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PREVIOUS BOARD

QUESTIONS FOR
CRIMINOLOGIST

SUBJECT:
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE
AND
PROCEDURE
1. It refers to a territorial unit where the
power of the court is to be exercised.

a. Jurisdiction
b. Trial courts
c. Venue
d. Territory
Ans. C
2. The following are the requisites for the
issuance of a search warrant EXCEPT :

a. It must be issued upon probable cause


b. The probable cause must be determined
personally by the judge
c. Particularly describing the place to be
searched
d. Particularly describing the person to be
seized.
Ans. D
3. Maybe defined as the security given for the
release of a person in custody of law, furnished
by him or a bondsman, to guarantee his
appearance before any court as required under
the conditions herein specified.

a. Pardon
b. Bail
c. Probation
d. Parole
Ans. B
4. A detained prisoner is allowed to eat and drink in
a nearby restaurant on several occasions. He is
however well-guarded at all times. The warden
allowed him to go out of his cell without any
consideration whatsoever. The warden may be
charged with-

a. Negligence of duty
b. Dereliction of duty
c. Leniency or laxity
d. Infidelity
Ans. B
5. What crime is committed when A, driving
a truck, ran over a girl crossing the street
during a torrential rain and the girl died?

a. Homicide
b. Serious physical injuries
c. Murder
d. Reckless imprudence resulting to
homicide
Ans. D
6. It is defined as an accusation in writing
charging a person with an offense
subscribed by the fiscal and filed with
the court.

a. Information
b. b. Complaint
c. Action
d. Police blotter
Ans. A
7. The offender who is still undergoing
preliminary investigation at the prosecutor’s
office is referred to as –

a. Respondent
b. Suspect
c. Accused
d. Defendant
Ans. A
8. Refers to facts and circumstances that would
lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has been committed
and that the object sought in connection with
the offense is in the place searched is –

a. Probable cause
b. Search warrant
c. Plain view doctrine
d. Arrest warrant
Ans. A
9. What doctrine allows evidence obtained
by the police officers in an illegal
searched and seizures to be used
against the accused?

a. Exclusionary doctrine
b. Miranda ruling
c. Fruit of poisonous tree
d. Silver plate

Ans. C
10. Who are criminally liable, when having
knowledge of the commission of the crime,
without having principally participated therein,
takes part subsequent to the commission,
either in profiting by the effects of the crime or
by concealing or destroying the body of the
crime?

a. Witnesses
b. Accessories
c. Principals
d. Accomplices
Ans. B
11. Can a husband testify against the wife
in an adultery case?

a. Yes, the privilege of marital


communication rule is already abolished
b. Yes, under the law she is a competent
witness
c. Yes, because crime charge is one
committed by wife against he husband
d. No
Ans. D
12. This requirement imports the degree of proof
necessary to convict an accused of the crime
of treason consisting of the testimony of two
witnesses to the same over act.

a. Dangerous tendency rule


b. All of the foregoing
c. Two witness rule
d. None of the foregoing
Ans. C
13. The following statements are false, EXCEPT.

a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel


b. The accused must personally enter his plea
c. The accused may excuse/waive arraignment
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other
than where the case is assigned.
Ans. B
14. The law that prescribes certain rights of a
person arrested, detained or under custodial
investigation and the guidelines, procedure and
responsibilities of the arresting, detaining and
investigating officer is
a. B.P. 129, as amended
b. R.A 7691
c. R.A. 8294
d. R.A. 7438
Ans. D
15. What do you call the record of the court
where the proceedings of the court or the
judgment of the court is recorded in case the
accused failed to appear for the promulgation
of judgment despite notice –
a. Log book
b. Record book
c. Criminal docket book
d. Folio of the case.
Ans. C
16. Requisite before recall of a witness.

