
joint, stomach, blood, heart valve, and urinary tract. A doctor
orders 2 g of Cefazolin sodium (Ancef) in 50 ml of normal saline
solution via intravenous infusion over 1 hour. The drip factor of
the tubing is 60 ugtts/ml. What is the correct drip rate?

a. 25 ugtts/min
b. 50 ugtts/min
c. 68 ugtts/min
d. 100 ugtts/min
The doctor orders 1000 ml of Plain NSS to infuse over
10 hours in an adult patient. The drop factor of the
tubing is 15 gtts/ml. After 4 hours, only 350 ml has been
infused instead of 400 ml. Which of the following
actions should be considered by the nurse?
a. Monitor the client for weight and hydration status
b. Recalculate the drip rate and increase the rate to 27
gtts/min
c. Maintain the drip rate and refer
d. Regulate the IV drip rate and refer to the doctor
Nurse Precious received a patient from the PACU. The patient has undergone
exploratory laparotomy. She noted that the patient has an ongoing infusion of
1,000 ml of Lactated Ringers solution, an indwelling catheter, a nasogastric tube,
and a Jackson-Pratt tube. The physician orders the I.V. Fluid to be infused at 125
ml/hour plus the total output of the previous hour. The output for the previous
hour was: 50 ml via indwelling urinary catheter, 20 ml via nasogastric tube, and 5
ml via Jackson-Pratt tube. For how many drops per minute should nurse Precious
set the I.V. drip rate if the drop factor of the tubing is 15 gtt/ml?

a. 31 gtts/min
b. 65 gtts/min
c. 75 gtts/min
d. 50 gtts/min
A 50 y/o farmer was admitted because of severe dehydration.
Dr. Morales orders an I.V. infusion of PlainNSS to be infused at
7 ml/kg/hour for the first hour, and 5ml/kg/hr in the next 4
hours. The patient weighs 65 kgs. After the initial hydration at
the first hour, How many gtts/min will you regulate the
solution if the drop factor of the tubing is 15 gtts/min should
the nurse should infuse the ordered solution?
a. 51-52 gtts/min
b. 31-32 gtts/min
c. 81-82 gtts/min
d. 61-62 gtts/min
 Careful administration of I.V. fluids is critical,
especially when dealing with patients who are
susceptible to fluid volume changes. The doctor
has ordered 100 ml/kg/day of Intravenous fluid for
a child weighing 8 kg. The micro drip drop factor
is 60 ugtts/ml, The drip rate will be:
a. 25-25 ugtts/min
b. 50-51 ugtts/min
c. 33-34 ugtts/min
d. 35-36 ugtts/min
A physician orders a continuous infusion of heparin. After an initial
bolus of 5,000 IU heparin IV, you are ordered to infuse 20,000 IU of
heparin sodium in 24 hours. The pharmacy prepares the medication
and delivers an IV bag labeled heparin sodium 20,000 IU in 1000ml
Plain NSS. An infusion pump must be used to administer the
medication. The nurse sets the infusion pump at how many ml per
hour to deliver Heparin 20,000 IU in 24 hours
a. 26 ml/hr
b. 42 ml/hr
c. 16 ml/hr
d. 31 ml/hr
 ICU nurse Meeko is taking care of a 52 y/o male patient in shock,
and notes the blood pressure of his patient is steadily decreasing.
The doctor has ordered to infuse Dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/minute. The
weight of the patient is 50 kg. The order indicates to infuse 800 mg
of Dopamine in 500 ml of D5W. How many millilitres of the solution
Your text here
containing dopamine should the patient receive each hour?
a. 11 ml/hr
b. 9 ml/hr
c. 6 ml/hr
d. 18 ml/hr
 A 30-year-old man arrived in the emergency room with a deep lacerated
wound in the forearm. You are going to assist the surgeon in suturing the
wound. After preparing the instruments, the surgeon asks the nurse to prepare
10cc of 1% lidocaine to be used for local anesthesia. Unfortunately, only 2%
lidocaine is available at the ER supply cabinet. You need to dilute the 2%
lidocaine solution with Sterile H2O. How much 2% lidocaine solution and Sterile
H2O will you use?

a. 2.5 cc of 2% Lidocaine and 7.5 cc of Sterile H2O

b. 5 cc of 2% Lidocaine and 5 cc of Sterile H2O
c. 5 cc of 1% Lidocaine and 5 cc of Sterile H2O
d. 7.5 cc of 1% Lidocaine and 2.5 cc of Sterile H2O
-End-