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Cash flow before tax times (1 - the marginal tax rate), plus
Lecture 7 - Cash Flows and Net Present Value I. Cash Flow Calculation a. CFBT = Cash Flows Before Tax b. CF = Cash Flow After Tax = CFBT - Taxes
c. Depreciation = Non-Cash Expense is a Tax Shield d. CF = CFBT(1 - T) + Depr(T) where T = tax rate
III.
Plant
= 180,000
Accruals = 15,000
II.
INITIAL COSTS - AT t=0 Plant, equipment, land purchased Opportunity costs of land, etc. (owned but could be sold). Transportation, installation costs of new plant/equipment Additional working capital=Cur. Assets - Cur. Liabilities.
III.
OPERATING CASH FLOWS (Cash in - Cash out)(1 - T) + Depr(T) We consider the asset's FULL economic life which is generally longer than its depreciable life => tax shield only in first few years. If the acceptance of the project reduces cash flows from other projects this opportunity cost must be factored in, e. g., rent lost on floor space. QUESTION: Suppose the building was not being rented?
IV.
Salvage value from asset sale = After-Tax Salvage = Sale Price - (Sale Price - Book Value)(Tax Rate).
Where Book Value is the assets remaining depreciation. Tax shield from loss due to asset sale - firm must be profitable.
Example: Suppose we have purchased a machine at $1.0M, with a depreciable life of 3 years, we use straight line depreciation, the tax rate is 40%, it produces revenues of $400,000 per year and variable expenses of $300,000 per year, and we can sell it for $100,000 at the end of 5 years. Show initial investment, operating and terminal cash flows.
Initial
= $1,000,000 at Time 0
Summary Year 0 = - $1,000,000 Year 1 = $ 193,333 Year 2 = $ 193,333 Year 3 = $ 193,333 Year 4 = $ 60,000 Year 5 = $ 120,000
New
Inflow of funds from old asset sale including disposal costs (+) Tax benefit (liability) on sale of old asset (+/-)
Incremental operating CF = CF
= (CFBTnew - CFBTold)(1 - T) + (Deprnew - Deprold)(T) Just the difference between new and old cash flows and depreciation.
Same
New Funds that would inflow if old asset were sold (-) Disposal costs that would have been paid on old asset (+) Tax benefit (liab.) on replaced asset if it would have been sold for a loss (gain) (-,+) CF on new asset sale (+) Tax benefit (liability) if asset sold at loss/gain (+/-) Recapture all net working capital (+) Disposal costs of new asset (-)
ESSENTIAL DIFFERENCES 1. Old asset is sold early - immediate inflow, disposal & tax consequences (*Big Benefit-> May get tax benefit since market value may be less than book value; eg. computers.) 2. Old asset is not sold later - opportunity costs, disposal and tax consequences. Examples include asbestos and asphalt shingles - cost more to dispose later. 3. Any effect on present and continuing investments. 4. Forgone operating cash flows from replaced investment
Example: E Services is considering replacement of a machine that was purchased 3 years ago for $60,000 and is generating CFBT of $15,000 per year. The machines depreciation is 5-year straight-line. If sold today it would bring $18,000; sold in 5 more years it would bring $10,000. The new machine would cost $75,000, be depreciated over 5 years with straight-line, require $8,000 in installation costs which will be expensed immediately, and generate $30,000 in CFBT. Its resale value in 5 years is $20,000. If E services tax rate is 40 percent and its cost of capital is 14 percent, should the machine be replaced? Calculate Incremental After-Tax CFs Initial Investment Cost of new machine $75,000 Installation ($8,000)(1 - .40) 4,800 Old machine sale (18,000) Tax Saving from olds sale (2,400) [$60,000 - (60,000/5)(3) - $18,000](.40) $59,400 Incremental Operating CFs CF1-2 = (30,000 - 15,000)(1-.40) + (15,000 - 12,000)(.40) = 10,200 CF3-5 = (30,000 - 15,000)(1 - .40) + (15,000)(.40) = 15,000
Terminal CF After-tax CF on sale of new machine (20,000 - 0)(.60) minus the foregone 12,000
6,000
Incremental cash flows when replacing an asset or considering an asset that may impact profitability of other assets. Shorter life cycles and more frequent replacement decisions.
Replacement Project <--------|--------> New Related Project (pure substitute) (independent) (pure compliment) Risk adjustment to the discount rate for different risk projects. Different discount rate for different parts of a single project.