a. Leading Question
b. Misleading Question
c. Impeachment
d. Leave of Court
Ans. D
17. When a person is lawfully arrested without a
warrant of arrest involving an offense, which
requires a preliminary investigation, the complaint
or information may be filed without need of such
investigation, provided an _______ has been
conducted in accordance with existing law or
procedure –

a. Preliminary investigation
b. Preliminary examination
c. Inquest
d. Fact finding investigation.
Ans. C
18. It refers to the performance of an act
that ought not to be done

a. Nonfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. Malfeasance
d. Unfeasance
Ans. C
19. It is a crime committed when a married
woman is taken away against her will with lewd
design.

a. Forcible abduction
b. Consented abduction
c. Forcible seduction
d. Qualified seduction
Ans. A
20. The person, who is authorized by law to grant
probation to an accused convicted of a crime,
is:

a. President of the Philippines


b. Director of Prisons
c. Trial Court Judge
d. Jail Warden
Ans. C
21. Rule which requires the highest grade of
evidence obtainable to prove a disputed fact is
the original of a document.

a. Parole Evidence Rule


b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Original of a document
d. Secondary Evidence
Ans. B
22. Parties or assignors of parties to a case, or persons in
whose behalf a case is prosecuted, against an executor or
administrator or other representative of a deceased
person, or against a person of unsound mind, upon a claim
or demand against the estate of such deceased person or
against such person of unsound mind, cannot testify as to
any matter of fact accruing before the death of such
deceased person or before such person became of
unsound mind.

a. Marital Disqualification
b. Privilege Communication Rule
c. Parental and filial privilege
d. Dead Man’s Statute Rule
Ans. D
23. It is the felony committed when a person
takes away a minor, over 12 but under 18
years of age, with her consent, after
solicitation or cajolery from the offender,
committed with lewd design.

a. Forcible abduction
b. Consented abduction
c. Forcible seduction
d. Qualified seduction
Ans. B
24. The following are crimes against
chastity, EXCEPT

a. Adultery
b. Concubinage
c. Rape
d. Seduction
Ans. C
25. The offender performs all acts of execution, that
would produce the felony as a consequence, but
the felony was not produced, by reason of causes
independent of the will of the perpetrator are the
requisites of:

a. Attempted felony
b. Frustrated felony
c. Consummated felony
d. Impossible crime
Ans. B
26. It is the rule followed by the Philippines
whenever a crime is committed inside a
Philippine ship or airship while in a foreign
territory.

a. French Rule
b. Spanish Rule
c. English Rule
d. General Rule
Ans. C
27. It is a characteristic of criminal laws that
requires that they be applied to all persons who
live or sojourn in the Philippine territory.

a. Generality
b. Territoriality
c. Territorially
d. Generally
Ans. A
28. It is a law that partially or totally
modifies or changes an existing law.

a. Repealed law
b. Repealing law
c. Repelled law
c. Repelling law
Ans. B
29. The following felonies do not admit of a
frustrated stage, except:

a. Rape
b. Physical injuries
c. Adultery
d. Theft
Ans. D
30. It is a legislative enactment that inflicts
punishment for a crime without judicial trial.

a. Ex post facto law


b. Bill of attainder
c. Enrolled bill
d. Expose facto law
Ans. B
31. Stage in the commission of a felony when all
the elements necessary for its accomplishment
and execution are present.

a. Attempted
b. Frustrated
c. Consummated
d. Enumerated
Ans. C
32. It is incurred by a person committing a felony
although the wrongful act done be different
from what he intended to do.

a. Felonious act
b. Offense
c. Criminal liability
c. Civil liability
Ans. C
33. The condition sine-quanon or
indispensable element in self defense.

a. Provocation
b. b. Unlawful aggression
c. Reasonable necessity
d. Irresistible force
Ans. B
34. Is an agreement made between two or more
parties as a settlement of matters in dispute?

a. Conspiracy
b. Settlement
c. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
d. Compromise
Ans. D
35. It maybe defined as the forfeiture of the right
of the government to execute the final
sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed
by law.

a. Impossible crime
b. b. Prescription of penalty
c. Prescription of crime
d. None of the above
Ans. B
36. X threatened to kill Y if the latter will not give
him one thousand pesos. What crime has been
committed by X?

a. Attempted murder
b. Kidnapping for ransom
c. Grave threats
d. Grave coercion
Ans. C
37. At the hearing of an application for admission
to bail, the __________ has the burden of
showing that the evidence of guilt is strong.

a. Prosecution
b. Defense
c. Court
d. Bailiff
Ans. A
38. One which is any act committed without violence
but unjustly annoys an innocent person. As it is a
punishable act, it should include any human
conduct which, although not productive of some
physical of material harm would however, unjust
or annoy an innocent person.

a. Grave coercion
b. Unjust vexation
c. Forcible abduction
d. Maltreatment
Ans. B
39. M forcibly entered G’s house one night. G
was awakened and M immediately left the
place. M’s crime is?

a. Attempted robbery
b. Frustrated robbery
c. Robbery with trespass to dwelling
d. Trespass to dwelling
Ans. D
40. How may, an ordinary citizen gives his opinion
regarding the handwriting of a person?

a. When he has testify only as to the mental and


emotional state of the one who authored the
handwriting
b. When it is the handwriting of one whom he has
sufficient familiarity
c. When he is a questioned document examiner
d. None of the above
Ans. B
41. The Judiciary Reorganization Act is
otherwise known as –

a. PD 1612
b. BP 186
c. RA 7695
d. BP 129
Ans. D
42. At what time may the accused move to
quash the complaint or information?

a. At any time before his arrest


b. Only after entering his plea
c. At any time before entering his plea
d. All of the foregoing
Ans. C
43. A person designated to assist destitute
litigants.

a. Counsel
b. Attorney at law
c. Attorney on record
d. Counsel de officio
Ans. D
44. Which of the following is an example of
an afflictive penalty ?

a. Prision mayor
b. Arresto mayor
c. Prision correctional
d. fine
Ans. A
45. Under this theory, man is considered as an
essentially moral creature with an absolute
freewill to choose between good and evil,
therefore, he should be judged or held
accountable for his wrongful acts for as his will is
unimpaired.

a. Justice or Classical theory


b. Positivist or Realistic theory
c. Territoriality
d. None of the foregoing
Ans. A
46. Kho is known for his obscene materials. One of
his writings entitled “Hayden” was stolen from his
office and was published by someone. The
authorities got hold of the obscene magazine.
Kho is –

a. Not liable at all


b. Liable for pornography
c. Liable of obscene publication (as a co-publisher)
d. Liable of obscene publication (as author)
Ans. A
47. It is granted in connection with crimes against
property, and is limited to prejudice that the
injured party suffered.

a. Prejudicial question
b. Reparation
c. Probation
d. None of the foregoing
Ans. B
48. A judgment become final after the lapse of the
period for-

a. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution


b. Presentation of evidence by the defense
counsel
c. Perfecting an appeal
d. All of the foregoing
Ans. C
49. Any lawyer or members of the bar shall, at the
request of the person arrested or of another
acting in his behalf, have the right to visit and
confer privately with such person, in jail or any
other place of custody at –

a. Any hour of the working day only


b. Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases, of the
night
c. Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
d. Any hour of the designated visiting day only
Ans. B
50. It is defined as the deprivation by a public
officer to the liberty of a person without any
legal ground, if the offender is a private
person illegal detention is committed.

a. Illegal detention
b. Violation of domicile
c. Arbitrary detention
d. Any of the foregoing
Ans. C
 51. The complaint or information should
state the following EXCEPT –
 a. Name of the offended party
 b. The designation of the offense by the
state
 c. Name of the accused
 d. Name of the court

Ans. D
 52. All persons, having organs of sense,
can perceive and perceiving, and can
make their perception to others, may be-
 a. Witness
 b. Prosecutor
 c. Defense counsel
 d. All of the foregoing