Whenever a new project is accepted, in order to judge its merits properly, we must consider the positive or negative impact it has on the projects we already have or plan to accept. Example: T Products has two projects it may undertake. Project 1 produces Hawiian shirts and requires an initial investment of $150,000 and provides CFs of $60,000, $80,000 and $100,000 in years 1, 2, and 3 respectively. Project 2 produces Jamaican shirts and requires an initial investment of $60,000 and provides CFs of $30,000, $30,000 and $30,000 in years 1, 2, and 3 respectively. If both 1 and 2 are undertaken then project 1s CFs will be reduced by $10,000 per year. If the cost of capital is 14 percent, what should T Products do?
NPVonly 1 = -150,000 + 60,000[PV.14,1] + 80,000[PV.14,2] + = 31,640 100,000[PV.14,3] NPVonly 2 = -60,000 + 30,000[PVA.14,3] = 9,660 NPV1 and 2 = 31,640 + 9,660 - 10,000[PVA.14,3] = 18,080
Lecture 7 - Cash Flows and Net Present Value 1. CAPM Method - assign project a beta and use k = kf + B(km - kf) 2. Risk-Adjusted Discount Rate (RADR) Method (Also Called Expected NPV Approach)
Here, E() means Expectation. We need to attach probabilities to possible CFs and find expected CFs. One Way to get RADR a. Calculate the Coefficient of Variation for CFs where CV = Standard Deviation of CFs / E(CFs) b. Start with MCC (Marginal Cost of Capital) Then Adjust MCC as follows RADR = MCC + Risk Adjustment (positive, zero negative)
By Project Type Cost Reduction = Low Risk (small CV) -> adjust down Replacement Projects = Average Risk (average CV) -> no New Projects = High Risk (large CV) -> adjust up
Lecture 7 - Cash Flows and Net Present Value Sequential Analysis to Adjust for Different Risks at Different Project Stages
Research and => Sell in Test Market Build Prototype =>Failure => zero/Small CFs
Use a large k for early risky stages and a smaller k for later, less risky stages. Similar to options analysis covered later. Steps: a. Get NPVs for Branches Using Small k b. Apply Probabilities to Each Branch NPV and Sum to Get Expected NPV c. Discount the Expected NPV Back to Time 0 Using Large k d. Discount Other Cash Flows From Earlier Periods in First Stage at Large k
II. Example: Suppose you have a project that requires an initial investment of $400,000 and $400,000 at the end of this year and next year for research. The required return for this research phase of the project is 30%. The projects second marketing phase will be a success with 75% probability or a failure with 25% probability. If a success, you will invest another $500,000 at the end of year 3 and receive $1,000,000 at the end of each of the next 4 years. If a failure, you will invest $200,000 at the end of year 3 and receive $200,000 at the end of each of the next 4 years. If the required rate of return for the second phase is 10%, should you make the investment? NPVsuccess= $1,000,000[PVA.10,4]-$500,000 = $1,000,000(3.170) - $500,000 = $2,670,000 NPVfailure = $ 200,000[PVA.10,4]-$200,000 = $ 200,000(3.170) - $200,000 = $ 434,000 Exp. NPV = .75($2,670,000) + .25($434,000) = $2,111,000 NPVoverall = -$400,000 - $400,000[PVA.30,2] + $2,111,000[PV.30,3] = $16,476 Decision: Accept.
Vary some assumptions about the economy or industry (say oil prices) and find the effects on CFs and NPVs
This is a way to force one to consider possible problems but is not an accurate method. Simulation - more complex sensitivity analysis - more variables change at once, random number generator chooses, results given as probability distribution, --> difference is that interdependency between changing variables can be handled easier. BREAK EVEN ANALYSIS IN A FINANCE (NPV=0) SENSE, NOT AN ACCOUNTING (DOLLAR) SENSE -> (EAT= 0)
STEPS
1. Find CF annuity required to get NPV = 0 PVout = PVin Initial Investment = CF(PVAk,n)
Compare to Accounting Break Even X - VX - F - Depr - (X - VX - F - Depr)(t) = 0 or X - VX - F - (X - VX - F - Depr)(t) = Depr Finance breakeven gets back present value of investment while accounting breakeven gets back dollars invested.
Lecture 7 - Cash Flows and Net Present Value Example: E Products plans a $4 million investment that will be depreciated over 10 years with straight-line. Variable costs are 50 percent of sales, fixed costs are $300,000 per year, the tax rate is 30 percent and the cost of capital is 18 percent. Find the accounting and financial break-even sales points and explain why they differ. Depreciation = 4,000,000/10 = 400,000 Accounting break-even X - .5X - 300,000 - 400,000 (X - .5X -300,000 - 400,000)(.30) = 0
=> X = 1,400,000
X - .5X -300,000 - (X - .5X -300,000 - 400,000)(.30) = 890,076 .35X - 90,000 = 890,076 => X = 2,800,160
Financial breakeven is larger because it requires future cash flows to recover the present value of the investment.