Ans. A
 53. It is a doctrine usually applied where
the police officers is not searching for
evidence against the accused but
nonetheless inadvertently come across
incriminating objects.
 a. Waiver or consented search
 b. Stop and frisk
 c. In flagrante delicto
 d. Plain view

Ans. D
 54. The following are the requisites of an
information except-
 a. It must be filed by the offended party
 b. It must charge the person with an offense
 c. It must be subscribed by the prosecutor
 d. It must be in writing

Ans. A
 55. If the accused appears to be suffering from
an unsound mental condition, which effectively
renders him unable to fully understand the
charge against him to plead intelligently.
 a. The criminal charged must shall be
dismissed
 b. The arraignment shall be suspended
 c. The trial shall be suspended
 d. All of the foregoing

Ans. B
 56. It is a form of evidences supplied by
written instruments or derived from
conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material
substances.
 a. Real evidence
 b. Documentary evidence
 c. Testimonial evidence
 d. Material evidence

Ans. B
 57. In determining the probable cause, it
is required that-
 a. The judge must examine the complaint
and his witnesses personally
 b. The examination must be under oath
 c. The examination must be in writing in
the form of searching questions and
answers
 d. All of the foregoing

Ans. D
 58. Are those acts and omissions
committed not only by means of deceit
but also by means of fault and are
punishable by law.
 a. Justifying circumstances
 b. Exempting circumstances
 c. Felonies
 d. Criminal liability

Ans. C
 59. What crime exists when a single act
constitutes two or more grave or less
grave felonies or when the offense is
necessary means for committing the
other?
 a. Complex crime
 b. Continuing crime
 c. Compound crime
 d. All of the above

Ans. A
 60. Alpha with intent to kill fired his revolver
to Bravo and inflicted a fatal wound. Alpha
brought Bravo to the hospital and due to
immediate medical assistance, Bravo
survived. What crime did Alpha committed?
 a. Physical injuries
 b. Frustrated homicide
 c. Frustrated murder
 d. No criminal liability

Ans. B
 61. In what instances is a warrant of
arrest is not necessary?
 a. If the accused is already under
detention
 b. If the complaint or information was
filed after the accused was lawfully
arrested without warrant
 c. When the penalty is fine only
 d. All of the Foregoing.

Ans. D
 62. What is defined as the means sanctioned
by the rules of ascertaining the judicial
proceeding the truth respecting a matter of
fact.
 a. Evidence
 b. Investigation
 c. Procedure
 d. Trial

Ans. A
 63. During the pending of his case, D died due
to heart attack. His untimely death resulted in-
 a. Postponement of the case
 b. Suspension of the case
 c. Dismissal of the case
 d. None of the above

Ans. C
 64. What if the offended party is a corporation,
how do you indicate it in the complaint or
information?
 a. Leave it blank
 b. State the name of the corporation
 c. Aver it in the charge sheet
 d. State the name of the owner of the
corporation

Ans. B
 65. Refers to the family history or descendant
transmitted from one generation to another.
 a. Pedigree
 b. Reputation
 c. Privies
 d. None of the above

Ans. A
 66. It is the loss or forfeiture of the right
of the state to prosecute a crime because
of the lapse of time.
 a. Prescription of penalty
 b. Prescription of Crime
 c. Conditional pardon
 d. Good conduct allowance

Ans. B
 67. It is defined as those which would have
been crimes against persons or properties
were if not for the inherent impossibility of
its accomplishment on account of the use of
inadequate or ineffectual means.
 a. Proximate cause
 b. Impossible crimes
 c. Formal crimes
 d. Material crimes

Ans. B
 68. The number of days the accused has to
prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is
entered.
 a. Within 30 days
 b. Within 45 days
 c. Within 15 days
 d. All of the above

Ans. C
 69. Criminal cases where the penalty
prescribed by law for the offense charged does
not exceed six months fall under the rule on-
 a. Regular procedure
 b. Summary procedure
 c. Criminal procedure
 d. Civil procedure

Ans. B
 70. Aggravating circumstances which generally
apply to all crimes such as dwelling, nighttime,
or recidivism.
 a. Specific
 b. Inherent
 c. Generic
 d. None of these

Ans. C
 71. This involves the trickery and cunning
on the part of the offender.
 a. Craft
 b. Fraud
 c. Deceit
 d. Estafa

Ans. A
 72. Delivered in open court wherein the
witness states that he does not know
whether a fact did or did nor occur.

 a. Positive evidence
 b. Negative evidence
 c. Real evidence
 d. Object evidence

Ans. B
 73. What is the legal term for Nighttime?
 a. Sanctuary
 b. Solitude
 c. Nocturnity
 d. Alevosia

Ans. C
 74. What is the order of reverse trial?

 a. Prosecution-Defense-Rebuttal-Submission for
decision
 b. Rebuttal-Defense-Prosecution-Submission for
decision
 c. Defense-Prosecution-Rebuttal-Submission for
decision
 d. Submission for decision-Rebuttal-Prosecution-
Defense

Ans. C
 75. Ancient document is a private
document which is more than _______
years old, produced from a custody in
which it would be naturally found it as
genuine.
 a. 25
 b. 30
 c. 35
 d. 40

Ans. B
 76. These are crimes which are
consummated in one single act.
 a. Material crimes
 b. Formal crimes
 c. Index crimes
 d. non-index crimes

Ans. B
 77. These are additional evidence of
different character tending to prove the
same point.

 a. Corroborative evidence
 b. Cumulative evidence
 c. Testimonial evidence
 d. Documentary evidence

Ans. A
 78. It is a portion of the execution of a
crime, starting from the point where the
offender begins to the point where he has
still control over his acts.
 a. Objective phase
 b. Subjective phase
 c. Negative phase
 d. Positive phase

Ans. B
 79. After the cross examination of the
witness, what is the next procedure?
 a. Direct examination
 b. Re-direct examination
 c. Cross examination
 d. Re-cross examination

Ans. B
 80. The following are exempt from the
operation of our criminal laws, except:
 a. Ambassadors
 b. Consul general
 c. Minister plenipotentiary
 d. Minister resident

Ans. B
 81. A crime punishable by arresto mayor
prescribes in:
 a. 20 years
 b. 15 years
 c. 10 years
 d. 5 years

Ans. D
 82. If the accused is lawfully arrested
without a warrant of arrest for a grave
offense, he can only be detained within this
period, otherwise he will be released .

 a. 36 hrs.
 b. 18 hrs.
 c. 12 hrs.
 d. 72 hrs.

Ans. A
 83. Offenses involving criminal negligence
where the penalty of fines does not exceed a
fine of P10,000.00 is within the coverage of this
rule.
 a. Regular procedure
 b. Ordinary procedure
 c. Summary procedure
 d. Any of this

Ans. C
 84. It is not necessary to state in the complaint or
information the precise time at which the offense
was committed. However, in one of the following
crimes time of the commission is an essential
element, and therefore, must be alleged in the
complaint or information.
 a. Parricide
 b. Infanticide
 c. Abortion
 d. Malicious mischief

Ans. B
 85. The personal evaluation of the judge
after the filing of a case in court for the
purpose of determining the existence of a
probable cause for the issuance of a
warrant of arrest.
 a. Preliminary investigation
 b. Preliminary examination
 c. Criminal investigation
 d. Inquest

Ans. B
 86. The pre-marking of evidence of the
parties for identification purposes are
suppose to be made during this stage of the
proceedings –

 a. Arraignment
 b. Trial proper
 c. Pre-trial conference
 d. Direct examination

Ans. C
 87. An extra-judicial confession made by an
accused shall not be sufficient and admissible
unless it is in:
 a. Writing
 b. Voluntarily given
 c. Presence of his counsel
 d. All of these

Ans. D
 88. The penalty of reclusion temporal
prescribes in:
 a. 20 years
 b. 15 years
 c. 10 years
 d. 5 years

Ans. C
 89. It refers to the final determination by a
Court of competent jurisdiction of the
issues submitted to in a case such that
after it is issued, the case ends if the losing
party does not appeal.
 a. Interlocutory order
 b. Summons
 c. Subpoena
 d. Judgment

Ans. D
 90. It is also known as “crime of the giver”
when a private person gives money to a
public officer so that he will do something
favorable to the giver
 a. Direct bribery
 b. Indirect bribery
 c. Corruption of a public official
 d. Accused is pregnant

Ans. C
 91. It is the crime committed when a public
officer uses public funds for his own personal
benefit or for the benefit of another person.
 a. Illegal use of public funds
 b. Malversation of public funds
 c. Plunder
 d. None of the above

Ans. B
 92. Criminal actions requires preliminary
investigation by the proper officers where the
prescribed penalty at least
 a. 6 months and 2 days
 b. 4 yrs. 2 mos. And 1 day
 c. 6 yrs. 2 mos. And 1 day
 d. 4 yrs. And 1 day

Ans. B
 93. The kind of evidence addressed to the
senses of the court, which is also known as the
evidence of the highest probative value
 a. Oral testimony
 b. Object evidence
 c. Documentary evidence
 d. Testimonial evidence

Ans. B
 94. The Decree Penalizing Obstruction of
Apprehension and Prosecution of Criminal
Offenders.
 a. PD 968
 b. PD 1612
 c. PD 603
 d. PD 1829

Ans. D
 95. Refers to the taking of several
properties about the same place and time
arising from a single intent gives rise to only
one crime.

 a. Delito Continuado
 b. Delito Complejo
 c. Delito Compuesto
 d. None of the above

Ans. A
 96. Subsidiary imprisonment is a personal
liability to be suffered by the convict who has
no property to meet the fine but required to pay
________ each day.

 a. 7 Pesos
 b. 8. Pesos
 c. 9 Pesos
 d. 10 Pesos

Ans. B
 97. An application for a search warrant can be
made in any court of the Philippines which has
jurisdiction over the subject matter
 a. Wholly true
 b. Partly true
 c. Wholly false
 d. Partly false

Ans. A
 98. Within what period the warrant of
arrest be executed by the police officer
 a. 10 days from its date
 b. 10 days from its issuance
 c. 10 days from receipt
 d. 10 days application

Ans. C
 99. The constitutional right to consider “a
speedy, impartial and public trail” is available to

 a. Both parties
 b. Accused
 c. Offended party
 d. None of these

Ans. A
 100. The period within which the police officer will
make his report stating the action taken by him
whether the warrant of arrest was enforced or not
is within

 a. 10 days from receipt


 b. 10 days date
 c. 10 days from its issuance
 d. 10 days after the lapse of the period to execute
the warrant

Ans. D
Situation 1.
During custodial investigation at the Central Police
District, Quezon City, “A” was informed of his
constitutional right, to remain silent and to have a
competent and independent counsel. He decided to
waive his right to counsel and proceeded to make a
statement admitting commission of robbery.

101. A’s statement is inadmissible in evidence against him


because –

a. The right to remain silent cannot be waived


b. It was not made in the presence of the counsel
c. The waiver was not made in writing and in the presence
of the counsel
d. It was not made in writing

Ans. A
102. Assuming that all conditions in the waiver were
properly observed except the right to counsel
which was waived “A” could not afford the
services of one, A’s statement will be –

a. Admissible, because A was informed of his to


counsel but he could not afford to hire one
b. Inadmissible, because A must be provided with
counsel free of charge
c. Admissible, because A did not insists of his right
to counsel and he voluntary waived it
d. Admissible in evidence against him because all
the conditions were present in the waiver

Ans. B
103. Assuming that the public prosecutor on the basis of
the now written confession of A, who waived his right
to counsel because he could not afford one, filed the
information against him and the judge after trial,
convicted A on the basis of his written confession. A
would like to appeal his case to higher court. The
appeal should be filed -

a. Within 30 days from the time A’s counsel de officio


who was absent of the time of promulgation receive a
written copy of the judgment of conviction
b. Within 30 days from the date the case was submitted
for resolution
c. Within 15 days from the promulgation of judgment
d. Within 15 days from the date of pre-trial conference

Ans. C
Situation 2.
Brad Pitt was a stay-in cook in Club John Hay. He
was afraid of bad elements. One evening, before
going to bed, he locked himself in his room by placing
a chair against the door. After having gone to bed, he
was awakened by someone trying to open the door.
He called out “who’s there?” but he received no
answer. Fearing that the intruder was a robber, he
leaped from bed and called out again, “if you enter the
room I will kill you”. But at that precise moment he was
struck by the chair that had been placed against the
door, and believing that he was being attacked, he
seized a kitchen knife and struck and seriously
wounded the intruder who turned out to be his wife
who was giving him a surprise visit.
104. Assuming Brad Pitt is liable under the
foregoing circumstances, what crime has he
committed?

a. Frustrated murder
b. Frustrated parricide
c. Serious physical injuries
d. Frustrated homicide

Ans. C
105. Which of the following circumstances
affecting criminal liability in general
applicable in the above situation?

a. Nullifying circumstances
b. Aggravating circumstances
c. Mitigating circumstances
d. Exempting circumstances

Ans. D
106. Which of the following specific
circumstances affecting criminal liability
can be invoked properly by Brad Pitt?

a. Mistake of fact
b. Accident
c. Self-defense
d. Treachery

Ans. A
Situation 3.
Angel and Demon are neighbors. During a
drinking spree, Angel punched Demon without
any provocation. Demon’s injury required
medical attention for a period of seven days.
Immediately there after, SPO1 Pus Khol whose
help was sought by Demon took the statement
of Demon and did not know anymore what to
do.
107. What crime was committed by Angel?

a. Slight Physical Injuries


b. Serious Physical Injuries
c. Less Serious Physical Injuries
d. Attempted Murder

Ans. A
108. Considering the nature of the offense
committed by Angel, SPO1 Pus Khol
should –

a. File the case directly with the Court


b. Instruct Demon to file the matter first, before the
Barangay
c. File the case before the prosecutor’s office
d. File the case himself before the Barangay Court

Ans. C
109. Assuming the result of the action of Angel was
death, instead of mere physical injuries to
Demon, SPO1 Pus Khol should, in his
investigation and report concentrate and stress
on:

a. Whether the Barangay Court has no jurisdiction


over the case
b. Whether or not Demon was also drunk
c. Whether or not there was really no intent to kill
d. Whether or not Angel was drunk at that time

Ans. C
110. Assuming that Angel was drunk at the
time that he committed the offense, his
drunkenness would be considered as:

a. Exempting circumstance
b. Aggravating circumstances
c. Mitigating circumstances
d. Alternative circumstances

Ans. D
111. Assuming that the action of Angel
resulted to deformity (physical ugliness
which is visible) on the part of Demon,
what crime is committed by Angel?

a. Slight Physical Injuries


b. Serious Physical Injuries
c. Less Serious Physical Injuries
d. Attempted Murder

Ans. B
112. Supposing the judge rendered an oral decision.
It may be either be for conviction, acquittal, or
dismissal. The oral decision will never become
final because –

a. It was not in writing


b. Not signed by the judge who render it
c. The judge can still change or modify it
d. All of the foregoing

Ans. D
Situation 4.
A with intent to kill B, shot the latter right in
between his eyes who was then at that time lying
in his bed, not knowing that B is already dead due
to heart attack and before A shot him.

113. What crime is committed by A?

a. Homicide
b. Physical Injuries
c. Impossible crime
d. No criminal liability

Ans. C
114. What would be the penalty of A if any?

a. Arresto Menor or a fine ranging from


200 to 500 pesos
b. Arresto Mayor
c. Prision Correctional
d. No penalty would be given

Ans. A

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